Module 3 Flashcards
The most common cause of hypoxemia
ventilation-perfusion mismatch
Clinical manifestations of bronchiectasis
chronic productive cough that can lead to hemoptysis
Bronchiolitis is the most common in
children
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis
RSV
A person has pneumoconiosis. Which information would the APRN find in the person’s history?
inhaled inorganic dust particles, resulting in a change in the lungs
Meaning of pneumoconiosis
inhaled inorganic matter into the lungs
Asthma is a chronic
inflammatory disorder
Asthma causes ____, constriction of the airways, and variable airflow obstruction that is reversible
bronchial hyper-responsiveness
Asthma causes bronchial hyper-responsiveness, _____, and variable airflow obstruction that is reversible.
constriction of the airways
Asthma causes bronchial hyper-responsiveness, constriction of the airways, and _____ that is reversible
variable airflow obstruction
Asthma causes bronchial hyper-responsiveness, constriction of the airways, and variable airflow obstruction that is ____
reversible
A child has asthma. What pathophysiologic process occurs in this disease? (3 characteristics)
Chronic inflammatory disorder
causing mucosal edema &
reversible airflow obstruction
A person has pneumococcal pneumonia. Which pathophysiologic process has occurred? (3)
Inflammatory cytokines cause alveolar edema,
which causes a medium for microorganisms
that leads to consolidation.
A person has a pulmonary embolism. What will the APRN find upon assessment ? (3 characteristics)
Sudden pleuritic chest pain
dyspnea
unexplained anxiety
A child has laryngotracheobronchitis (croup). Which information should the nurse remember when planning care for this child? Laryngotracheobronchitis is caused by …
subglottic edema from infection
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is most commonly associated with
adenotonsillar hypertrophy
What pathophysiologic response is correctly matched to its disease?
Bronchiolitis obliterans is caused by fibrotic obstruction of the respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts
The APRN recalls that cystic fibrosis is associated with
defective epithelial chloride ion transport
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by _______ that cause obstructive problems within the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive tracts.
abnormal secretions
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause _____ within the respiratory, digestive and reproductive tracts.
obstructive problems
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause obstructive problems within the _____, digestive and reproductive tracts.
respiratory
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause obstructive problems within the respiratory, ____ and reproductive tracts.
digestive
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause obstructive problems within the respiratory, digestive and _____ tracts.
reproductive
CF: Because the lungs are the most critical site of involvement, _____ health is the primary concern
pulmonary
CF causes a persistent ______ which also causes bronchiectasis
chronic bronchial inflammation
CF causes a persistent chronic bronchial inflammation which also causes
bronchiectasis
___ is a sign/symptom of pulmonary disease
Cough
Cough is a sign/symptom of ____
pulmonary disease
____ is a protective reflex that helps clear the airways by an explosive expiration
cough
a cough is a protective reflex that helps
clear the airways by an explosive expiration
Acute cough resolves within
2-3 weeks
Chronic cough lasts longer than
3 weeks
3 causes of cough that are NOT related to respiratory issues are ____, GERD, and medications (ACEi)
post-nasal drip
3 causes of cough not related to respiratory issues are post-nasal drip, ____, & medications (ACEi)
GERD
3 causes of cough not related to respiratory issues are post-nasal drip, GERD, and _____
medications (i.e. ACEi)
Hypoventilation means the ____ is inadequate in relationship to metabolic demands
alveolar ventilation
Hypoventilation means the alveolar ventilation is ____ in relationship to the metabolic demands
inadequate
Hypoventilation means the alveolar ventilation is inadequate in relationship to the _____
metabolic demands
Hypoventilation means the _____ is _____ in relationship to the _____
alveolar ventilation;
inadequate;
metabolic demands
Hypoventilation leads to (which acid-base imbalance)
respiratory acidosis
Hyperventilation occurs when _____ exceeds the metabolic demands
alveolar ventilation
Hyperventilation occurs when alveolar ventilation _____ the metabolic demands.
