Module 2 Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the Mental Status Exam (MSE)?

A

To assess a patient’s fundamental mental functioning and guide diagnosis and treatment planning

The MSE offers valuable insights into a patient’s mental health.

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2
Q

What does the General Survey assess in a patient?

A

Appearance, eye contact, motor activity, and demeanor

Example: Noting if a patient is well-groomed or makes consistent eye contact.

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3
Q

How is a patient’s mood evaluated during the MSE?

A

By assessing their emotional state, such as happiness, sadness, or anxiety.

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4
Q

What does ‘affect’ refer to in the context of the MSE?

A

The outward expression of mood and its congruence with the stated mood.

Example: A patient expressing sadness while crying.

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5
Q

What memory functions are tested in the MSE?

A

Immediate and short-term memory recall

Example: Recalling a list of words after 5 minutes.

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6
Q

What is assessed under attention and orientation in the MSE?

A

Awareness of time, place, person, and situation.

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7
Q

What aspects of speech are observed in the MSE?

A

Rate, volume, and coherence patterns.

Example: Patients speaking too fast or incoherently.

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8
Q

What do insight and judgment evaluate in the MSE?

A

Understanding of situations and decision-making ability.

Example: Acknowledging the consequences of skipping medications.

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9
Q

What does intellect assess in the MSE?

A

General cognitive abilities through vocabulary use or problem-solving skills.

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10
Q

What is the difference between thought content and thought process?

A

Thought process analyzes how thoughts are organized; thought content refers to the substance of thoughts.

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11
Q

What is tangentiality in thought process?

A

Responding with irrelevant answers that never reach the main point.

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12
Q

What is circumstantiality in thought process?

A

Excessively detailed explanations that eventually reach the intended point.

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13
Q

What are examples of thought content?

A

Delusions, hallucinations, overvalued ideas, obsessions, compulsions, suicidal ideation, homicidal ideation.

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14
Q

What is the Mini-Mental Status Examination (MMSE)?

A

A cognitive screening tool designed to measure adult competency status and cognitive impairment.

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15
Q

What cognitive domains does the MMSE evaluate?

A
  • Orientation
  • Recognition
  • Recall
  • Attention/calculation
  • Language
  • Visual construction
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16
Q

What is the maximum score of the MMSE?

A

30 points.

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17
Q

What MMSE score range indicates no cognitive impairment?

A

24-30.

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18
Q

What MMSE score range indicates mild delirium/dementia?

A

20-23.

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19
Q

What MMSE score range indicates moderate delirium/dementia?

A

10-19.

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20
Q

What MMSE score range indicates severe delirium/dementia?

A

0-9.

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21
Q

What mnemonic can help remember the MMSE components?

A

ORRAL 23 RWD.

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22
Q

What is an example of a question in the MMSE for attention/calculation?

A

Perform serial sevens or count backward from 100.

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23
Q

What is the definition of a therapeutic relationship in nursing?

A

A mutual, interactive, interpersonal relationship between patient and nurse focusing on the patient’s needs.

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24
Q

What are the key components of therapeutic relationships?

A
  • Genuineness
  • Acceptance
  • Nonjudgmental attitude
  • Authenticity
  • Empathy
  • Respect
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25
Q

What does genuineness in a therapeutic relationship involve?

A

Being open, honest, and transparent in interactions.

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26
Q

What is acceptance in therapeutic relationships?

A

Recognizing each individual’s unique experience, beliefs, culture, and background.

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27
Q

What does a nonjudgmental attitude entail in nursing?

A

Removing bias, prejudice, and personal opinions from clinical interactions.

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28
Q

What is empathy in the context of therapeutic relationships?

A

Demonstrating understanding of patients’ feelings or emotions without imposing personal beliefs.

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29
Q

What is transference in therapeutic relationships?

A

Patients displacing feelings for significant people from their past onto healthcare providers.

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30
Q

What is countertransference in therapeutic relationships?

A

Healthcare providers transferring their feelings/emotions to patients.

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31
Q

What is the single most important risk factor for suicide?

A

Prior suicide attempts.

