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Advanced Pathophysiology > Module 3 > Flashcards

Module 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The most common cause of hypoxemia

A

ventilation-perfusion mismatch

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2
Q

Clinical manifestations of bronchiectasis

A

chronic productive cough that can lead to hemoptysis

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3
Q

Bronchiolitis is the most common in

A

children

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis

A

RSV

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5
Q

A person has pneumoconiosis. Which information would the APRN find in the person’s history?

A

inhaled inorganic dust particles, resulting in a change in the lungs

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6
Q

Meaning of pneumoconiosis

A

inhaled inorganic matter into the lungs

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7
Q

Asthma is a chronic

A

inflammatory disorder

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8
Q

Asthma causes ____, constriction of the airways, and variable airflow obstruction that is reversible

A

bronchial hyper-responsiveness

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9
Q

Asthma causes bronchial hyper-responsiveness, _____, and variable airflow obstruction that is reversible.

A

constriction of the airways

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10
Q

Asthma causes bronchial hyper-responsiveness, constriction of the airways, and _____ that is reversible

A

variable airflow obstruction

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11
Q

Asthma causes bronchial hyper-responsiveness, constriction of the airways, and variable airflow obstruction that is ____

A

reversible

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12
Q

A child has asthma. What pathophysiologic process occurs in this disease? (3 characteristics)

A

Chronic inflammatory disorder
causing mucosal edema &
reversible airflow obstruction

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13
Q

A person has pneumococcal pneumonia. Which pathophysiologic process has occurred? (3)

A

Inflammatory cytokines cause alveolar edema,
which causes a medium for microorganisms
that leads to consolidation.

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14
Q

A person has a pulmonary embolism. What will the APRN find upon assessment ? (3 characteristics)

A

Sudden pleuritic chest pain
dyspnea
unexplained anxiety

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15
Q

A child has laryngotracheobronchitis (croup). Which information should the nurse remember when planning care for this child? Laryngotracheobronchitis is caused by …

A

subglottic edema from infection

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16
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is most commonly associated with

A

adenotonsillar hypertrophy

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17
Q

What pathophysiologic response is correctly matched to its disease?

A

Bronchiolitis obliterans is caused by fibrotic obstruction of the respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts

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18
Q

The APRN recalls that cystic fibrosis is associated with

A

defective epithelial chloride ion transport

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19
Q

Cystic fibrosis is characterized by _______ that cause obstructive problems within the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive tracts.

A

abnormal secretions

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20
Q

Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause _____ within the respiratory, digestive and reproductive tracts.

A

obstructive problems

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21
Q

Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause obstructive problems within the _____, digestive and reproductive tracts.

A

respiratory

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22
Q

Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause obstructive problems within the respiratory, ____ and reproductive tracts.

A

digestive

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23
Q

Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause obstructive problems within the respiratory, digestive and _____ tracts.

A

reproductive

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24
Q

CF: Because the lungs are the most critical site of involvement, _____ health is the primary concern

A

pulmonary

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25
Q

CF causes a persistent ______ which also causes bronchiectasis

A

chronic bronchial inflammation

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26
Q

CF causes a persistent chronic bronchial inflammation which also causes

A

bronchiectasis

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27
Q

___ is a sign/symptom of pulmonary disease

A

Cough

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28
Q

Cough is a sign/symptom of ____

A

pulmonary disease

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29
Q

____ is a protective reflex that helps clear the airways by an explosive expiration

A

cough

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30
Q

a cough is a protective reflex that helps

A

clear the airways by an explosive expiration

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31
Q

Acute cough resolves within

A

2-3 weeks

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32
Q

Chronic cough lasts longer than

A

3 weeks

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33
Q

3 causes of cough that are NOT related to respiratory issues are ____, GERD, and medications (ACEi)

A

post-nasal drip

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34
Q

3 causes of cough not related to respiratory issues are post-nasal drip, ____, & medications (ACEi)

A

GERD

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35
Q

3 causes of cough not related to respiratory issues are post-nasal drip, GERD, and _____

A

medications (i.e. ACEi)

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36
Q

Hypoventilation means the ____ is inadequate in relationship to metabolic demands