exceeds
Hyperventilation occurs when the alveolar ventilation exceeds the ____
metabolic demands
Hyperventilation occurs when the _____ _____ the _____
alveolar ventilation;
exceeds;
metabolic demand
Hyperventilation leads to what acid-base imbalance?
respiratory alkalosis
What is clubbing ?
painless and grows over weeks to months due to chronic hypoxia
Painless and grows over weeks to months due to hypoxia is
clubbing
Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) _____, bronchiectasis, CF, pulmonary fibrosis, and congenital heart disease
COPD
Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, _____, CF, pulmonary fibrosis, and congenital heart disease
bronchiectasis
Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, bronchiectasis,_____, pulmonary fibrosis, and congenital heart disease
CF
Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, bronchiectasis, CF, _______ and congenital heart disease
pulmonary fibrosis
Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, bronchiectasis, CF, pulmonary fibrosis and _______
congenital heart disease
Clubbing is rarely _____
reversible
Hypoxemia vs hypoxia
hypoxemia is
reduced in arterial blood
Hypoxemia vs hypoxia
hypoxia is
ischemic related and reduced oxygen in the cells
Pneumothorax is the
presence of air or gas in the pleural space
Presence of air or gas in the pleural space is called a
pneumothorax
Pleural effusion is the
presence of fluid in the pleural space
The presence of fluid in the pleural space is called a
pleural effusion
Empyema is ____
pus
Empyema treatment is
antimicrobial medications
Another treatment for empyema is
drainage with a chest tube
Where does bronchiectasis occur
bronchial wall or lumen obstruction
Bronchiectasis is the
persistent abnormal dilation of bronchi
Bronchitis is the inflammation of
lining of the bronchial tubes
Where does bronchitis occur
in the bronchial tubes
Bronchitis is usually caused by _____
viruses
Bronchiolitis occurs where ?
in the smallest airways or bronchioles
Where are bronchioles located?
most distal end of bronchi before the alveoli
Bronchiectasis is the persistent abnormal _____ by destruction of the elastic or muscular components of the bronchial wall or lumen obstruction
dilation of the bronchi
Bronchiectasis is the persistent abnormal dilation of the bronchi by _______ of the bronchial wall or lumen obstruction
destruction of the elastic or muscular components
Asthma is the inflammatory
disorder of the bronchial mucosa
an inflammatory disorder of the bronchial mucosa is
asthma
Causes of asthma : (3)
1 ____
2 constriction of the airways
3 variable airflow obstruction that is reversible
bronchial hyper-responsiveness
Causes of asthma (3)
1 bronchial hyper-responsiveness
2 _____
3 variable airflow obstruction that is reversible
constriction of the airways
Causes of asthma (3)
1 bronchial hyper-responsiveness
2 constriction of the airways
3 _____
variable airflow obstruction that is reversible
What are a key component to asthma attacks?
allergies b/c many attacks are due to an allergic reaction
COPD is an airflow _____
limitation that is not fully reversible
COPD is usually ______ and associated with chronic bronchitis and emphysema
progressive
COPD is usually progressive and associated with _____ & emphysema
chronic bronchitis
COPD is usually progressive and associated with chronic bronchitis & ____
emphysema
Emphysema is the abnormal ____ accompanied by the destruction of the alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis
permanent enlargement of the gas-exchange airways
Emphysema is the abnormal permanent enlargement of the gas-exchange airways accompanied by the _____
destruction of the alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis
Chronic bronchitis is (3)
1 _____
2 infection/inflammation of the airways or bronchii
3 self-limiting
caused by virus 90% of the time
Chronic bronchitis is (3)
1 caused by a virus 90% of the time
2 _____
3 self-limiting
infection/inflammation of the airways or bronchii
Chronic bronchitis is (3)
1 caused by virus 90% of the time
2 infection/inflammation of the airways or bronchii
3 _____
is self-limiting
community acquired pneumonia is
streptococcus pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism commonly (90%) arisies from
the deep veins in the legs
Virchow Triad is (3)
venous stasis
hypercoagulability
& injuries to the endothelial cells that line the vessels
Cor pulmonale is the enlargement of what chamber ?