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32
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering suicide risk factors?

A

S.P.A.M. W.R.A.P.S.

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33
Q

What does the CIWA scale assess?

A

Alcohol withdrawal severity.

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34
Q

What is the treatment initiation score for the CIWA scale?

A

Starts at a score of 8+ (PRN).

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35
Q

What are FDA-approved medications for alcoholism?

A
  • Disulfiram (Antabuse)
  • Acamprosate (Campral)
  • Naltrexone (Vivitrol)
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36
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Disulfiram?

A

Inhibits the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase, causing an accumulation of acetaldehyde.

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37
Q

What are common signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Tremors
  • Anxiety
  • Agitation
  • Altered mental status
38
Q

What is the Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale (COWS) used for?

A

To evaluate the severity of opioid withdrawal.

39
Q

What CIWA score range indicates mild withdrawal?

A

5-12 points.

40
Q

What CIWA score range indicates moderate withdrawal?

A

13-24 points.

41
Q

What is excessive yawning without feeling drowsy indicative of?

A

A symptom of opioid withdrawal

This can occur as part of the withdrawal syndrome.

42
Q

What behavior can indicate a person is becoming more agitated or easily stressed?

A

Irritability/anxiety

This can manifest in various ways, including mood swings.

43
Q

What does pupillary dilation indicate in the context of opioid use?

A

Opioid intoxication

Pinpoint pupils should be monitored closely as they can signify withdrawal.

44
Q

What is piloerection commonly referred to as?

A

Goosebumps

This can occur even when the individual is not cold or scared.

45
Q

What term describes persistent discomfort or pain in muscles without physical exertion?

A

Muscle aches

This is a common symptom during opioid withdrawal.

46
Q

What is excessive tearing without emotional triggers known as?

A

Lacrimation

This can occur during opioid withdrawal.

47
Q

What is rhinorrhea?

A

Runny nose

This symptom can be persistent and unrelated to allergies or infections.

48
Q

What does profuse perspiration with minimal physical activity indicate?

A

Sweating

It can occur even in cool environments during withdrawal.

49
Q

What is regular difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep despite feeling tired called?

A

Insomnia

This is another symptom that can be associated with opioid withdrawal.

50
Q

What is the memorable acronym for opioid withdrawal symptoms?

A

YIP PLRSI

Stands for Yawning, Irritability, Pupils, Piloerection, Lacrimation, Rhinorrhea, Sweating, Insomnia.

51
Q

What does the COWS scale assess?

A

Opioid withdrawal symptoms

It is important to differentiate COWS from CIWA scores.

52
Q

How many items does the Cow’s Scale (COWS) consist of?

A

11 items

These items assess a range of withdrawal symptoms.

53
Q

Which patient has the highest risk factors for opioid withdrawal?

A

Patient B: Appears agitated, has enlarged pupils, and excessive sweating

This combination indicates withdrawal symptoms.

54
Q

What does the MMSE stand for?

A

Mini-Mental State Examination

It measures cognitive impairment in individuals.

55
Q

What does the SLUM scale measure?

A

Cognitive impairment

It is another tool alongside MMSE.

56
Q

What are the score ranges for MMSE indicating normal cognitive function?

A

25-30

Scores of 21-24 indicate mild cognitive impairment.

57
Q

What is the HAM-D scale used for?

A

Evaluating the severity of depressive symptoms

It is one of several depression assessment scales.

58
Q

What score range on the PHQ-9 indicates moderate depression?

A

10-14

A score of 15-19 indicates severe depression.

59
Q

What does the GAD scale measure?

A

Anxiety levels

It has ranges from mild to severe anxiety.

60
Q

What is the purpose of the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)?

A

To screen for post-natal depression or depression during pregnancy

It is a specialized tool for this purpose.

61
Q

What does SBIRT stand for?

A

Screening, Brief Intervention, Referral for Treatment

It is a process for identifying and addressing substance use disorders.

62
Q

What does the CAGE questionnaire assess?

A

Problematic alcohol use

It includes 4 questions related to drinking behavior.