A

alveolar ventilation

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37
Q

Hypoventilation means the alveolar ventilation is ____ in relationship to the metabolic demands

A

inadequate

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38
Q

Hypoventilation means the alveolar ventilation is inadequate in relationship to the _____

A

metabolic demands

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39
Q

Hypoventilation means the _____ is _____ in relationship to the _____

A

alveolar ventilation;
inadequate;
metabolic demands

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40
Q

Hypoventilation leads to (which acid-base imbalance)

A

respiratory acidosis

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41
Q

Hyperventilation occurs when _____ exceeds the metabolic demands

A

alveolar ventilation

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42
Q

Hyperventilation occurs when alveolar ventilation _____ the metabolic demands.

A

exceeds

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43
Q

Hyperventilation occurs when the alveolar ventilation exceeds the ____

A

metabolic demands

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44
Q

Hyperventilation occurs when the _____ _____ the _____

A

alveolar ventilation;
exceeds;
metabolic demand

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45
Q

Hyperventilation leads to what acid-base imbalance?

A

respiratory alkalosis

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46
Q

What is clubbing ?

A

painless and grows over weeks to months due to chronic hypoxia

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47
Q

Painless and grows over weeks to months due to hypoxia is

A

clubbing

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48
Q

Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) _____, bronchiectasis, CF, pulmonary fibrosis, and congenital heart disease

A

COPD

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49
Q

Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, _____, CF, pulmonary fibrosis, and congenital heart disease

A

bronchiectasis

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50
Q

Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, bronchiectasis,_____, pulmonary fibrosis, and congenital heart disease

A

CF

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51
Q

Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, bronchiectasis, CF, _______ and congenital heart disease

A

pulmonary fibrosis

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52
Q

Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, bronchiectasis, CF, pulmonary fibrosis and _______

A

congenital heart disease

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53
Q

Clubbing is rarely _____

A

reversible

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54
Q

Hypoxemia vs hypoxia
hypoxemia is

A

reduced in arterial blood

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55
Q

Hypoxemia vs hypoxia
hypoxia is

A

ischemic related and reduced oxygen in the cells

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56
Q

Pneumothorax is the

A

presence of air or gas in the pleural space

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57
Q

Presence of air or gas in the pleural space is called a

A

pneumothorax

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58
Q

Pleural effusion is the

A

presence of fluid in the pleural space

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59
Q

The presence of fluid in the pleural space is called a

A

pleural effusion

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60
Q

Empyema is ____

A

pus

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61
Q

Empyema treatment is

A

antimicrobial medications

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62
Q

Another treatment for empyema is

A

drainage with a chest tube

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63
Q

Where does bronchiectasis occur

A

bronchial wall or lumen obstruction

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64
Q

Bronchiectasis is the

A

persistent abnormal dilation of bronchi

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65
Q

Bronchitis is the inflammation of

A

lining of the bronchial tubes

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66
Q

Where does bronchitis occur

A

in the bronchial tubes

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67
Q

Bronchitis is usually caused by _____

A

viruses

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68
Q

Bronchiolitis occurs where ?

A

in the smallest airways or bronchioles

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69
Q

Where are bronchioles located?

A

most distal end of bronchi before the alveoli

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70
Q

Bronchiectasis is the persistent abnormal _____ by destruction of the elastic or muscular components of the bronchial wall or lumen obstruction

A

dilation of the bronchi

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71
Q

Bronchiectasis is the persistent abnormal dilation of the bronchi by _______ of the bronchial wall or lumen obstruction

A

destruction of the elastic or muscular components

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72
Q

Asthma is the inflammatory

A

disorder of the bronchial mucosa

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73
Q

an inflammatory disorder of the bronchial mucosa is

A

asthma

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74
Q

Causes of asthma : (3)
1 ____
2 constriction of the airways
3 variable airflow obstruction that is reversible

A

bronchial hyper-responsiveness

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75
Q

Causes of asthma (3)
1 bronchial hyper-responsiveness
2 _____
3 variable airflow obstruction that is reversible

A

constriction of the airways

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76
Q

Causes of asthma (3)
1 bronchial hyper-responsiveness
2 constriction of the airways
3 _____

A

variable airflow obstruction that is reversible

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77
Q

What are a key component to asthma attacks?