right ventricular
Right ventricular enlargement is known as
Cor Pulmonale
Cor Pulmonale is _____, creating chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle
pulmonary hypertension
Cor pulmonale is pulmonary hypertension, creating ____
chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle
Cor Pulmonale clinical manifestations:
heart appears normal at rest but with exercise decreased cardiac output and chest pain
S/S of pulmonary edema:
____, hypoxia, dullness to percussion over bases, & inspiratory crackles
dyspnea
S/S of pulmonary edema:
dyspnea, _____, dullness to percussion over bases, & inspiratory crackles
hypoxia
S/S of pulmonary edema:
dyspnea, hypoxia, _____ , & inspiratory crackles
dullness to percussion over bases
S/S of pulmonary edema:
dyspnea, hypoxia, dullness to percussion over bases, &
inspiratory crackles
S/S of severe pulmonary edema
pink frothy sputum
Laryngeal cancer clinical manifestations: (3)
hoarseness
dypnea
cough
_____ cancer is the most frequent cause of cancer death in the USA
lung
TNM classification:
T (primary tumor)
N (nodal)
M (metastasis)
Surfactant maintains
alveolar expansion
_____ maintains alveolar expansion
surfactant
Surfactant is produced by _____ weeks gestation
20-24
Surfactant is secreted into the
fetal airways by 30 weeks gestation
Babies born before ______ are at risk for inadequate surfactant in the lungs
30 weeks
Babies born before 30 weeks are at risk for ….
inadequate surfactant in the lungs
Croup clinical manifestations:
_____, hoarse voice, & inspiratory stridor
seal-like barking cough
Croup clinical manifestations:
seal-like barking cough, ____ & inspiratory stridor
hoarse voice
Croup clinical manifestations:
seal-like barking cough, hoarse voice, & _____
inspiratory stridor
In bronchiolitis, _____ is the most common associated pathogen
RSV
Most common cause of viral pneumonia
RSV
In bacterial pneumonia, these are the 2 most common causes of infection
Streptococcal and staphylococcal microorganisms
Cystic fibrosis (in children) is an
autosomal recessive multisystem disease
Cystic fibrosis in the lungs:
_____ & predispose the lungs to chronic infection
thick secretions obstruct the bronchioles
Cystic fibrosis in the lungs:
thick secretions that obstruct the bronchioles & _____
predispose the lungs to chronic infection
Cystic fibrosis also has chronic _____
inflammation
Cystic fibrosis also has _____ inflammation
chronic
Which statement is correct regarding disorders of motility?
a succussion (sloshing sound) splash from jarring of the abdomen occurs in pyloric obstruction
Which finding is typical for Crohn’s disease?
noncaseating granulomas
Which intervention if most appropriate for a person with portal hypertension?
monitor for hematemesis
A person has alcoholic liver disease. What is the sequence of the development of this disease?
- steatosis (fatty liver)
- steatohepatitis (fatty liver w/inflammation)
- fibrosis
A person has cancer in the left descending colon. What will the nurse typically find upon assessment?
narrow and pencil-shaped stools
What is pyloric stenosis associated with?
muscle hyperplasia
An infant arrives in the emergency dept with a diagnosis of intussusception. Which data will the nurse typically find during the assessment?
currant-jelly stools
What is the pathophysiologic process that occurs in a person with a gluten-sensitive enteropathy?
