Module 1: General Requirements Flashcards
1
Q
Irish Aviation Authority (IAA)
A
The safety regulator of the Irish civil aviation industry and is responsible for overseeing the safety standards of that industry.
2
Q
What does a person authorised by the IAA need to access operators for audits and inspections?
A
Air Operators Certificate [AOC] issued by IAA
3
Q
International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO)
A
As part of the Chicago Convention on December 7th 1944 broad international standards for the aviation were set
4
Q
Fields that ICAO set standards in
A
Licencing of personnel
Rule of the air
Aeronautical meteorology
Aeronautical charts
Operation of aircraft
Airworthiness
Dangerous goods
Search and rescue
Accident investigation
5
Q
ICAO is a division of the…
A
UN
6
Q
Where is ICAO headquartered
A
Montreal, CA
7
Q
International Air Transport Association (IATA)
A
Association of airlines set up to co-ordinate their activities in a number of fields, from the collection of revenue to the setting of standards and training
Sets standards in parallel of ICAO in fields such as dangerous goods, carriage of animals, and security
8
Q
What is the International Operational Safety Audit (IOSA) and who conducts it?
A
Safety inspection on the health of an air carrier’s operation
IATA
9
Q
European Aviation Safety Authority (EASA)
A
Promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation in Europe
10
Q
Responsibilities of national aviation authorities
A
Majority of operational tasks – such as certification of individual aircraft or licencing of pilots
11
Q
What is the national aviation authority of Ireland?
A
Irish Aviation Authority (IAA)
12
Q
What power do IAA inspectors have?
A
May board an aircraft at any time in order to undertake official duties and checks of the airline’s operations
13
Q
European Commission Safety Assessment of Foreign Aircraft [SAFA] Program
A
Regular inspections are conducted at airports of EU member states by officials from the relevant Civil Aviation Authority with the aim to assess the airworthiness and operational compliance of participating operators
14
Q
When do SAFA assessments take place?
A
Turnaround times
15
Q
What do SAFA assessments look at?
A
- Emergency Equipment
- Cabin Library
- AQTV Card
- Attestation of Initial safety Training
- Medical where carried
16
Q
Procedure for SAFA inspections
A
- Challenge for ID
- Inform the commander immediately: inspectors must first show their official identification documents to the Commander
- Welcome inspector on board
- Co-operate with and furnish any flight documentation the inspector requests
17
Q
Who delegates the Commander?
A
Director of Flight Operations
18
Q
What authority does the commander have?
A
Full authority to discharge all his statutory and company responsibilities for the operation, disposition and safety of the aircraft and the safety of all persons on board the aircraft during the period when he is in command
19
Q
How many cabin crew members needed?
A
1 for every 50 passengers or fraction of 50 passengers
20
Q
What is the max number of aircraft cabin crew can operate on?
A
3
21
Q
What 3 things distinguish variants on aircraft?
A
- Emergency exit operation
- Location and type of portable safety equipment
- Type specific emergency procedures
22
Q
Acclimatised
A
A state in which a crew member’s circadian biological clock is synchronised to the time zone where the crew member is
23
Q
Augmented flight crew
A
More crew than minimum needed so they can rest in-flight with a replacement
24
Q
Delayed reporting
A
The postponement of a scheduled flight duty period (FDP) by the airline before a crew member has left the place of rest
25
Disruptive schedule
A crew member’s roster which disrupts the sleep opportunity during the optimal sleep time window by comprising an FDP or a combination of FDPs which encroach, start or finish during any portion of the day or of the night where a crew member is acclimatised
26
Early start
A duty period starting in the period between 05:00 and 05:59 in the time zone to which a crew member is acclimatised
27
Late finish
A duty period finishing in the period between 23:00 and 01:59 in the time zone to which a crew member is acclimatised
28
Night duty
A duty period encroaching any portion of the period between 02:00 and 04:59 in the time zone to which the crew is acclimatised
29
Local day
24-hour period commencing at 00:00 local time
30
Local night
22:00 and 08:00 local time
31
Is a crew member an operating crew member during in-flight rest?
Yes
32
Positioning
The transferring of a non-operating crew member from one place to another, at the behest of the airline
33
Reserve
A period of time during which a crew member is required by the airline to be available to receive an assignment for an FDP, positioning or other duty notified at least 10 hours in advance
34
Rotation
A duty or a series of duties, including at least one flight duty, and rest periods out of home base, starting at home base and ending when returning to home base for a rest period where the airline is no longer responsible for the accommodation of the crew membe
35
Sector
The segment of an FDP between an aircraft first moving for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest after landing on the designated parking position
36
Window of Circadian Low (WOCL)
Period between 02:00 and 05:59 hours in the time zone to which a crew member is acclimatised.
