Module 1 Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of the brain does the cerebrum comprise?

A

83%

The cerebrum includes the right and left hemispheres, separated by the central sulcus.

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2
Q

What are the two hemispheres of the cerebrum?

A

Left Hemisphere and Right Hemisphere

Each hemisphere controls functions of the opposite side of the body.

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3
Q

What is the primary function of the left hemisphere?

A

Controls most functions of the right side of the body

Dominant in most people, primarily responsible for tasks like writing.

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4
Q

What is the primary function of the right hemisphere?

A

Controls most functions of the left side of the body

Responsible for understanding facial expressions and emotions.

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5
Q

List the four major lobes of the brain.

A
  • Frontal Lobe
  • Parietal Lobe
  • Temporal Lobe
  • Occipital Lobe
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6
Q

What is the main role of the frontal lobe?

A

Critical thinking and decision-making

It is the largest and most developed lobe.

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7
Q

What acronym can help remember the functions of the frontal lobe?

A

FLIPPER JW

Each letter stands for a specific function of the frontal lobe.

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8
Q

What does Broca’s area in the frontal lobe control?

A

Expressive speech

Damage here can lead to Broca’s aphasia.

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9
Q

What are the functions of the temporal lobe?

A
  • Processes auditory information
  • Language comprehension
  • Memory formation
  • Emotional responses
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10
Q

What is Wernicke’s area associated with?

A

Receptive speech and language comprehension

Mnemonic: ‘Wernicke’s for Word Comprehension.’

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11
Q

What can result from damage to the temporal lobe?

A

Auditory hallucinations, aphasia, amnesia

These are potential issues that may arise from temporal lobe dysfunction.

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12
Q

What is the primary function of the occipital lobe?

A

Interpreting visual information

It contains the primary visual cortex.

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13
Q

What are visual field defects?

A

Partial or complete loss of vision within one or both eyes’ visual field

Includes conditions like hemianopia and quadrantanopia.

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14
Q

What is the primary sensory area of the parietal lobe responsible for?

A

Processing sensory information from the body

Example: Feeling the warmth of a cup of coffee.

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15
Q

What is agnosia?

A

Inability to recognize or interpret sensory information

Example: Touching a pen but unable to recognize it by touch.

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16
Q

What is the function of the limbic system?

A

Regulates and modulates emotions and memory

It includes structures like the hypothalamus, thalamus, hippocampus, and amygdala.

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17
Q

What role does the hypothalamus play in the limbic system?

A

Regulatory functions like appetite, thirst, and circadian rhythms

Example acronym: WHAT HEC.

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18
Q

What does the amygdala regulate?

A

Mood, emotional memories, fear, anxiety, aggression

It connects smell to emotions.

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19
Q

What is the function of the cranial nerve I?

A

Smell

Mnemonic: ‘On’ for Olfactory Nerve.

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20
Q

What is the function of the cranial nerve II?

A

Vision

Mnemonic: ‘Old’ for Optic Nerve.

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21
Q

What does the Clock Drawing Test (CDT) screen for?

A

Signs of neurological issues such as Alzheimer’s disease

Performance impairment on the CDT may indicate right parietal lobe damage.

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22
Q

What is the function of the Opharyngeal Nerve (IX)?

A

Taste, swallowing, saliva

Example: Picture being at a German bakery, tasting delicious pastries, and swallowing them afterward.

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23
Q

Which mnemonic helps remember the Vagus Nerve (X)?

A

Guarded

Function: Autonomic functions, swallowing, speech.

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24
Q

What is the primary function of the Accessory Nerve (XI)?

A

Shoulder & neck movement

Example: Remember this with the image of a person with strong neck and shoulder muscles executing acrobatic stunts.

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25
Q

What does the Hypoglossal Nerve (XII) control?

A

Tongue movement

Example: Think of a frog hopping around using its versatile tongue to catch insects.

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26
Q

Which pathway is hyperactive in positive psychotic symptoms?

A

Mesolimbic Pathway

Example: Antagonism of D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway treats hallucinations and delusions.

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27
Q

What is a characteristic of atypical antipsychotics?

A

5HT2A (Serotonin) receptor antagonism

This distinguishes them from typical antipsychotics.

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28
Q

What is the impact of decreased dopamine in the Mesocortical Pathway?

A

Responsible for negative and depressive symptoms of schizophrenia

Example: Lack of motivation and emotional withdrawal in schizophrenic patients.

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29
Q

What can dopamine blockade in the Nigrostriatal Pathway lead to?