T-cell mediated autoimmune injury to the intestinal epithelial cells
Which disease is correctly matched to its pathophysiologic process?
necrotizing enteropathy-noxious substances damage to the intestines
Intrahepatic portal hypertension is associated with ?
cirrhosis
Severe acute malnutrition is a stage of starvation associated with food shortages. Severe deficiency of all nutrients is also known as
marasmus
The major pathophysiologic characteristic of gluten sensitivity is an ?
autoimmune injury to the intestinal epithelial cells
Pathophysiology of constipation - 4 types
- normal transit/functional
- slow-transit
- pelvic floor dysfunction
- secondary (opioids)
3 types of diarrhea:
- osmotic - nonabsorbable substance
- secretory - excessive mucosal secretion
- motility - excessive motility
Systemic manifestations of diarrhea include: ______, inflammatory, & malabsorption
acute bacterial or viral infection
Systemic manifestations of diarrhea include: acute bacterial or viral infection, _____, & malabsorption
inflammatory
Systemic manifestations of diarrhea include : acute bacterial or viral infection, inflammatory, &
malabsorption
Biochemical mediators of the inflammatory response (histamine, bradykinin, & serotonin) stimulate pain nerve endings
producing abdominal pain
Conditions that increase the abdominal pressure can contribute to
GERD
Conditions that increase abd pressure and GERD :
coughing, lifting, bending, obesity or pregnancy, reclining after a meal
what is a clinical manifestation of GERD :
chronic cough
Pain with duodenal ulcer
pain begins 30 minutes to 2 hours after eating when the stomach is empty
How is pain relieved in a duodenal ulcer
foods and antacid
Stress related mucosal disease (3)
is a peptic ulcer related to a severe illness
multisystem organ failure
or trauma
What is dumping syndrome
rapid emptying of hypertonic chyme from the stomach to the small intestine
3 causes of dumping syndrome: ____, bariatric procedure, or pyloroplasty
partial gastrectomy
3 causes of dumping syndrome: partial gastrectomy, ____ or pyloroplasty
bariatric procedure
3 causes of dumping syndrome: partial gastrectomy, bariatric procedure, or ____
pyloroplasty
conjugated bile salts are needed to
disperse and absorb fats and are synthesized from cholesterol in the liver
Ulcerative colitis is _____, are limited to the mucosa, & are not transmural (not full wall thickness)
lesions are continuous with no skipped lesions
Ulcerative colitis is lesions are continuous with no skipped lesions, ____ , & are not transmural (not full wall thickness)
are limited to the mucosa
Ulcerative colitis is lesions are continuous with no skipped lesions, are limited to the mucosa, & _____
are not transmural (not full wall thickness)
Crohn’s disease _____, inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas, noncaseating granulomas, fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers
causes skip lesions
Crohn’s disease causes skip lesions, _____, noncaseating granulomas, fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers
inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas
Crohn’s disease causes skip lesions, inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas, ____, fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers
noncaseating granulomas
Crohn’s disease causes skip lesions, inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas, noncaseating granulomas, ____
fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers
Crohn’s mnemonic
Crohn’s skips on down the road
Hepatitis A is usually transmitted by
fecal-oral route
Define cirrhosis
an irreversible inflammatory fibrotic disease that disrupts liver function and even liver structure
Primary biliary cirrhosis involves (2)
- mitochondrial antibody destruction of the small intrahepatic bile ducts
- thought to be autoimmune
Secondary biliary cirrhosis
obstruction of the common bile duct
Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: ____, intolerance to fatty foods, biliary colic, and jaundice
epigastric and right hypochondrium pain
Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: epigastric and right hypochondrium pain, _____, biliary colic, and jaundice
intolerance to fatty foods
Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: epigastric and right hypochondrium pain, intolerance to fatty foods, ______ , and jaundice
biliary colic
Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: epigastric and right hypochondrium pain, intolerance to fatty foods , biliary colic, and ____
jaundice
Cholelithiasis biliary colic -
where is stone located?, 2 instances of pain
lodging of stones in the cystic or common duct.