A

allergies b/c many attacks are due to an allergic reaction

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78
Q

COPD is an airflow _____

A

limitation that is not fully reversible

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79
Q

COPD is usually ______ and associated with chronic bronchitis and emphysema

A

progressive

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80
Q

COPD is usually progressive and associated with _____ & emphysema

A

chronic bronchitis

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81
Q

COPD is usually progressive and associated with chronic bronchitis & ____

A

emphysema

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82
Q

Emphysema is the abnormal ____ accompanied by the destruction of the alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis

A

permanent enlargement of the gas-exchange airways

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83
Q

Emphysema is the abnormal permanent enlargement of the gas-exchange airways accompanied by the _____

A

destruction of the alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis

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84
Q

Chronic bronchitis is (3)
1 _____
2 infection/inflammation of the airways or bronchii
3 self-limiting

A

caused by virus 90% of the time

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85
Q

Chronic bronchitis is (3)
1 caused by a virus 90% of the time
2 _____
3 self-limiting

A

infection/inflammation of the airways or bronchii

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86
Q

Chronic bronchitis is (3)
1 caused by virus 90% of the time
2 infection/inflammation of the airways or bronchii
3 _____

A

is self-limiting

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87
Q

community acquired pneumonia is

A

streptococcus pneumonia

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88
Q

Pulmonary embolism commonly (90%) arisies from

A

the deep veins in the legs

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89
Q

Virchow Triad is (3)

A

venous stasis
hypercoagulability
& injuries to the endothelial cells that line the vessels

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90
Q

Cor pulmonale is the enlargement of what chamber ?

A

right ventricular

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91
Q

Right ventricular enlargement is known as

A

Cor Pulmonale

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92
Q

Cor Pulmonale is _____, creating chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle

A

pulmonary hypertension

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93
Q

Cor pulmonale is pulmonary hypertension, creating ____

A

chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle

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94
Q

Cor Pulmonale clinical manifestations:

A

heart appears normal at rest but with exercise decreased cardiac output and chest pain

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95
Q

S/S of pulmonary edema:
____, hypoxia, dullness to percussion over bases, & inspiratory crackles

A

dyspnea

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96
Q

S/S of pulmonary edema:
dyspnea, _____, dullness to percussion over bases, & inspiratory crackles

A

hypoxia

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97
Q

S/S of pulmonary edema:
dyspnea, hypoxia, _____ , & inspiratory crackles

A

dullness to percussion over bases

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98
Q

S/S of pulmonary edema:
dyspnea, hypoxia, dullness to percussion over bases, &

A

inspiratory crackles

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99
Q

S/S of severe pulmonary edema

A

pink frothy sputum

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100
Q

Laryngeal cancer clinical manifestations: (3)

A

hoarseness
dypnea
cough

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101
Q

_____ cancer is the most frequent cause of cancer death in the USA

A

lung

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102
Q

TNM classification:

A

T (primary tumor)
N (nodal)
M (metastasis)

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103
Q

Surfactant maintains

A

alveolar expansion

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104
Q

_____ maintains alveolar expansion

A

surfactant

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105
Q

Surfactant is produced by _____ weeks gestation

A

20-24

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106
Q

Surfactant is secreted into the

A

fetal airways by 30 weeks gestation

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107
Q

Babies born before ______ are at risk for inadequate surfactant in the lungs

A

30 weeks

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108
Q

Babies born before 30 weeks are at risk for ….

A

inadequate surfactant in the lungs

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109
Q

Croup clinical manifestations:
_____, hoarse voice, & inspiratory stridor

A

seal-like barking cough

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110
Q

Croup clinical manifestations:
seal-like barking cough, ____ & inspiratory stridor

A

hoarse voice

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111
Q

Croup clinical manifestations:
seal-like barking cough, hoarse voice, & _____

A

inspiratory stridor

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112
Q

In bronchiolitis, _____ is the most common associated pathogen

A

RSV

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113
Q

Most common cause of viral pneumonia

A

RSV

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114
Q

In bacterial pneumonia, these are the 2 most common causes of infection

A

Streptococcal and staphylococcal microorganisms

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115
Q

Cystic fibrosis (in children) is an

A

autosomal recessive multisystem disease

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116
Q

Cystic fibrosis in the lungs:
_____ & predispose the lungs to chronic infection

A

thick secretions obstruct the bronchioles

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117
Q

Cystic fibrosis in the lungs:
thick secretions that obstruct the bronchioles & _____

A

predispose the lungs to chronic infection

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118
Q

Cystic fibrosis also has chronic _____

A

inflammation

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119
Q

Cystic fibrosis also has _____ inflammation

A

chronic

120
Q

Which statement is correct regarding disorders of motility?