37
What performance indicators does Aer Lingus look at to ensure rosters are appropriate?
* Frequency of use of Commanders Discretion on the extension of FDP or reduction of rest
* Frequency of use of reserve crew on the second part of a rostered crew pairing due to duty time concerns
* Frequency of changes to planned rosters due to duty time concerns
38
Where will reporting times for each flight be published?
AIMS/E-Crew system
39
Fatigue risk management principles that could be applied to the rostering of long night duties may include
- Avoiding long night duties after extended recovery rest periods
- Progressively delaying the rostered ending time of the FDPs preceding long night duties
- Starting a block of night duties with a shorter FDP
- Avoiding the sequence of early starts and long night duties.
40
What needs to be taken into account when looking at the maximum daily FDP with the use of extension due to in-flight rest (i.e. with in-flight rest)
- Number of sectors flown
- The minimum in-flight rest allocated to each crew member
- The type of in-flight rest facilities
- The augmentation of the basic flight crew
41
Class 1 rest facility
Bunk or other surface that reclines at least 80* back angle to the vertical, allowing for a flat or near flat sleeping position. Located separate from flight crew and passenger cabin. Light can be controlled. Isolated from noise/disturbance.
42
Class 2 rest facillity
Seat in cabin (separated from passengers by at least a curtain) that reclines at least 45* back angle to the vertical, has at least a pitch of 137.5cm, width of 50cm and provides leg and foot support. Some light, sound and disturbance mitigation.
43
Class 3 rest facility
A seat in cabin or crew compartment, reclines 40*, leg + foot support, away from passengers by at least a curtain, darkness and some sound miitigation
44
Extension of FDP with in-flight rest will comply with:
1. The FDP is limited to 3 sectors
2. The minimum in-flight rest period is a consecutive 90-minute period for each crew member and 2 consecutive hours for the flight crew members at control during landing
45
What phase of a flight should in flight rest be taken?
Cruise phase
46
Who allocates in-flight rest periods?
Captain
47
If there is an additional crew member in flight rest can be extended (true or false)
true
48
The minimum rest at destination is at least as long as __ or __ whichever is greater.
The preceding duty period or 14 hours
49
Suitable accomodation is provided for
A break of 6 hours or more OR a break that encroaches the window of circadian low (WOCL)
50
Can split duty and in-flight rest be combined?
no
51
The following factors should be taken into consideration in any decision regarding the utilization of commanders discretion
WOCL encroachment
Weather conditions
Complexity of the operation and/or airport environment
Aeroplane malfunctions or specifications
Flight with training or supervisory duties
Increase number of sectors
Circadian diruption
Individual conditions of crew members
52
Time spent on positoning is part of FDP (true or false)
true
53
Is a positioning flight counted as a sector?
no
54
Maximum duration of standby other than airport standby
16 hours
55
If on standby and no assignment
rest period
56
The combination of standby and FDP do not lead to more than __ hours awake time;
18
57
Aer Lingus monitors rotations and combinations of rotations in terms of their effect on crew member fatigue, and adapts the rosters as necessary
- Monitoring of Fatigue Reports
- Review of Fatigue Reports at the bi-monthly FSAG Meeting
- Monitoring of planned / rostered flight couplings
- Monitoring Crew Control weekly validation reports
- Monitoring use of commanders Discretion
58
The monitoring of combinations of rotations is conducted under the Aer Lingus management system
Analysis of new flight couplings / routes in relation to fatigue prior to rostering
Monitoring crew feedback and fatigue reports during operations
Review and tailoring of flight couplings and routes as necessary to address fatigue reports / issues
59
Who carries out alcohol test?
ramp inspector
60
Cut off point for alcohol beforre a flight
8 hours
61
No scuba diving __ hours before flying
24 hours
62
Can cabin crew donate blood?
no
63
How much cosmic radiation are cabin crew exposed to in 1 year?
1 msv
64
2 measures taken against cosmic radiation
* Assessment of the exposure of crew -> takes account of the assessed exposure when organising working schedules with a view to reducing the doses of highly exposed cabin crewmembers..
* Information available to all cabin crewmembers relating to the health risks that their work involves.
