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NAT302 - Holistic Pathology > Module 3 > Flashcards

Module 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the primary difference between an antiseptic and a disinfectant?

a. Antiseptic is used on living tissue, whereas disinfectant is designed for nonliving surfaces.
b. Antiseptic is much stronger than the potency of a disinfectant.
c. Antiseptic often causes allergic skin reactions, whereas disinfectant is always hypoallergenic.
d. Antiseptic is effective against endospores; disinfectants are not effective against endospores.

A

a. Antiseptic is used on living tissue, whereas disinfectant is designed for nonliving surfaces.

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2
Q

A retrovirus such as HIV contains:

a. RNA and enzymes for its conversion.
b. a double strand of DNA.
c. many enzymes to limit budding of new virions.
d. numerous mitochondria.

A

a. RNA and enzymes for its conversion.

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3
Q

When an infection or inflammation is suspended, what does leucopenia often indicate?

a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Allergic reaction
d. Septicemia

A

b. Viral infection

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4
Q

Prions cannot be cultured in a PETRI plate of media because:

a. they take so long to grow.
b. they require extensive amounts of specialized nutrients.
c. they are proteinaceous particles, not living organisms.
d. they are viruses that don’t grow on conventional media.

A

c. they are proteinaceous particles, not living organisms.

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5
Q

How do antiviral drugs act?

a. They interfere with cell wall development.
b. They decrease cell membrane permeability.
c. They destroy new, immature viral particles.
d. They reduce the rate of viral replication.

A

d. They reduce the rate of viral replication.

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6
Q

Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1?

a. It alters human chromosomes to cause manifestations.
b. It usually causes severe respiratory distress and high fever.
c. Infection is common in the elderly.
d. It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses.

A

d. It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses.

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7
Q

Which of the following microbes is classified as an obligate intracellular parasite?

a. Fungus
b. Bacterium
c. Virus
d. Protozoa

A

c. Virus

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8
Q

Which of the following is a function of interferons?

a. They block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria.
b. They reduce the inflammatory response to local infection.
c. They increase host cell resistance to viral invasion.
d. They may facilitate the spread of some cancer cells.

A

c. They increase host cell resistance to viral invasion.

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9
Q

The “incubation period” refers to the time period between:

a. entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease.
b. the onset of the prodromal period and the peak of the acute infection.
c. the onset of clinical signs and signs of recovery from infection.
d. the acute period and establishment of chronic infection.

A

a. entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease.

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10
Q

A bacterial endospore can:

a. also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium.
b. exist in latent form inside a host cell.
c. reproduce very rapidly.
d. survive high temperatures and a dry environment.

A

d. survive high temperatures and a dry environment.

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11
Q

A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:

a. persistent, unusual bleeding
b. a change in bowel habits
c. sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea
d. a change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion

A

c. sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea

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12
Q

A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called:

a. seeding.
b. mutation.
c. staging.
d. grading.

A

c. staging.

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13
Q

Staging systems used to classify a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis are based on which of the following factors?

a. Size of the tumor, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases
b. Location of tumor, size, type of cellular abnormality
c. Size, encapsulated or non-encapsulated, invasion into neighboring tissue
d. Type of cellular abnormality, size of secondary tumors, location/tissue affected

A

a. Size of the tumor, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases

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14
Q

Radiation therapy destroys:

a. all cells in the tumor at one time.
b. the cells in the center of the tumor.
c. primarily rapidly dividing cells.
d. radioresistant cells.

A

c. primarily rapidly dividing cells.

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15
Q

High risk factors for cancer include:

  1. human papilloma virus
  2. chronic irritation and inflammation
  3. repeated sun exposure
  4. high family incidence

a. 1, 3
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4

A

d. 1, 2, 3, 4

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16
Q

Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:

a. Alopecia
b. Bone marrow depression
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Weight loss

A

b. Bone marrow depression

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17
Q

Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?

a. The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells.
b. Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer.
c. The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors.
d. The effects of multiple metastatic tumors.