A

a succussion (sloshing sound) splash from jarring of the abdomen occurs in pyloric obstruction

121
Q

Which finding is typical for Crohn’s disease?

A

noncaseating granulomas

122
Q

Which intervention if most appropriate for a person with portal hypertension?

A

monitor for hematemesis

123
Q

A person has alcoholic liver disease. What is the sequence of the development of this disease?

A
  1. steatosis (fatty liver)
  2. steatohepatitis (fatty liver w/inflammation)
  3. fibrosis
124
Q

A person has cancer in the left descending colon. What will the nurse typically find upon assessment?

A

narrow and pencil-shaped stools

125
Q

What is pyloric stenosis associated with?

A

muscle hyperplasia

126
Q

An infant arrives in the emergency dept with a diagnosis of intussusception. Which data will the nurse typically find during the assessment?

A

currant-jelly stools

127
Q

What is the pathophysiologic process that occurs in a person with a gluten-sensitive enteropathy?

A

T-cell mediated autoimmune injury to the intestinal epithelial cells

128
Q

Which disease is correctly matched to its pathophysiologic process?

A

necrotizing enteropathy-noxious substances damage to the intestines

129
Q

Intrahepatic portal hypertension is associated with ?

A

cirrhosis

130
Q

Severe acute malnutrition is a stage of starvation associated with food shortages. Severe deficiency of all nutrients is also known as

A

marasmus

131
Q

The major pathophysiologic characteristic of gluten sensitivity is an ?

A

autoimmune injury to the intestinal epithelial cells

132
Q

Pathophysiology of constipation - 4 types

A
  1. normal transit/functional
  2. slow-transit
  3. pelvic floor dysfunction
  4. secondary (opioids)
133
Q

3 types of diarrhea:

A
  1. osmotic - nonabsorbable substance
  2. secretory - excessive mucosal secretion
  3. motility - excessive motility
134
Q

Systemic manifestations of diarrhea include: ______, inflammatory, & malabsorption

A

acute bacterial or viral infection

135
Q

Systemic manifestations of diarrhea include: acute bacterial or viral infection, _____, & malabsorption

A

inflammatory

136
Q

Systemic manifestations of diarrhea include : acute bacterial or viral infection, inflammatory, &

A

malabsorption

137
Q

Biochemical mediators of the inflammatory response (histamine, bradykinin, & serotonin) stimulate pain nerve endings

A

producing abdominal pain

138
Q

Conditions that increase the abdominal pressure can contribute to

A

GERD

139
Q

Conditions that increase abd pressure and GERD :

A

coughing, lifting, bending, obesity or pregnancy, reclining after a meal

140
Q

what is a clinical manifestation of GERD :

A

chronic cough

141
Q

Pain with duodenal ulcer

A

pain begins 30 minutes to 2 hours after eating when the stomach is empty

142
Q

How is pain relieved in a duodenal ulcer

A

foods and antacid

143
Q

Stress related mucosal disease (3)

A

is a peptic ulcer related to a severe illness
multisystem organ failure
or trauma

144
Q

What is dumping syndrome

A

rapid emptying of hypertonic chyme from the stomach to the small intestine

145
Q

3 causes of dumping syndrome: ____, bariatric procedure, or pyloroplasty

A

partial gastrectomy

146
Q

3 causes of dumping syndrome: partial gastrectomy, ____ or pyloroplasty

A

bariatric procedure

147
Q

3 causes of dumping syndrome: partial gastrectomy, bariatric procedure, or ____

A

pyloroplasty

148
Q

conjugated bile salts are needed to

A

disperse and absorb fats and are synthesized from cholesterol in the liver

149
Q

Ulcerative colitis is _____, are limited to the mucosa, & are not transmural (not full wall thickness)

