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NAT302 - Holistic Pathology > Module 1 > Flashcards

Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Etiology is defined as the study of the:

a. causes of a disease.
b. course of a disease.
c. expected complications of a disease.
d. manifestations of a disease.

A

a. causes of a disease.

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2
Q

The best definition of the term prognosis is the:

a. precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
b. number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
c. predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
d. exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.

A

c. predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.

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3
Q

Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research?

a. Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental therapy.
b. Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy.
c. The research subjects do not know, but the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy.
d. Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy.

A

a. Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental therapy.

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4
Q

Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?

a. To predict the prognosis
b. To determine treatments
c. To develop preventive measures
d. To develop morbidity statistics

A

c. To develop preventive measures

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5
Q

If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called:

a. the placebo effect.
b. evidence-based research.
c. blind research studies.
d. approval for immediate distribution.

A

b. evidence-based research.

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6
Q

A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as:

a. hypertrophy
b. metaplasia
c. anaplasia
d. atrophy

A

d. atrophy

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7
Q

To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?

a. Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
b. Ischemic damage to cells
c. Liquefaction of necrotic tissue
d. Preprogrammed cell self-destruction

A

d. Preprogrammed cell self-destruction

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8
Q

Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease has been established?

a. symptoms
b. occurrence
c. manifestations
d. complication

A

d. complication

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9
Q

A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed:

a. latent stage
b. predisposing factor
c. incidence
d. precipitating factor

A

d. precipitating factor

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10
Q

Which of the following would be most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?

a. An inherited disorder
b. A combination of specific etiological factors
c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment

A

c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug

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11
Q

Prostaglandins are produced from __________ and cause __________.

a. activated plasma protein; increased capillary permeability
b. mast cells; vasodilation and pain
c. platelets; attraction of neutrophils, chemotaxis
d. mast cell granules; activation of histamines and kinins

A

b. mast cells; vasodilation and pain

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12
Q

The characteristic appearance of a full-thickness burn is:

a. painful with multiple blisters.
b. heavy bleeding.
c. red with some swelling.
d. dry, firm, charred, or hard white surface.

A

d. dry, firm, charred, or hard white surface.

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13
Q

Which of the following helps to localize and “wall off” the foreign material during an inflammatory response?

a. Lymphocytes
b. Increased fluid
c. Fibrinogen
d. Antibodies

A

c. Fibrinogen

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14
Q

Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following EXCEPT:

a. decreased bone density.
b. wasting of skeletal muscle.
c. opportunistic infections.
d. increased leukocyte production.

A

d. increased leukocyte production.

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15
Q

Potential complications after healing by scar formation include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. lack of sensory function in the area.
b. contractures and adhesions.
c. increased hair growth.
d. keloid formation.

A

c. increased hair growth.

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16
Q

During the inflammatory response, hyperemia is caused by:

a. increased blood flow in the area.
b. increased capillary permeability.
c. irritation of sensory nerve endings by histamine.
d. increased leukocytes in the area.

A

a. increased blood flow in the area.

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17
Q

Which chemical mediator is involved in prolonging the inflammatory response?

a. Bradykinin
b. Histamine
c. Leukotrienes
d. Chemotactic factors

A

c. Leukotrienes

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18
Q

All of the following are correct statements regarding would healing EXCEPT:

a. Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover.
b. Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.
c. Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis.
d. Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis.

A

b. Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.

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19
Q

Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include:

a. albumin and fibrinogen.
b. growth factors and cell enzymes.
c. macrophages and neutrophils.
d. histamine and prostaglandins.

A

d. histamine and prostaglandins.

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20
Q

Replacement of damaged tissue by similar functional cells is termed:

a. fibrosis.
b. regeneration.
c. resolution.
d. repair by scar tissue.

A

b. regeneration.

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21
Q

During the evaluation process for a new therapy’s effectiveness and safety, a double blind study may be conducted during:

a. the first stage.
b. the second stage.
c. the third stage.
d. any of these stages.

A

c. the third stage.

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22
Q

Which of the following is usually included in a medical history?

  1. Past illnesses or surgeries
  2. Current illnesses, acute and chronic
  3. Prescribed medication or other treatments
  4. Nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies
  5. Current allergies
A

All are included

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23
Q

Pathophysiology involves the study of:

a. the structure of the human body.
b. the functions of various organs in the body.
c. functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
d. various cell structures and related functions.

A

c. functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.

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24
Q

All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT:

a. The initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions.
b. If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able to recover and return to its normal state.
c. If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage becomes irreversible and the cell dies.
d. Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function.

A

d. Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function.