A

a. The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells.

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18
Q

What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?

a. Adenoma
b. Lipoma
c. Fibrosarcoma
d. Adenocarcinoma

A

b. Lipoma

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19
Q

Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because:

a. the gastrointestinal tract is irritated.
b. the chemicals stimulate the emetic center.
c. the drugs have an unpleasant odor.
d. A and B.

A

d. A and B.

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20
Q

The term apoptosis refers to:

a. programmed cell death.
b. abnormal or immature cells.
c. degree of differentiation of cells.
d. the development of new capillaries in a tumor.

A

a. programmed cell death.

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21
Q

Drugs that are designed to inhibit or slow down growth of microbes but not necessarily kill them are considered:

a. ineffective.
b. bacteriostatic.
c. narrow-spectrum.
d. bactericidal.

A

b. bacteriostatic.

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22
Q

Which of the following does NOT directly determine the virulence of a microbe?

a. Capacity for opportunism
b. Production of toxins
c. Ability to mutate
d. Invasive qualities

A

a. Capacity for opportunism

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23
Q

Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called:

a. bacilli.
b. diplococci.
c. staphylococci.
d. streptococci.

A

c. staphylococci.

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24
Q

The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is:

a. destruction of the mucosa in the lower respiratory tract.
b. replication of the virus in respiratory secretions.
c. destruction of leukocytes and macrophages in the lungs.
d. inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium.

A

d. inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium.

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25
Q

The wide spread necrosis of respiratory mucosa caused by an influenza infection often gives rise to:

a. severe anemia.
b. secondary infections.
c. asthma.
d. emphysema.

A

b. secondary infections.

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26
Q

The principle of Universal Precautions is based on:

a. using disinfectants at all times to eliminate cross-infections.
b. not touching any open or bleeding lesions.
c. sterilizing all instruments and equipment after each use.
d. assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection.

A

d. assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection.

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27
Q

Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?

a. The microbe exists as a chain of cells.
b. It causes a common STD.
c. It possesses many flagella.
d. It is excreted in feces.

A

b. It causes a common STD.

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28
Q

Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by which of the following?

a. Mosquitoes (bites)
b. Inhaling contaminated particles
c. Sexual intercourse
d. Cysts in feces

A

d. Cysts in feces

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29
Q

What method do viruses use to replicate?

a. Binary fission
b. Budding of a daughter cell from the parent viral cell
c. Producing reproductive spores
d. Using a host cell to produce and assemble components

A

d. Using a host cell to produce and assemble components

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30
Q

What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?

a. Epithelial cells
b. Skeletal muscle cells
c. Nerve tissue
d. Collagen and fibrous tissue

A

a. Epithelial cells

31
Q

The warning signs for cancer include:

a. unusual bleeding.
b. change in a wart or mole (e.g., color)
c. a new solid lump, often painless
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

32
Q

Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by:

a. promoting the immune response and removal of abnormal tumor cells.
b. blocking hormonal stimulation of tumor cells.
c. reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells.
d. transporting radioisotopes into the tumor.

A

c. reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells.

33
Q

The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:

a. exposure to promoters causing dysplasia.
b. development of defective genes.
c. an irreversible change in the cell DNA.
d. a single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage.

A

c. an irreversible change in the cell DNA.

34
Q

The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means:

a. the cancer cells are being destroyed quickly.
b. the patient is likely to hemorrhage.
c. higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient.
d. the patient is at high risk for infection.

A

d. the patient is at high risk for infection.

35
Q

Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they:

a. metastasize early in their development.
b. create excessive pressure within the skull.
c. cannot be removed.
d. cause serious systemic effects.

A

b. create excessive pressure within the skull.

36
Q

Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?

a. Invasiveness
b. Seeding
c. Metastasis
d. Systemic effect

A

c. Metastasis

37
Q

What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?

a. To determine the type of microbe present in an exudate.
b. To provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth.
c. To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it.
d. To provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication.

A

c. To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it.