A

Increased acetylcholine levels

Blockade can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as dystonia, parkinsonism, and akathisia.

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30
Q

What are symptoms of Acute Dystonia?

A

Muscle spasms of the face, neck, tongue, stiff neck

Example: A patient who suddenly develops a twisted neck might be experiencing acute dystonia.

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31
Q

What is the treatment for Akathisia?

A

Beta-blocker (propranolol), Benztropine (Cogentin), Benzodiazepine

Symptoms include restlessness and difficulty standing still.

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32
Q

Tardive Dyskinesia can cause what kind of muscle movements?

A

Involuntary abnormal movements of the mouth, tongue, face, and jaw

Examples: Persistent tongue protrusion and lip-smacking.

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33
Q

What is the first-pass effect?

A

Significant reduction of drug substrates by CYP450 enzymes in the liver after enteric absorption

Non-enteric routes of medication bypass this effect.

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34
Q

What is the mnemonic for drug inducers?

A

DROP ACT SCAM GBS

Includes agents like Dilantin, Rifampin, and Tobacco Smoking.

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35
Q

What is the effect of drug inhibitors?

A

Slowing down the metabolic rate, leading to increased serum levels of drugs

This can increase the risk of toxicity.

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36
Q

What does pharmacodynamics study?

A

Drug action on the body and how drugs interact with receptors, ion channels, and enzymes

It helps understand what drugs do to our bodies.

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37
Q

What is the role of an agonist?

A

Activates a receptor to produce a biological response

Example: Morphine mimics endorphins by binding to opioid receptors.

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38
Q

What can be mistaken for pseudo-parkinsonian symptoms?

A

Affective blunting or flattening

Symptoms include muscle rigidity, shuffling gait, and tremors.

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39
Q

What factor increases free drug concentration in older adults?

A

Diminished protein binding

This makes older adults more susceptible to drug toxicity.

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40
Q

What is the correct answer for the pathway most affected in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Nigrostriatal pathway

This pathway connects the substantia nigra with the striatum and is key in motor control.

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41
Q

What is a key symptom of Akinesia?

A

Absence of movement

Example: A patient accused of being lazy might suffer from akinesia.

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42
Q

What does the term ‘half-life’ refer to?

A

The time needed to clear 50% of the drug from the plasma

A steady state is achieved in five half-lives.

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43
Q

What can long-term D2 blockade lead to?

A

Tardive dyskinesia and involuntary facial movements

This highlights the importance of monitoring patients on antipsychotics.

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44
Q

Which neurotransmitter action can improve neuron communication?

A

Increase in neurotransmitter action at the synaptic cleft

This is an example of pharmacodynamics in action.

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45
Q

What action does an agonist receptor produce?

A

Initiates a biological response and opens the ion channels

Answer choice d) is correct since it describes what an agonist does at a receptor.

46
Q

What is the effect of serotonin (5-HT)?

A

Increases well-being, satiety, reduces pain perception

Produced in the raphe nuclei of the brainstem.

47
Q

What is the mnemonic associated with dopamine (DA) for its role in addiction?

A

Very Tired Addict

Associated with motor movement and produced in the substantia nigra, nucleus accumbens, and ventral tegmental area.

48
Q

What are the effects of norepinephrine?

A

Increases heart rate, alertness, and well-being; decreases pain sensitivity and circulation

Produced in the locus coeruleus and medullary reticular formation.

49
Q

What is the primary effect of acetylcholine (ACh)?

A

Increases heart rate, secretions, sweating, salivation, memory and muscle contractions

Synthesized by the Basalis nucleus of Meynert.

50
Q

What is the most abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

GABA

Increases sleepiness, decreases anxiety, alertness, memory, and muscle tension.

51
Q

What are the effects of glutamate?

A

Increased level of glutamate increases anxiety levels

Most abundant excitatory neurotransmitter.

52
Q

What is the therapeutic range for lithium?

A

0.6-1.2 mEq/L

Toxicity can occur at 1.5 mEq/L or higher.

53
Q

What are common side effects of lithium?

A
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Weight gain
  • Fine hand tremors
  • Fatigue
  • Mental confusion
  • Nystagmus
  • GI symptoms: diarrhea, vomiting
  • Renal issues: diabetes insipidus
  • Cardiac issues: T-wave inversion
  • Hematologic issues: leukocytosis

Coarse hand tremors are a sign of toxicity.

54
Q

What drug interactions can affect lithium levels?

A

Increased with prostaglandin inhibitors like NSAIDs

Exceptions include Aspirin (ASA) and Tylenol.