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25
Q

A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called:

a. acute
b. latent
c. chronic
d. manifestation

A

a. acute

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26
Q

One goal for current research in tissue engineering is to:

a. create a functional replacement tissue when regeneration is not possible.
b. adapt cells from the injured organ to produce replacement tissue.
c. design a nonliving synthetic replacement tissue.
d. use stem cells as a temporary covering for damaged tissue.

A

a. create a functional replacement tissue when regeneration is not possible.

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27
Q

Which of the following is a serious potential complication found only with the anti-inflammatory COX-2 inhibitor drugs?

a. Increased risk of infection at the site of inflammation
b. Reye’s syndrome developing in children and young adults
c. Increased incidence of heart attacks
d. Greatly delayed blood clotting

A

c. Increased incidence of heart attacks

28
Q

How does scar tissue usually cause obstructions to develop in tube-like structures?

a. Scar tissue continues to grow and spread, causing a blockage.
b. Scar tissue does not stretch, but rather shrinks in time, causing narrowing.
c. Scar tissue twists and forms knots as it develops.
d. Scar tissue attaches to nearby normal tissue, causing obstruction.

A

b. Scar tissue does not stretch, but rather shrinks in time, causing narrowing.

29
Q

Which of the following result directly from the release of chemical mediators following a moderate burn injury?

  1. Pain
  2. Local vasoconstriction
  3. Increased capillary permeability
  4. Pallor
A

1, 3

30
Q

Healing of large areas of skin loss (including dermis and epidermis) would be most successful through:

a. rapid mitosis and regeneration of skin layers.
b. resolution of damaged cells in the area.
c. covering the area with biosynthetic skin substitute.
d. a graft of fibrous tissue to the area.

A

c. covering the area with biosynthetic skin substitute.

31
Q

Purulent exudates usually contain:

a. small amounts of plasma protein and histamine in water.
b. red blood cells and all types of white blood cells.
c. numerous leukocytes, bacteria, and cell debris.
d. large amounts of water containing a few cells.

A

c. numerous leukocytes, bacteria, and cell debris.

32
Q

Edema associated with inflammation results directly from:

a. increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment.
b. increased phagocytes in the affected area.
c. decreased capillary permeability.
d. general vasoconstriction.

A

a. increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment.

33
Q

a

Identify the correct statement about burns:

a. The severity of the burn depends on the temperature, duration, and extent of the burn.
b. Young children are less likely to suffer severe burns from immersion in excessively hot water.
c. Burns to the palms of the hands are more damaging than burns on the face.
d. With a major burn, excessive bleeding usually causes shock.

A

a. The severity of the burn depends on the temperature, duration, and extent of the burn.

34
Q

The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:

a. subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b. signs and symptoms of a disease.
c. factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d. early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.

A

b. signs and symptoms of a disease.

35
Q

All of the following are part of the Seven Steps of Health EXCEPT:

a. follow cancer screening guidelines.
b. use sun block agents whenever exposed.
c. participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis.
d. choose high fiber, lower fat foods.

A

c. participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis.

36
Q

Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:

a. an iatrogenic cause of cancer.
b. a preventive measure.
c. a precipitating factor.
d. a predisposing condition.

A

b. a preventive measure.

37
Q

The term cancer refers to:

a. dysplasia
b. hyperplasia
c. metaplasia
d. malignant neoplasm

A

d. malignant neoplasm

38
Q

Some local effects of a general inflammatory response would include:

a. high, spiking fever and chills
b. redness, warmth, and swelling
c. leukopenia and reduced erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d. anorexia and headaches

A

b. redness, warmth, and swelling

39
Q

Potential complications after healing by scar formation include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. lack of sensory function in the area
b. contractures and adhesions
c. increased hair growth
d. keloid formation

A

b. contractures and adhesions

40
Q

A woman has burns on the anterior surfaces of her right arm, chest, and right leg. The percentage of body surface area burned is approximately:

a. 13.5%
b. 18%
c. 22.5%
d. 31.5%

A

c. 22.5%

41
Q

Scar tissue consists primarily of:

a. granulation tissue.
b. epithelial cells.
c. collagen fibers.
d. new capillaries and smooth muscle fibers.

A

c. collagen fibers.

42
Q

Isoenzymes in the circulating blood:

a. are a type of plasma protein normally present in the circulating blood.
b. often indicate the precise location of an inflammatory response.
c. are normally released from leukocytes during the inflammatory response.
d. are pyrogens, causing low-grade fever.

A

b. often indicate the precise location of an inflammatory response.