A

lesions are continuous with no skipped lesions

150
Q

Ulcerative colitis is lesions are continuous with no skipped lesions, ____ , & are not transmural (not full wall thickness)

A

are limited to the mucosa

151
Q

Ulcerative colitis is lesions are continuous with no skipped lesions, are limited to the mucosa, & _____

A

are not transmural (not full wall thickness)

152
Q

Crohn’s disease _____, inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas, noncaseating granulomas, fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers

A

causes skip lesions

153
Q

Crohn’s disease causes skip lesions, _____, noncaseating granulomas, fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers

A

inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas

154
Q

Crohn’s disease causes skip lesions, inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas, ____, fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers

A

noncaseating granulomas

155
Q

Crohn’s disease causes skip lesions, inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas, noncaseating granulomas, ____

A

fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers

156
Q

Crohn’s mnemonic

A

Crohn’s skips on down the road

157
Q

Hepatitis A is usually transmitted by

A

fecal-oral route

158
Q

Define cirrhosis

A

an irreversible inflammatory fibrotic disease that disrupts liver function and even liver structure

159
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis involves (2)

A
  1. mitochondrial antibody destruction of the small intrahepatic bile ducts
  2. thought to be autoimmune
160
Q

Secondary biliary cirrhosis

A

obstruction of the common bile duct

161
Q

Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: ____, intolerance to fatty foods, biliary colic, and jaundice

A

epigastric and right hypochondrium pain

162
Q

Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: epigastric and right hypochondrium pain, _____, biliary colic, and jaundice

A

intolerance to fatty foods

163
Q

Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: epigastric and right hypochondrium pain, intolerance to fatty foods, ______ , and jaundice

A

biliary colic

164
Q

Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: epigastric and right hypochondrium pain, intolerance to fatty foods , biliary colic, and ____

A

jaundice

165
Q

Cholelithiasis biliary colic -
where is stone located?, 2 instances of pain

A

lodging of stones in the cystic or common duct.
has pain after eating a fatty meal
usually 30 min after eating meal

166
Q

Cholelithiasis jaundice

A

stone in the common bile duct

167
Q

Intussusception is

A

telescoping or invagination of approximal segment of the intestine into a distal section of intestine which causes obstruction

168
Q

Clinical manifestation of Intussusception

A

currant jelly stool, which appear dark and gelatinous because of their blood and mucous content

169
Q

Child diarrhea worldwide - what causes it

A

rotavirus is the leading cause of severe diarrhea in infants and young kids

170
Q

Rotavirus invades _____

A

enterocytes of intestinal mucosa and releases enterotoxins that damage the cells

171
Q

Wilson’s disease is an _____ defect of copper metabolism, causing toxic levels of copper to accumulate in the liver, brain, kidneys & cornea

A

autosomal recessive

172
Q

Wilson’s disease is an autosomal recessive defect of _____, causing toxic levels of ___ to accumulate in the liver, brain, kidneys, & cornea

A

copper metabolism;copper

173
Q

Wilson’s disease in children. Define Kayser-Fleisher rings:

A

accumulation of copper in the limbus of the cornea, causing a greenish-yellow ring

174
Q

A woman has secondary amenorrhea. What is the most probable cause for this finding?

A

preganancy

175
Q

PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) is associated with

A

infertility

176
Q

One characteristic of uterine leiomyomas is that they are associated with

A

nulliparty (never given birth) and obesity

177
Q

Which information is correct regarding ovarian cancer? The cancer has often … prior to . . .

A

ovarian cancer has often metastasized prior to diagnosis

178
Q

While taking a history from a postmenopausal woman, which finding will place this woman at the greater risk for breast cancer?

A

estrogen therapy

179
Q

Precocious puberty

A

sexual maturation in boys before the age of 9

180
Q

central precocious puberty

A

HPG axis is working normally but prematurely

181
Q

Peripheral puberty

A

sex hormones are produced by some mechanism of than stimulation by the gonadtropins

182
Q

A man is admitted to the hospital with a urethral stricture. Which clinical manifestation is typical of this disorder?