55
Q

What is a black box warning for valproic acid?

A

Hepatotoxicity and Pancreatitis

Monitor liver function tests (LFTs) regularly.

56
Q

What is the therapeutic index for valproic acid?

A

50-125 mcg/ml

Check serum levels to ensure patients are within the therapeutic range.

57
Q

What fetal abnormalities are associated with valproic acid?

A
  • Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida)
  • Cleft lip and cleft palate
  • Cognitive impairment

Counsel female patients of childbearing potential about alternative medications.

58
Q

What is a key concern regarding carbamazepine in the Asian population?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Screen for HLA-B*1502 allele before initiating.

59
Q

What is the therapeutic range for carbamazepine?

A

4-12 µg/mL

Monitor levels for seizure control.

60
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering the side effects of carbamazepine?

A

C - Color pale
A - Agranulocytosis
R - Rash
B - Bleeding gums
A - Aplastic anemia
M - Med stop
A - Asians vulnerable
Zzz - fatigue
P - Pregnant?
I - Increased SOB
N - Nosebleeds
E - Elevated temp

Highlights critical side effects and monitoring needs.

61
Q

What is the black box warning for Lamictal?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Discontinue immediately if symptoms occur.

62
Q

What is the starting dose for Lamictal?

A

25 mg/day

Titrate gradually to avoid severe rash.

63
Q

What medications can cause drug-induced mania?

A
  • Syphilis
  • SAM-e
  • Steroids
  • St. John’s Wort/Ginseng
  • Antidepressants
  • Isoniazid
  • Levothyroxine
  • Disulfiram

Always consider the possibility of drug-induced mania in patients presenting with new-onset symptoms.

64
Q

What should be done if a patient experiences mania while on lithium?

A

Assess for medication adjustments

Consider other medications that may induce mania.

65
Q

What medication is known to cause symptoms similar to mania?

A

Treatment for a sudden flare-up of rheumatic arthritis

This condition can trigger manic symptoms in susceptible individuals.

66
Q

What medical condition is most likely to occur due to the addition of Flonase to a regimen including Valproate and Seroquel?

A

Mania episode

Flonase can interact with medications and potentially induce manic symptoms.

67
Q

List the medications associated with depression in patients with bipolar disorder.

A
  • Antiretrovirals (e.g., efavirenz)
  • Steroids (e.g., prednisone)
  • Accutane (Isotretinoin)
  • Progesterone
  • β-blockers (e.g., propranolol)
  • Benzodiazepines (e.g., alprazolam)
  • Interferon
  • Statins (e.g., simvastatin)

These medications can exacerbate depressive symptoms in susceptible individuals.

68
Q

True or False: Propranolol may worsen depression symptoms in patients being treated for hypertension.

A

True

Propranolol is known to have depressive effects.

69
Q

What is the monitoring schedule for Clozapine (Clozaril)?

A
  • Weekly for the first six months
  • Every two weeks for the next six months
  • Monthly if ANC is normal

This schedule is crucial for monitoring neutropenia risk.

70
Q

What should be done if a patient’s ANC is less than 1000 mm3 while on Clozapine?

A

Discontinue Clozapine

This is necessary due to the risk of neutropenia.

71
Q

What are the signs that a PMHNP should monitor for when a patient is on Clozapine?

A
  • Fever
  • Sore throat
  • Chills

These signs may indicate an infection, necessitating the discontinuation of Clozapine.

72
Q

What is the appropriate action if a patient on Carbamazepine has a WBC of 2500/µL and ANC of 750/µL?

A

Discontinue Tegretol, then retest WBC and ANC levels

This is essential due to the risk of agranulocytosis.

73
Q

What are the potential interactions for Olanzapine due to smoking?

A

Increase dose if the patient starts smoking; decrease dose if the patient stops smoking

Smoking can induce the metabolism of Olanzapine.

74
Q

What teratogenic risk is associated with Lithium?

A

Epstein anomaly

This congenital heart defect is particularly concerning during the first trimester.

75
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the symptoms of a hypertensive crisis?

A

Head Pounding Pains - Horrible, Palpitations, Pupils Dilated, Perspiration, and Pyrexia

This mnemonic helps recall the critical symptoms associated with a hypertensive crisis.

76
Q

What is Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) primarily caused by?

A

Antipsychotics

Example: haloperidol can trigger NMS.

77
Q

What is the first step in treating Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

A

Discontinue the offending agent

This is crucial to prevent further complications.

78
Q

Fill in the blank: Clozapine is mainly metabolized by the _____ enzyme.