63
Q

What is the maximum score on the CAGE questionnaire?

A

4

A score of 2 or higher suggests potential alcohol problems.

64
Q

What does the DAST-10 scale screen for?

A

Abuse of alcohol and/or other drugs

It is designed for population screening and clinical case finding.

65
Q

What is a delusion?

A

A false, unwavering belief despite evidence to the contrary

Understanding delusions is key in mental health evaluations.

66
Q

What is referential thinking?

A

Irrational thoughts about personal connection to random events or objects

It can be a symptom in various mental health conditions.

67
Q

What syndrome is characterized by short-term cognitive changes with acute onset?

A

Delirium

It causes symptoms like disorientation and inattention.

68
Q

What is the preferred medication for agitated delirium?

A

Haloperidol (Haldol)

It is commonly used for managing symptoms.

69
Q

What is the 1-year mortality rate for patients with delirium?

A

40%

This highlights the severity of the condition.

70
Q

What does the acronym ‘D.A.R.T.’ stand for in relation to delirium features?

A

D = Delirium itself; A = Acute onset; R = Altered mental status; T = Trouble focusing/Inattention

This acronym helps remember the key characteristics of delirium.

71
Q

What are the hallmark symptoms of delirium?

A

Fluctuating consciousness and cognition

These symptoms are critical for diagnosis and management of delirium.

72
Q

What is the 1-year mortality rate for delirium patients?

A

40%

This statistic highlights the severity and risks associated with delirium.

73
Q

What is the preferred medication for agitated delirium?

A

Haloperidol

Haloperidol is commonly used to manage agitation in delirium.

74
Q

Define dementia.

A

A group of disorders that involve gradual cognitive decline, impacting various mental functions like memory, problem-solving, and organization.

75
Q

What are the main cognitive deficits associated with dementia?

A
  • Impaired executive functions
  • Impaired global intellect
  • Impaired problem-solving
  • Impaired organizational skills
  • Altered memory
76
Q

What type of dementia affects language and memory?

A

Cortical Dementia

Examples include Alzheimer’s and Pick’s Disease.

77
Q

What are symptoms associated with subcortical dementia?

A
  • Depression
  • Irritability
  • Apathy
  • Motor symptoms
78
Q

What is the most common type of dementia?

A

Dementia of Alzheimer’s Type (DAT)

This type features gradual onset and progressive decline.

79
Q

What are the typical early-stage symptoms of Frontotemporal Dementia?

A
  • Personality changes
  • Behavior changes
  • Language changes
80
Q

What characterizes Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease?

A

Cortical dementia; fatal and rapid progression

Symptoms can progress from flu-like to aphasia and psychosis.

81
Q

What are the early signs of HIV Dementia?

A
  • Cognitive decline
  • Motor abnormalities
  • Behavioral abnormalities
82
Q

True or False: Vascular Dementia is the most common type of dementia.

A

False

Alzheimer’s is the most common type of dementia.

83
Q

What is a common symptom associated with Huntington’s Disease?

A

Choreoathetosis movement

This movement disorder is a hallmark of Huntington’s.

84
Q

Fill in the blank: The first-line agent for dementia treatment is _______.

A

Atypical antipsychotics

85
Q

List the FDA-approved medications for dementia.

A
  • Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., Donepezil, Rivastigmine, Galantamine)
  • Glutamate regulators (e.g., Memantine)
  • Combination therapy (e.g., Donepezil + Memantine)
86
Q

What is the hallmark of vascular dementia?

A

Cardiovascular involvement

This includes conditions like high blood pressure.

87
Q

What is a key memorization tip for Alzheimer’s?

A

Alzheimer’s starts with ‘A’

This can help in distinguishing it from other types of dementia.

88
Q

What type of dementia is characterized by visual hallucinations?

A

Lewy Body Disease

89
Q

True or False: Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to irreversible dementia.

A

False

Vitamin B12 deficiency is rare but potentially reversible.

90
Q

What are the late-stage symptoms of HIV Dementia?

A
  • Mutism
  • Seizures
  • Hallucinations