A

double urine stream

183
Q

A man is admitted to the hospital with a torsion of the testis. The APRN understands this indicates?

A

blood vessels to the testis are twisted in the spermatic cord
** medical emergency, OR within 6 hrs **

184
Q

Which of the following is true about BPH?
it produces what type of symptoms?

A

produces obstructive and irritative symptoms

185
Q

An individual has syphilis, secondary stage. What will the APRN typically find upon assessment?

A

low-grade fever, malaise, and sore throat

186
Q

3 stages of syphilis

A

Primary:
chancres & swollen lymph nodes
Secondary:
rash, sores
Latent:
no symptoms, contagious in 1st year of latent stage

187
Q

A woman has chlamydial cervicitis. What will the APRN typically find upon assessment?

A

yellow, mucopurulent discharge

188
Q

An individual has herpes simplex virus (HSV). Which treatment will the APRN prepare to prescribe?

A

oral acyclovir

189
Q

An individual has intense itching and works in a nursing home. Where is the 1st place the APRN should inspect to find if scabies are present?

A

between the fingers

190
Q

Case study: what is the possible explanation for her infertility?

A

destruction of lactobacillus acidophilus from douching and vaginal deodarants

191
Q

Urethritis may lead to

A

urethral stricture

192
Q

A person has a lesion on the lower neuron that involves the sacral maturation center. Which condition is the person experiencing?

A

detrusor areflexia

193
Q

Mechanisms that protect the urinary tract from infection include?

A

acidic urine

194
Q

Nephrotic syndrome produces

A

susceptibility to infection

195
Q

A person with acute kidney injury is prescribed glucose and insulin. The APRN understands this prescription is intended to?

A

reduce serum potassium concentration (pushes K+ from bloodstream back into the cells)

196
Q

Individuals with chronic renal failure often develop

A

hypocalcemia

197
Q

Which statement is correct regarding fluid and electrolyte balance in the infant?

A

the infant produces a more dilute urine when compared with an adult

198
Q

A child with unilateral renal agenesis is seen in the clinic. The APRN realizes the child has …

A

a hypertrophied kidney

199
Q

Edema with nephrotic syndrome is associated with increased ….

A

aldosterone activity

200
Q

A child has a UTI. Which assessment finding is most typical in this condition.

A

incontinence in a previously dry child

201
Q

Platelet clustering in the damaged vessels produces?

A

thrombocytopenia

202
Q

In the normal kidney, within the various segment of the nephron tubules, cells responsible for the function of reabsorption and secretion are:

A

endothelial

203
Q

delayed puberty in girls is no sign of ____ & has begun by ____ years of age

A

no sign of menarche
15-16 years of age

204
Q

primary dysmenorrhea is

A

painful menstruation associated with prostaglandin release in ovulatory cycles but not associated with pelvic disease

205
Q

secondary dysmenorrhea is menstruation related to

A

pelvic pathologic condition at any time in the menstrual cycle

206
Q

primary amenorrhea

A

failure of menarche and the absence of menstruation by 13 years without development of secondary sex characteristics; or by age 15 regardless of presence or absence of secondary sex characteristics

207
Q

secondary amenorrhea

A

absence of menstruation in women who have previously menstruated

208
Q

metorrhagia vs menorrhagia

A

metor=irregular bleeding
menor= excessive bleeding

209
Q

polycystic ovarian syndrome is _____ ovulation, can even be ….

A

irregular ovulation, can even be anovulation

210
Q

leading cause of infertility in the US is

A

polycystic ovarian syndrome

211
Q

Polycystic ovarian syndrome is associated with _____

A

metabolic disorder and often insulin resistance

212
Q

polycystic ovarian syndrome clinical manifestations (5)

A

dysfunctional bleeding/amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, acanthosis nigricans, and infertility

213
Q

vaginitis caused by

A

candida albicans

214
Q

cystocele (location)

A

descent of a portion of the posterior bladder wall and trigone (area at the base of the bladder & between the openings of the ureter and the urethra) into the vaginal canal

215
Q

benign ovarian cysts are

A

common and are unilateral

216
Q

benign ovarian cysts are a results of

A

follicles being stimulated but no dominant follicle develops and reaches maturity

217
Q

Infertility is the inability to conceive after ….