has pain after eating a fatty meal
usually 30 min after eating meal
Cholelithiasis jaundice
stone in the common bile duct
Intussusception is
telescoping or invagination of approximal segment of the intestine into a distal section of intestine which causes obstruction
Clinical manifestation of Intussusception
currant jelly stool, which appear dark and gelatinous because of their blood and mucous content
Child diarrhea worldwide - what causes it
rotavirus is the leading cause of severe diarrhea in infants and young kids
Rotavirus invades _____
enterocytes of intestinal mucosa and releases enterotoxins that damage the cells
Wilson’s disease is an _____ defect of copper metabolism, causing toxic levels of copper to accumulate in the liver, brain, kidneys & cornea
autosomal recessive
Wilson’s disease is an autosomal recessive defect of _____, causing toxic levels of ___ to accumulate in the liver, brain, kidneys, & cornea
copper metabolism;copper
Wilson’s disease in children. Define Kayser-Fleisher rings:
accumulation of copper in the limbus of the cornea, causing a greenish-yellow ring
A woman has secondary amenorrhea. What is the most probable cause for this finding?
preganancy
PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) is associated with
infertility
One characteristic of uterine leiomyomas is that they are associated with
nulliparty (never given birth) and obesity
Which information is correct regarding ovarian cancer? The cancer has often … prior to . . .
ovarian cancer has often metastasized prior to diagnosis
While taking a history from a postmenopausal woman, which finding will place this woman at the greater risk for breast cancer?
estrogen therapy
Precocious puberty
sexual maturation in boys before the age of 9
central precocious puberty
HPG axis is working normally but prematurely
Peripheral puberty
sex hormones are produced by some mechanism of than stimulation by the gonadtropins
A man is admitted to the hospital with a urethral stricture. Which clinical manifestation is typical of this disorder?
double urine stream
A man is admitted to the hospital with a torsion of the testis. The APRN understands this indicates?
blood vessels to the testis are twisted in the spermatic cord
** medical emergency, OR within 6 hrs **
Which of the following is true about BPH?
it produces what type of symptoms?
produces obstructive and irritative symptoms
An individual has syphilis, secondary stage. What will the APRN typically find upon assessment?
low-grade fever, malaise, and sore throat
3 stages of syphilis
Primary:
chancres & swollen lymph nodes
Secondary:
rash, sores
Latent:
no symptoms, contagious in 1st year of latent stage
A woman has chlamydial cervicitis. What will the APRN typically find upon assessment?
yellow, mucopurulent discharge
An individual has herpes simplex virus (HSV). Which treatment will the APRN prepare to prescribe?
oral acyclovir
An individual has intense itching and works in a nursing home. Where is the 1st place the APRN should inspect to find if scabies are present?
between the fingers
Case study: what is the possible explanation for her infertility?
destruction of lactobacillus acidophilus from douching and vaginal deodarants
Urethritis may lead to
urethral stricture
A person has a lesion on the lower neuron that involves the sacral maturation center. Which condition is the person experiencing?
detrusor areflexia
Mechanisms that protect the urinary tract from infection include?
acidic urine
Nephrotic syndrome produces
susceptibility to infection
A person with acute kidney injury is prescribed glucose and insulin. The APRN understands this prescription is intended to?
reduce serum potassium concentration (pushes K+ from bloodstream back into the cells)
Individuals with chronic renal failure often develop
hypocalcemia
Which statement is correct regarding fluid and electrolyte balance in the infant?
the infant produces a more dilute urine when compared with an adult
A child with unilateral renal agenesis is seen in the clinic. The APRN realizes the child has …
a hypertrophied kidney
Edema with nephrotic syndrome is associated with increased ….
aldosterone activity
A child has a UTI. Which assessment finding is most typical in this condition.
incontinence in a previously dry child
Platelet clustering in the damaged vessels produces?