65
ABP
Able bodied persons
66
AFT
toward rear of aircraft
67
Jetway
airbridge
68
Airside
where boarding gates are
69
Air Operator CERTIFICATE [AOC]
A certificate authorising an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport operations
70
Apron
ramp
71
Banking
Having one wing of an aircraft higher than another while making a turn
72
Bulkhead
A partition wall inside an aircraft
73
CCI
cabin crew instruction - changes to safety and security policies
74
Cabin Crew Line Operations Bulletin (CCLOB)
Supporting and reinforcing safety & security policies and procedures
75
Captain
Senior flight crew member
76
Commander
The pilot designated by the operator to be in command of the aircraft
77
Cargo Manifest
A document recording details of cargo consigned to each destination of an aircraft
78
CIP
Commercially important passenger
79
Charter flight
A revenue flight, which is not operated on a regular, published schedule - may operate on or off regular flights
80
Cruise Relief Pilot
A flight crewmember that is assigned to perform pilot tasks during cruise flight to allow the pilot in command or a co-pilot obtain planned rest
81
Deadheading
Deadheading flights occur when the airline needs to move an aircraft and its crew from one location to another with no commercial passengers on board
82
Ditching
Emergency landing on water
83
Drag
The force hindering forward motion of an aircraft, directly opposing thrust
84
Drill
A sequence of actions, which must be strictly adhered to
85
EU-OPS
Legally binding regulations governing flight operations within EU member states
86
Exemption
A formal authorisation issued by the Authority providing relief from part or all of the provisions of EU-OPS. The authorisation may or may not be conditional
87
First officer
Co-pilot
88
FWD
Nose of the aircraft
89
Fuselage
External framework of an aircraft - area contained cabin and baggage hold
90
Galley
Kitchen area of aircraft
91
IATA
International Air Transport Association
92
Infant (INF)
0-24 months
93
Landing gear
The undercarriage [wheels] of an aircraft
94
Load control
That section of airline staff concerned with weight and balance of an aircraft
95
Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
A list prepared by the manufacturer, which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, as approved by the certification authorities
96
Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
A list prepared by the operator, which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, in conformity with, or more restrictive than the MMEL established for the aircraft type
97
Nominated person
Previously identified as Post Holder under EU-OPS
98
Nose wheel
That part of the undercarriage directly underneath the nose of the aircraft
99
Offload
Item or passenger removed from aircraft
100
Opening (OPE)
The name given to the open spaces where galley stores are loaded. Each OPE has a number so that catering supplies / stocks can be correctly loaded
101
PAX
Passenger
102
Passenger manifest
A document on which is recorded the name of all passengers on a flight
103
Dispatcher
Ramp agent
104
State of Regisry
The state on whose register the aircraft is entered
105
Sterile flight deck
Access to the flight deck restricted, access only authorised for essential safety related information
106
Thrust
driving power as associated with flight
107
TAN
Training academy notice
108
Taxiway
Connecting are between ramp and runway
109
ART
Annual Recurrent Training
110
DL
Deferred Defects List
111
DEST
Destination
112
DFO
Director of flight operations
113
DIFS
Director of in-flight operations
114
ETA
Estimated time of arrival
115
ETD
Estimated time of departure
116
ETOPS
Extended twin engline operations
117
EU-OPS
Regulations governing Flight Operations within EU member states
118
FAM
A Familiarisation flight is where a cabin crewmember operates additional to the operating crew
119
INCAD
Incapacitated Passenger Advice Form
120
MAASM
Meet & Assist
121
POS/PY
Positioning Crew
122
PA
Public Address - Announcements
123
PIL
Passenger Information List
124
PRM
Passenger with reduced mobility
125
RCCM
Restricted flying new entrant cabin crewmember
126
SCCM
Senior cabin crew member
127
SEP
Safety and Emergency Procedures
128
SOP
Standard Operating Procedures
129
SCP
Special category Passenger
130
SPML
Special Meal
131
STD/STA
Scheduled time of departure/arrival
132
SNY
Supernumeracy - Extra cabin crewmember
133
TECH (INOP)
Technically unserviceable
134
UC
Unaccompanied child
135
U/S
Unserviceable
136
WCHR
WCHS
WCHC
Disabled passenger with some impairment in mobility
Disabled passenger more heavily impaired in mobility
Disabled passenger unable to cover distances unassisted
137
WCHBW
Wheelchair with dry cell battery
138
WCBW
Wheelchair with wet cell battery
139
2 letter code for Ireland
EI
140
Where are the white tail lights?
AFT (back)
141
Where are the red wingtip tights?
LEFT
142
Where are the green wingtip lights?
Right
143
Engines are numbered from
Left (1) to right (2)
144
Rudder
Enables the aircraft to yaw, forcing the tail to move from left to right
145
Elevator
Move up and down to change the aircraft pitch attitude
146
Ailerons
roll the aircraft into bank angles to enable it to turn
147
Where are training edge flaps relative to leading edge flaps?
Leading: FWW
Training: AFT
148
Trailing and leading edge flaps
The flaps are used for takeoff and landing to increase lift, allowing the aircraft to fly at slower speeds
149
Spoilers
Reduce lift on both wings allowing the aircraft to descend faster without increasing airspeed
150
Speed brakes
Used on ground at touchdown to dramatically reduce the lift during landing
151
Initial climb
With a positive rate of climb the landing gear is selected up
A little later the flaps are selected up as the aircraft starts to accelerate to the higher speed.