A

1 year

218
Q

Mutations most likely to cause breast cancer

A

BRCA 1
BRCA 2

219
Q

delayed puberty in males

A

secondary sex characteristics have not appeared in boys by age 14

220
Q

what are 95% of causes in boys with delayed puberty

A

physiologic factors :
hormonal delay
HPG axis delay

220
Q

Precocious puberty in boys is

A

sexual maturation before 9 years of age

221
Q

urethritis & urethral structures
what is the meaning of each

A

inflammation &
fibrotic narrowing of urethra

222
Q

phimosis is the

A

foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans

223
Q

phimosis causes

A

poor hygiene and chronic infections

224
Q

Paraphimosis is the

A

foreskin is retracted and cannot be moved forward (reduced) to cover the glans

225
Q

Peyronie disease is

A

penile curvature during erection

226
Q

Balanitis is the inflammation of

A

the glans penis

227
Q

Balanitis causes are (4)

A

phimosis
inadequate cleaning under the foreskin
skin disorders
infections

228
Q

Balanitis is most commonly in men with

A

poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and candidiasis

229
Q

Penile cancer is ___ & mostly

A

rare; squamous cell carcinoma

230
Q

varicocele occurs in

A

10% of men and is usually on the left side

231
Q

Varicocele is the

A

inflammation and dilation of the veins in the spermatic cord

232
Q

varicocele is described as a

A

bag of worms

233
Q

Causes of varicocele are

A

inadequate or absent valves in the spermatic vein

234
Q

hydrocele is most often the cause of. . . in newborns

A

scrotal swelling and occurs in 6% of male newborns

235
Q

hydrocele is

A

scrotal swelling caused by the collection of fluid and transilluminates

236
Q

spermatocele is a

A

benign cystic collection of fluid of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis

237
Q

torsion of testis

A

rotation, causing twisting of the blood vessels in the spermatic cord

238
Q

testicular torsion is

A

a medical emergency, must be in ER within 6 hours after onset of symptoms to preserve normal testicular function

239
Q

orchitis

A

acute infection of the testis

240
Q

cancer of the testis is among

A

the most curable cancers

241
Q

testicular cancer is common between ages of

A

15-35

242
Q

causes of epididymitis

A

pathogenic microorganism reaches the epididymis by ascending the vas deferens from an already infected bladder or urethra

243
Q

gynocomastia

A

overdevelopment of breast tissue in a man, results from hormone alterations

244
Q

bacterial STIs

A

gonorrhea, syphilis

245
Q

clinical manifestations of gonorrhea - men

A

sudden onset of painful urination or purulent penile discharge or both

246
Q

clinical manifestations of gonorrhea - women

A

asymptomatic
dysuria
increased vaginal discharge
increased flow or dysmenorrhea
dyspareunia (painful intercourse)
lower abdominal/pelvic pain
fever
mucopurulent discharge from the cervical os

247
Q

syphilis is caused by

A

treponema pallidum

248
Q

4 stages of syphilis

A

Primary
Secondary
Latent
Tertiary

249
Q

Primary stage of syphilis (3)
when, duration, manifestation

A

12 days - 12 weeks after exposure
average duration of 3 weeks
granulomatous tissue reaction (hard chancre, painless,firm)

250
Q

Secondary stage of syphilis

A

systematic manifestations
6 weeks after the 1st appearance of chancre
low-grade fever
malaise
sore throat
condylomata lata

251
Q

Latent stage of syphilis (3)

A

duration as short as 1 year or as long as a lifetime
divided into early and late stages
medical evidence of the infection or asymptomatic

252
Q

Tertiary stage of syphilis (5)

A

appearing after the latent stage
most severe stage
formation of gummas (destructive skin,bone,&soft tissue lesions)
destructive systematic manifestations
neurosyphilis

253
Q

chancroid

A

painful, tender, soft chancre

254
Q

chancroid in women

A

asymptomatic but can have dysuria, dysparenuria, vaginal dischage, pain on defecation, or rectal bleeding