thrombocytopenia
In the normal kidney, within the various segment of the nephron tubules, cells responsible for the function of reabsorption and secretion are:
endothelial
delayed puberty in girls is no sign of ____ & has begun by ____ years of age
no sign of menarche
15-16 years of age
primary dysmenorrhea is
painful menstruation associated with prostaglandin release in ovulatory cycles but not associated with pelvic disease
secondary dysmenorrhea is menstruation related to
pelvic pathologic condition at any time in the menstrual cycle
primary amenorrhea
failure of menarche and the absence of menstruation by 13 years without development of secondary sex characteristics; or by age 15 regardless of presence or absence of secondary sex characteristics
secondary amenorrhea
absence of menstruation in women who have previously menstruated
metorrhagia vs menorrhagia
metor=irregular bleeding
menor= excessive bleeding
polycystic ovarian syndrome is _____ ovulation, can even be ….
irregular ovulation, can even be anovulation
leading cause of infertility in the US is
polycystic ovarian syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome is associated with _____
metabolic disorder and often insulin resistance
polycystic ovarian syndrome clinical manifestations (5)
dysfunctional bleeding/amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, acanthosis nigricans, and infertility
vaginitis caused by
candida albicans
cystocele (location)
descent of a portion of the posterior bladder wall and trigone (area at the base of the bladder & between the openings of the ureter and the urethra) into the vaginal canal
benign ovarian cysts are
common and are unilateral
benign ovarian cysts are a results of
follicles being stimulated but no dominant follicle develops and reaches maturity
Infertility is the inability to conceive after ….
1 year
Mutations most likely to cause breast cancer
BRCA 1
BRCA 2
delayed puberty in males
secondary sex characteristics have not appeared in boys by age 14
what are 95% of causes in boys with delayed puberty
physiologic factors :
hormonal delay
HPG axis delay
Precocious puberty in boys is
sexual maturation before 9 years of age
urethritis & urethral structures
what is the meaning of each
inflammation &
fibrotic narrowing of urethra
phimosis is the
foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans
phimosis causes
poor hygiene and chronic infections
Paraphimosis is the
foreskin is retracted and cannot be moved forward (reduced) to cover the glans
Peyronie disease is
penile curvature during erection
Balanitis is the inflammation of
the glans penis
Balanitis causes are (4)
phimosis
inadequate cleaning under the foreskin
skin disorders
infections
Balanitis is most commonly in men with
poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and candidiasis
Penile cancer is ___ & mostly
rare; squamous cell carcinoma
varicocele occurs in
10% of men and is usually on the left side
Varicocele is the
inflammation and dilation of the veins in the spermatic cord
varicocele is described as a
bag of worms
Causes of varicocele are
inadequate or absent valves in the spermatic vein
hydrocele is most often the cause of. . . in newborns
scrotal swelling and occurs in 6% of male newborns
hydrocele is
scrotal swelling caused by the collection of fluid and transilluminates
spermatocele is a
benign cystic collection of fluid of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis
torsion of testis
rotation, causing twisting of the blood vessels in the spermatic cord
testicular torsion is
a medical emergency, must be in ER within 6 hours after onset of symptoms to preserve normal testicular function
orchitis
acute infection of the testis
cancer of the testis is among
the most curable cancers
testicular cancer is common between ages of
15-35
causes of epididymitis
pathogenic microorganism reaches the epididymis by ascending the vas deferens from an already infected bladder or urethra
gynocomastia
overdevelopment of breast tissue in a man, results from hormone alterations
bacterial STIs
gonorrhea, syphilis
clinical manifestations of gonorrhea - men
sudden onset of painful urination or purulent penile discharge or both
clinical manifestations of gonorrhea - women
asymptomatic
dysuria
increased vaginal discharge
increased flow or dysmenorrhea
dyspareunia (painful intercourse)
lower abdominal/pelvic pain
fever
mucopurulent discharge from the cervical os
syphilis is caused by
treponema pallidum
4 stages of syphilis
Primary