A lower engine power [climb power] is selected at this time
152
Descent
Engine power is reduced to “flight idle” [a lower setting.]
Speed brakes may be selected to maintain descent rate without increasing speed (deploy on top of the wings and will cause a slight vibration)
153
Approach
Engine power will increase
Flaps selected out
Landing gear is selected down
154
Landing (on touchdown)
Speed brakes extend
Reverse engine power is selected [reverse thrust]
155
The pressurisation system will allow the aircraft cabin altitude to climb to a maximum equivalent altitude of about ___ feet
7000
156
Where does air enter?
Engine
157
What is done to the air after entering?
Air conditioned since it is hot from engine
158
What is done after air is cooled?
It is mixed with 50% cabin air to produce a 50/50 mix (mixing manifold)
159
What happens to the air after mixing
Circulates cabin and then 50% is disposed about 20-30 times an hour
160
Engines provide ___
thrust
161
Purpose of wing is to provide __
lift
162
Purpose of tail
provide directionality
163
___ provided by the wings, opposing and equal to the ____ of the aircraft
lift, weight
164
___ from the engines, opposing and equal to the ___ of the fuselage and wings
thrust, drag
165
Thrust
aircrafts propelling force
166
Lift
acts at right angle to the line of flight and through the centre of pressure on the wings
167
Weight - Gravity
acts vertically downward through the centre of gravity
168
Drag
Opposes forward motion - regarded as rearward acting force
169
4 forces of an aircraft
thrust drag weight@gravity lift
170
How does lift enable the aircraft to fly?
Once in motion, air passes over the top and bottom surfaces of the wings. Because the wings are curved structures, the resulting pressure will be greater along the bottom surface than the top surface. This resulting upward force is known as LIFT and enables the aircraft to fly.
171
What provides the aircraft thrust
engines
172
IN which layer of the atmosphere do aircraft operate
Stratosphere
173
In which layer of the atmosphere do we live
troposphre
174
Air temp ___ with altitude (increases or decreases)
decreases
175
How are clouds formed?
Air cooled -> water vapour condensed
176
What produces winds?
Differences in atmospheric pressure, which are primarily attributed to differences in temperature also described as the unequal heating of the earth
177
What makes wind strong?
The greater the difference in pressure between 2 adjacent regions - hot air rises and flows over the coldd air
178
Gale force wind
Strong winds associated with low pressure areas
179
Rime ice
Looks like frost but may be very thick. It has a rough, milkey white appearance
180
Clear/glazed ice
Like black ice, this is smooth and generally follows the contours of the surface closely, although it can for ridges after further accumulation
181
Mixed ice
Rime + Clear/glazed
182
Causes of turbulence
Clouds
Thunderstorms
Wind
Thunderclouds (often contrain ice crystals)
Jet stream
Objects near plane e.g. mountains
183
Light turbulence
1 metre rise/drop
184
Moderate turbulence
3-6 metre rise/drop
185
Severe turbulence
30 metre rise/drop
186
Clear air turbulence
Associated with fast moving bands of air or “Jet Streams” which occur as part of the global weather environment and with ‘Weather Fronts’
187
Wake turbulence
Experienced when an aircraft passes through the wake of an aircraft flying in front. ATC will regulate the separation distances between aircraft, but on occasions wake turbulence may occur and will result in the aircraft rolling quickly before returning to level flight
188
Windshear
Occurs when there is a sudden change of wind direction and or speed
Headwind Tailwind Downdraft
189
Headwind
Wind thrusting at FWD of aircraft
190
Tailwind
Wind thrusting at AFT of aircraft
191
Downdraft
Win thrusting plane do
192
Hazards of thunderstorms
Severe turbulence
Lightning strikes
Severe icing
Windshear
193
What happens when a plane is struck by lightning?
Outer case acts as a conductor for electricity to pass through
Usually hits wing tip and exit from tail
194
2 ways volcanic ash affects aircraft
1. Enters engine
2. Lowers visibility
195
What causes jet lag
Trans meridian transitions
196
Who audits the IAA
Department of Transport
197
Who is responsible for Aviation Security Law?
IAA - Department of Transport
198
Audit
Company is informed prior of when, where and what will be inspected
199
Inspection
Company doesn't know - surprise inspection
200
When does CCTO expire
24 months since last flight
201
What to do if attestation is lost or stolen
Report to training academy and gardaí
202
What does the training academy do if your attestation is lost
Apply for it to be reissued - 72 hours approx
203
FTL
flight and duty time limitations
204
Aviation accident
Person is fatally or seriously injured
Aircraft missing
Aircraft sustains damage or structural failure
205
Aviation incident
Occurence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft that affects or could affect the safety of the operation