255
Q

chancroid in men

A

unilateral,
painful genital ulcers,
local lymphadenopathy
inguinal buboes

256
Q

bacterial vaginosis is

A

a sexually associated condition, not always an STI

257
Q

causes of bacterial vaginosis

A

gardnerella vaginalis and other anaerobes

258
Q

clinical manifestations of bacterial vaginosis

A

gray vaginal discharge
presence of “clue” cells on wet mount
(bacterial catalytic enzymes degrade proteins and elevate the vaginal pH to produce a fishy odor)

259
Q

cause of chlamydia is/ bac or vir/ gram what / important stat

A

chlamydia trachomatis, bacterial, gram-negative, most common STI in the US

260
Q

chlamydia clinical manifestations

A

often asymptomatic

261
Q

chlamydia clinical manifestations in men (2)

A

clear mucus discharge
mild burning with urination

262
Q

chlamydia clinical manifestations in women (3)

A

leading cause of tubal infertility
acute urethral syndrome (dysuria, frequency, sterile pus in urine)
yellow mucopurulent discharge with cervicitis

263
Q

STI viral infections

A

genital herpes

264
Q

genital herpes virus remains

A

latent until reactivation

265
Q

HSV1

A

remain in the latent stage after oral infection in the trigeminal nerve

266
Q

HSV2

A

after infection, remains in the dorsal sacral nerve roots

267
Q

HPV types & the 2 most at-risk

A

120 different types of HPV, divided into high risk (18&20)

268
Q

HPV is associated with

A

cervical dysplasia and cancer

269
Q

HPV test (women)

A

papanicolaou test (Pap smear)

270
Q

STI parasites

A

scabies, trichomoniasis

271
Q

Where is the 1st sign of scabies

A

between the finger webs

272
Q

Cause of trichomoniasis

A

trichomonas vaginalis

273
Q

trichomoniasis clinical manifestations - in women (5)

A

vaginal discharge (copious, malodorous, yellow/green - gray/green)
internal pruritis
most common complaints - dyspareunia & dysuria
strawberry spots on cervix

274
Q

composition of mineral salts (which make up kidney stones) are

A

calcium oxalate & calcium phosphate, 70-80%

275
Q

hematuria is . .. & it is a sign of what ?

A

blood in urine, sign of renal tumors

276
Q

biggest risk factor for bladder tumors

A

smoking

277
Q

clinical manifestation of bladder tumors

A

painless microscopic hematuria

278
Q

most common pathogens of UTIs

A

escherichia coli (e. coli) & staphylococcus saprophyticus

279
Q

acute glomerulonephritis pathophysiology

A

decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

280
Q

definition of oliguria

A

urine output of < 30mL/hr

281
Q

nephrotic syndrome clinical manifestations

A

contains massive amounts of proteins and lipids and either microscopic amount of blood or no blood

282
Q

nephrotic syndrome makes the person . . .

A

susceptible to infections and results in edema

283
Q

chronic kidney disease clinical manifestations do not occur until

A

renal function declines to less than 25% of normal

284
Q

signs of uremia and chronic kidney disease (6)

A

hypotension
edema
anorexia
pruritis (skin itches)
darkening/abnormal pigmentation of skin
anemia

285
Q

hypospadias is . . .

A

urethral meatus is located on the ventral side or undersurface of the penis

286
Q

epispadias is . . .

A

(top side), urethral opening is on the dorsal side of the penis

287
Q

Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is most common . . .

A

community acquired cause of acute renal failure in children, most occur in those younger than 4 years of age

288
Q

HUS is associated with . . .

A

bacterial, viral, & endotoxin agents

289
Q

HUS is associated with the particular agent . . .

A

escherichia coli (e. coli) O157:H7

290
Q

Wilms tumor is most common between the ages of

A

1-5

291
Q

Wilms tumor is an . . .

A

embryonal tumor of the kidney

292
Q

Wilms tumor is the most common . . .

A

solid type of tumor of childhood

293
Q

UTI in kids - most common pathogen is

A

e. coli

294
Q

cystitis in kids is . . .

A

inflammatory edema of the bladder wall stimulating stretch receptors which cause the most common symptom - urgency

Advanced Pathophysiology (5 decks)

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