Secondary
Latent
Tertiary
Primary stage of syphilis (3)
when, duration, manifestation
12 days - 12 weeks after exposure
average duration of 3 weeks
granulomatous tissue reaction (hard chancre, painless,firm)
Secondary stage of syphilis
systematic manifestations
6 weeks after the 1st appearance of chancre
low-grade fever
malaise
sore throat
condylomata lata
Latent stage of syphilis (3)
duration as short as 1 year or as long as a lifetime
divided into early and late stages
medical evidence of the infection or asymptomatic
Tertiary stage of syphilis (5)
appearing after the latent stage
most severe stage
formation of gummas (destructive skin,bone,&soft tissue lesions)
destructive systematic manifestations
neurosyphilis
chancroid
painful, tender, soft chancre
chancroid in women
asymptomatic but can have dysuria, dysparenuria, vaginal dischage, pain on defecation, or rectal bleeding
chancroid in men
unilateral,
painful genital ulcers,
local lymphadenopathy
inguinal buboes
bacterial vaginosis is
a sexually associated condition, not always an STI
causes of bacterial vaginosis
gardnerella vaginalis and other anaerobes
clinical manifestations of bacterial vaginosis
gray vaginal discharge
presence of “clue” cells on wet mount
(bacterial catalytic enzymes degrade proteins and elevate the vaginal pH to produce a fishy odor)
cause of chlamydia is/ bac or vir/ gram what / important stat
chlamydia trachomatis, bacterial, gram-negative, most common STI in the US
chlamydia clinical manifestations
often asymptomatic
chlamydia clinical manifestations in men (2)
clear mucus discharge
mild burning with urination
chlamydia clinical manifestations in women (3)
leading cause of tubal infertility
acute urethral syndrome (dysuria, frequency, sterile pus in urine)
yellow mucopurulent discharge with cervicitis
STI viral infections
genital herpes
genital herpes virus remains
latent until reactivation
HSV1
remain in the latent stage after oral infection in the trigeminal nerve
HSV2
after infection, remains in the dorsal sacral nerve roots
HPV types & the 2 most at-risk
120 different types of HPV, divided into high risk (18&20)
HPV is associated with
cervical dysplasia and cancer
HPV test (women)
papanicolaou test (Pap smear)
STI parasites
scabies, trichomoniasis
Where is the 1st sign of scabies
between the finger webs
Cause of trichomoniasis
trichomonas vaginalis
trichomoniasis clinical manifestations - in women (5)
vaginal discharge (copious, malodorous, yellow/green - gray/green)
internal pruritis
most common complaints - dyspareunia & dysuria
strawberry spots on cervix
composition of mineral salts (which make up kidney stones) are
calcium oxalate & calcium phosphate, 70-80%
hematuria is . .. & it is a sign of what ?
blood in urine, sign of renal tumors
biggest risk factor for bladder tumors
smoking
clinical manifestation of bladder tumors
painless microscopic hematuria
most common pathogens of UTIs
escherichia coli (e. coli) & staphylococcus saprophyticus
acute glomerulonephritis pathophysiology
decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
definition of oliguria
urine output of < 30mL/hr
nephrotic syndrome clinical manifestations
contains massive amounts of proteins and lipids and either microscopic amount of blood or no blood
nephrotic syndrome makes the person . . .
susceptible to infections and results in edema
chronic kidney disease clinical manifestations do not occur until
renal function declines to less than 25% of normal
signs of uremia and chronic kidney disease (6)
hypotension
edema
anorexia
pruritis (skin itches)
darkening/abnormal pigmentation of skin
anemia
hypospadias is . . .
urethral meatus is located on the ventral side or undersurface of the penis
epispadias is . . .
(top side), urethral opening is on the dorsal side of the penis
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is most common . . .
community acquired cause of acute renal failure in children, most occur in those younger than 4 years of age
HUS is associated with . . .
bacterial, viral, & endotoxin agents
HUS is associated with the particular agent . . .
escherichia coli (e. coli) O157:H7
Wilms tumor is most common between the ages of
1-5
Wilms tumor is an . . .
embryonal tumor of the kidney
Wilms tumor is the most common . . .
solid type of tumor of childhood
UTI in kids - most common pathogen is
e. coli
cystitis in kids is . . .
inflammatory edema of the bladder wall stimulating stretch receptors which cause the most common symptom - urgency