38
Q

A strict anaerobe requires which specific environment?

a. A dry environment
b. An acidic medium
c. Air at a temperature less than 61ºF/16ºC
d. The absence of oxygen

A

d. The absence of oxygen

39
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of rickettsia?

a. It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe.
b. It exists in three forms.
c. It causes sexually transmitted disease.
d. It reproduces by budding.

A

a. It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe.

40
Q

That time in the course of an infection when the infected person may experience a headache or fatigue and senses he or she is “coming down with something” is referred to as which of the following?

a. Subclinical period
b. Eclipse period
c. Prodromal period
d. Presymptomatic period

A

c. Prodromal period

41
Q

Which factor provides the basis for the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?

a. Size of the tumor
b. Number of metastases
c. Degree of differentiation of the cells
d. Number of lymph nodes involved

A

c. Degree of differentiation of the cells

42
Q

What would be an external source for ionizing radiation?

a. A needle containing a radioisotope implanted beside the tumor.
b. Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine.
c. A dose of a radioactive drug to be ingested.
d. A fluid containing radioactive material instilled in a body cavity.

A

b. Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine.

43
Q

Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker:

a. colon cancer; carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
b. hepatic cancer; CA125, AFP
c. prostate cancer; human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
d. testicular cancer; Philadelphia chromosome

A

a. colon cancer; carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

44
Q

What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?

a. Carcinomas
b. Sarcomas
c. Melanomas
d. Fibromas

A

b. Sarcomas

45
Q

The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include:

  1. obstruction of a tube or duct.
  2. anemia and weight loss.
  3. cell necrosis and ulceration.
  4. tumor markers in the circulation.

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 3, 4

A

b. 1, 3

46
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?

a. It is unencapsulated and invasive.
b. It consists of undifferentiated cells.
c. It exerts systemic effects.
d. Cells appear relatively normal.

A

d. Cells appear relatively normal.

47
Q

The structure of a virus includes:

a. a cell wall and membrane.
b. metabolic enzymes for replication.
c. a protein coat and either DNA or RNA.
d. a slime capsule and cilia.

A

c. a protein coat and either DNA or RNA.

48
Q

Fungi reproduce by:

  1. budding
  2. extension of hyphae
  3. binary fission
  4. production of spores

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 2, 3, 4

A

c. 1, 2, 4

49
Q

What does the term carrier mean?

a. A person with active infection who acts as a reservoir for microbes.
b. Animals, insects, objects, or surfaces contaminated by pathogens.
c. An individual who is contagious through infected secretions on the hands.
d. An asymptomatic person whose body harbors pathogens and can transmit them to others.

A

d. An asymptomatic person whose body harbors pathogens and can transmit them to others.

50
Q

Secondary infection may occur with administration of antibacterial drugs because the:

a. patient is allergic to the drug.
b. balance of species in the resident flora is upset.
c. mucosa of the stomach is irritated.
d. infecting microbes spread to adjacent areas.

A

b. balance of species in the resident flora is upset.

51
Q

Which of the following is normally considered sterile?

a. Urine
b. Pharynx
c. Distal urethra
d. Vagina

A

a. Urine

52
Q

One of the greatest effects of a malignant cancer is cachexia, which is:

a. severe bleeding.
b. severe tissue wasting.
c. severe fatigue.
d. multiple opportunistic infections.

A

b. severe tissue wasting.

53
Q

All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers EXCEPT:

a. They are difficult to diagnose and treat.
b. They usually develop slowly on the head, neck, or back of individuals with fair skin.
c. The number of skin cancer cases is increasing.
d. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common form of skin cancer.

A

a. They are difficult to diagnose and treat.

54
Q

Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:

  1. reduce the adverse effects.
  2. guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed.
  3. be effective in more phases of the cell cycle.
  4. totally block the mitotic stage.

a. 1, 3
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 3, 4

A

a. 1, 3

55
Q

Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because:

a. antiviral drugs lower host resistance.
b. the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis.
c. respiratory droplets transmit infections.
d. the viral infection is usually self-limiting.

A

b. the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis.