43
Q

Why is the application of cold recommended as part of the RICE first aid measures immediately following an inflammatory response due to injury?

a. It improves circulation in the area removing chemical mediators.
b. It causes local vasoconstriction to reduce local edema.
c. It draws more phagocytic cells to the area to remove debris.
d. It promotes immediate healing.

A

b. It causes local vasoconstriction to reduce local edema.

44
Q

Tears are considered to be part of the:

  1. first line of defense.
  2. second line of defense.
  3. third line of defense.
  4. specific defenses.
  5. nonspecific defenses

a. 1,4
b. 1,5
c. 3,4
d. 2,5

A

a. 1,4

45
Q

A typical source of infection in burn areas is:

a. the skin grafts.
b. microbes surviving in the hair follicles in the burn area.
c. circulating blood bringing microbes to the burn wound.
d. opportunistic virus in digestive tract.

A

b. microbes surviving in the hair follicles in the burn area.

46
Q

When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as:

a. atrophy
b. liquefaction necrosis
c. apoptosis
d. infarction

A

d. infarction

47
Q

Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as:

a. abnormal metabolic processes.
b. certain food additives.
c. genetic defects.
d. localized hypoxia.

A

b. certain food additives.

48
Q

A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease within a given area is called a/an:

a. epidemic.
b. exacerbation.
c. morbidity.
d. pandemic.

A

a. epidemic.

49
Q

The term homeostasis refers to:

a. the causative factors in a particular disease.
b. maintenance of a stable internal environment.
c. a condition that triggers an acute episode.
d. a collection of signs and symptoms.

A

b. maintenance of a stable internal environment.

50
Q

The term disease refers to:

a. the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
b. a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
c. the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
d. a basic collection of signs and symptoms.

A

b. a deviation from the normal state of health and function.

51
Q

The term prognosis refers to:

a. period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
b. expected outcome of the disease.
c. mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
d. typical collection of signs and symptoms.

A

b. expected outcome of the disease.

52
Q

The number of neutrophils in the blood is increased significantly:

a. during allergic reactions.
b. during chronic inflammation.
c. to produce antibodies.
d. in order to promote phagocytosis.

A

d. in order to promote phagocytosis.

53
Q

The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from:

a. increased interstitial fluid.
b. production of complement.
c. a large number of white blood cells (WBCs) entering the area.
d. increased blood flow into the area.

A

d. increased blood flow into the area.

54
Q

An abscess contains:

a. serous exudate.
b. purulent exudate.
c. fibrinous exudate.
d. hemorrhagic exudate.

A

b. purulent exudate.

55
Q

All of the following are factors that promote healing EXCEPT:

a. good nutrition: protein, vitamins A and C.
b. a clean, undisturbed wound.
c. effective circulation.
d. advanced age.

A

d. advanced age.

56
Q

Application of ice to an injured knee reduces edema by:

a. promoting return of lymph fluid.
b. causing local vasoconstriction.
c. increasing the rate of tissue repair.
d. causing systemic vasodilation.

A

b. causing local vasoconstriction.

57
Q

Hypermetabolism is common with major burns because of:

a. increased heat loss from the burn wound.
b. demand for tissue repair.
c. recurrent stress response.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

58
Q

Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?

a. Swelling of the knee
b. Fever
c. Pain in the neck
d. Red rash on the face

A

b. Fever

59
Q

When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called:

a. ischemia
b. gangrene
c. hypoxia
d. necrosis

A

d. necrosis

60
Q

A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as:

a. full-thickness
b. deep partial-thickness
c. superficial partial-thickness
d. first-degree

A

b. deep partial-thickness

61
Q

Which of the following cellular elements found in the inflammatory response are responsible for phagocytosis?

a. Macrophages
b. Basophils
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes
e. Eosinophils

A

a. Macrophages

62
Q

Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti-inflammatory agent?

a. Acetaminophen
b. Prednisone
c. Aspirin
d. Ibuprofen

A

a. Acetaminophen

63
Q

The term leukocytosis means:

a. increased white blood cells (WBCs) in the blood.
b. decreased WBCs in the blood.
c. increased number of immature circulating leukocytes.
d. significant change in the proportions of WBCs.

A

a. increased white blood cells (WBCs) in the blood.

64
Q

Causes of inflammation include:

a. direct physical damage such as cuts and sprains.
b. allergic reactions.
c. infection.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

65
Q

The advantages of applying a biosynthetic skin substitute to a large area of full-thickness burns include:

  1. reduced risk of infection.
  2. decreased loss of plasma protein and fluid.
  3. developing stronger fibrous scar tissue.
  4. more rapid healing.
  5. regeneration of all glands, nerves, and hair follicles.
A

1, 2, 4

NAT302 - Holistic Pathology (7 decks)

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