A

CYP1A2

Understanding this metabolism pathway is vital for medication management.

79
Q

What is the primary risk associated with taking benzodiazepines during pregnancy?

A

Floppy baby syndrome

This condition can lead to significant neonatal complications.

80
Q

What medication acts as both a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor?

A

Bupropion

This medication is used for treating depression.

81
Q

What is the first step in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A

Always discontinue the offending agent

Discontinuing the medication that caused NMS is crucial for patient safety.

82
Q

What type of medication is Bromocriptine (Parlodel)?

A

Dopamine D2 Agonist

Bromocriptine is used in the treatment of NMS.

83
Q

What is Dantrolene used for?

A

Muscle relaxant for muscle rigidity

Dantrolene helps alleviate muscle rigidity associated with NMS.

84
Q

When does Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome typically develop after starting antipsychotic medications?

A

Often within the first two weeks

Rapid development of NMS can occur with dosage increases as well.

85
Q

What is the primary distinction between NMS and Serotonin Syndrome?

A

NMS is caused by antipsychotic medications, while Serotonin Syndrome is caused by serotoninergic medications

Understanding the cause is essential for proper diagnosis and treatment.

86
Q

What are some key symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome?

A
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Myoclonic jerks
  • Agitation
  • Rapid heart rate
  • Elevation in blood pressure
  • Headache
  • Sweating
  • Shivering
  • Goosebumps
  • Confusion
  • Fever
  • Seizures
  • Unconsciousness

These symptoms are critical for recognizing Serotonin Syndrome.

87
Q

What is the treatment for Serotonin Syndrome?

A

Discontinue the offending agent & administer Cyproheptadine

Cyproheptadine is an antihistamine that can help alleviate symptoms.

88
Q

What should be the waiting period when switching from an SSRI to an MAOI?

A

Two weeks

This waiting period helps prevent Serotonin Syndrome.

89
Q

What are the key similarities between Serotonin Syndrome and NMS?

A
  • Both present with fever
  • Both present with altered mental status

These similarities can complicate diagnosis.

90
Q

What characterizes Serotonin Syndrome?

A

Hyperreflexia and myoclonic jerks

These are distinguishing features that help differentiate it from NMS.

91
Q

What characterizes Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A

Muscle rigidity, mutism, autonomic instability

Recognizing these symptoms is essential for diagnosis.

92
Q

What mnemonic can help remember the symptoms of Serotonin Discontinuation Syndrome?

A

FANIMA - Fatigue, Achiness, Nausea, Impaired memory, Myalgia, Agitation

This acronym aids in recalling the symptoms.

93
Q

What are common symptoms of Serotonin Discontinuation Syndrome?

A
  • Fatigue and lethargy
  • Myalgia
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Ataxia
  • Impaired memory
  • Agitation

Recognizing these symptoms can help in the management of discontinuation syndrome.

94
Q

What is the recommended approach for discontinuing SSRIs, TCAs, or MAOIs?

A

Always taper (not tape)

Tapering helps minimize withdrawal symptoms and complications.

95
Q

What is the potential consequence of abrupt discontinuation of serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

A

Can lead to Serotonin Discontinuation Syndrome

Awareness of this risk is crucial for patient safety.

96
Q

How long can discontinuation symptoms last?

A

Several days to weeks

The duration depends on individual factors and the specific medication involved.

97
Q

What is a high-yield test-taking tip regarding SSRIs and St. John’s Wort?

A

Combining SSRIs with St. John’s Wort or using more than one SSRI can potentially lead to Serotonin Syndrome

This information is vital for safe medication management.

98
Q
Craniel Nerve Memorization
99
Q

What does the ‘F’ in the acronym ‘FLIPPER JW’ stand for?

A

Flexibility

100
Q

What does the ‘L’ represent in the acronym ‘FLIPPER JW’?

101
Q

What is indicated by the ‘I’ in ‘FLIPPER JW’?

102
Q

What does ‘P’ stand for in ‘FLIPPER JW’?

A

Planning / Personality

103
Q

What does the second ‘P’ in ‘FLIPPER JW’ refer to?

A

Prioritizing

104
Q

What is represented by the ‘E’ in ‘FLIPPER JW’?

A

Expressive Speech

105
Q

What does the ‘R’ in ‘FLIPPER JW’ stand for?

106
Q

What does ‘J’ indicate in the acronym ‘FLIPPER JW’?

107
Q

What does ‘W’ represent in ‘FLIPPER JW’?

A

Working Memory