56
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?

a. It exists in all areas of the body.
b. Different species inhabit various areas of the body.
c. It is of no benefit to the human host.
d. It consists only of bacteria.

A

b. Different species inhabit various areas of the body.

57
Q

A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:

a. destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
b. destroy all pathogenic microbes in contact with the agent.
c. reduce the replication of many bacteria.
d. inhibit the growth of most spores and acid-fast bacteria.

A

a. destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

58
Q

How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?

a. It interferes with cell-wall synthesis.
b. It blocks protein synthesis.
c. It increases cell membranes permeability.
d. It prevents DNA replication.

A

a. It interferes with cell-wall synthesis.

59
Q

Microbial mutation means that:

a. genetic information has changed.
b. pathogens become nonpathogens.
c. the microbe survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate.
d. the immune response to that microbe is strengthened.

A

a. genetic information has changed.

60
Q

The presence of the bacterial capsule:

a. aids in the release of endotoxins.
b. protects the microbe from phagocytosis.
c. increases the release of toxins and enzymes.
d. prevents replication of the bacterium.

A

b. protects the microbe from phagocytosis.

61
Q

Malignant brain tumors:

a. metastasize quickly to all parts of the body.
b. spread first to lungs and bone.
c. spread to other parts of CNS.
d. do not metastasize anywhere at any time.

A

c. spread to other parts of CNS.

62
Q

Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:

a. chemotherapy cannot be used.
b. signs and symptoms are absent.
c. complications are evident.
d. metastases occur.

A

b. signs and symptoms are absent.

63
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus?

  1. It is an obligate intracellular parasite.
  2. It contains RNA.
  3. It usually causes nausea and vomiting.
  4. There are three subtypes: A, B, C

a. 1, 4
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4

A

d. 1, 2, 4

64
Q

Drugs or agents that augment the natural immune response in the body to improve identification and removal of abnormal cells are called:

a. biological response modifiers.
b. angiogenesis stimulators.
c. analgesic complements.
d. targeted receptor modifiers.

A

a. biological response modifiers.

65
Q

The method that can be used as an alternative to surgical removal of a tumor by using heat generated by a needle inserted into the tumor is referred to as:

a. radiation therapy.
b. thermolysis intervention.
c. brachytherapy.
d. radiofrequency ablation.

A

d. radiofrequency ablation.

66
Q

Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?

a. The ovaries are inaccessible for examination.
b. Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.
c. The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer.
d. No effective treatment is available.

A

b. Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.

67
Q

The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:

a. thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.
b. headache and lethargy.
c. nausea and constipation.
d. alopecia and weight loss.

A

a. thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.

68
Q

All of the following are mechanisms of antiviral drug action EXCEPT:

a. interference with attachment to host cell.
b. block assembly of viral particles.
c. interference with mitosis.
d. shedding of protein coat.

A

c. interference with mitosis.

69
Q

The term nosocomial infection means:

a. transmission involves an insect or animal host.
b. acquired in a hospital or medical facility.
c. transmitted by a fomite.
d. spread by direct contact with secretions from an open lesion.

A

b. acquired in a hospital or medical facility.

70
Q

One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:

a. identify the original cell from which the tumor developed.
b. locate and identify the primary tumor.
c. decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor.
d. determine the best treatment and prognosis.

A

d. determine the best treatment and prognosis.

71
Q

What does “bacteremia” refer to?

a. Numerous pathogens circulating and reproducing in the blood.
b. Uncontrolled sepsis throughout the body.
c. Multiple infections, primary and secondary, established in the body.
d. Microbes present in the blood.

A

d. Microbes present in the blood.

72
Q

Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:

a. touching a contaminated countertop.
b. sexual intercourse.
c. drinking contaminated water.
d. inhaling dust-borne microbes.

A

b. sexual intercourse.

73
Q

Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:

a. glucocorticoids greatly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy.
b. the immune system is stimulated.
c. skeletal muscle atrophy will be decreased.
d. inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.

A

d. inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.

NAT302 - Holistic Pathology (7 decks)

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