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CCTO > Module 1: General Requirements > Flashcards

Module 1: General Requirements Flashcards

1
Q

Irish Aviation Authority (IAA)

A

The safety regulator of the Irish civil aviation industry and is responsible for overseeing the safety standards of that industry.

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2
Q

What does a person authorised by the IAA need to access operators for audits and inspections?

A

Air Operators Certificate [AOC] issued by IAA

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3
Q

International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO)

A

As part of the Chicago Convention on December 7th 1944 broad international standards for the aviation were set

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4
Q

Fields that ICAO set standards in

A

Licencing of personnel
Rule of the air
Aeronautical meteorology
Aeronautical charts
Operation of aircraft
Airworthiness
Dangerous goods
Search and rescue
Accident investigation

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5
Q

ICAO is a division of the…

A

UN

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6
Q

Where is ICAO headquartered

A

Montreal, CA

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7
Q

International Air Transport Association (IATA)

A

Association of airlines set up to co-ordinate their activities in a number of fields, from the collection of revenue to the setting of standards and training

Sets standards in parallel of ICAO in fields such as dangerous goods, carriage of animals, and security

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8
Q

What is the International Operational Safety Audit (IOSA) and who conducts it?

A

Safety inspection on the health of an air carrier’s operation

IATA

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9
Q

European Aviation Safety Authority (EASA)

A

Promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation in Europe

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10
Q

Responsibilities of national aviation authorities

A

Majority of operational tasks – such as certification of individual aircraft or licencing of pilots

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11
Q

What is the national aviation authority of Ireland?

A

Irish Aviation Authority (IAA)

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12
Q

What power do IAA inspectors have?

A

May board an aircraft at any time in order to undertake official duties and checks of the airline’s operations

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13
Q

European Commission Safety Assessment of Foreign Aircraft [SAFA] Program

A

Regular inspections are conducted at airports of EU member states by officials from the relevant Civil Aviation Authority with the aim to assess the airworthiness and operational compliance of participating operators

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14
Q

When do SAFA assessments take place?

A

Turnaround times

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15
Q

What do SAFA assessments look at?

A
  • Emergency Equipment
  • Cabin Library
  • AQTV Card
  • Attestation of Initial safety Training
  • Medical where carried
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16
Q

Procedure for SAFA inspections

A
  1. Challenge for ID
  2. Inform the commander immediately: inspectors must first show their official identification documents to the Commander
  3. Welcome inspector on board
  4. Co-operate with and furnish any flight documentation the inspector requests
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17
Q

Who delegates the Commander?

A

Director of Flight Operations

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18
Q

What authority does the commander have?

A

Full authority to discharge all his statutory and company responsibilities for the operation, disposition and safety of the aircraft and the safety of all persons on board the aircraft during the period when he is in command

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19
Q

How many cabin crew members needed?

A

1 for every 50 passengers or fraction of 50 passengers

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20
Q

What is the max number of aircraft cabin crew can operate on?

A

3

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21
Q

What 3 things distinguish variants on aircraft?

A
  • Emergency exit operation
  • Location and type of portable safety equipment
  • Type specific emergency procedures
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22
Q

Acclimatised

A

A state in which a crew member’s circadian biological clock is synchronised to the time zone where the crew member is

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23
Q

Augmented flight crew

A

More crew than minimum needed so they can rest in-flight with a replacement

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24
Q

Delayed reporting

A

The postponement of a scheduled flight duty period (FDP) by the airline before a crew member has left the place of rest

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25
Q

Disruptive schedule

A

A crew member’s roster which disrupts the sleep opportunity during the optimal sleep time window by comprising an FDP or a combination of FDPs which encroach, start or finish during any portion of the day or of the night where a crew member is acclimatised

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26
Q

Early start

A

A duty period starting in the period between 05:00 and 05:59 in the time zone to which a crew member is acclimatised

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27
Q

Late finish

A

A duty period finishing in the period between 23:00 and 01:59 in the time zone to which a crew member is acclimatised

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28
Q

Night duty

A

A duty period encroaching any portion of the period between 02:00 and 04:59 in the time zone to which the crew is acclimatised

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29
Q

Local day

A

24-hour period commencing at 00:00 local time

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30
Q

Local night

A

22:00 and 08:00 local time

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31
Q

Is a crew member an operating crew member during in-flight rest?

A

Yes

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32
Q

Positioning

A

The transferring of a non-operating crew member from one place to another, at the behest of the airline

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33
Q

Reserve

A

A period of time during which a crew member is required by the airline to be available to receive an assignment for an FDP, positioning or other duty notified at least 10 hours in advance

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34
Q

Rotation

A

A duty or a series of duties, including at least one flight duty, and rest periods out of home base, starting at home base and ending when returning to home base for a rest period where the airline is no longer responsible for the accommodation of the crew membe

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35
Q

Sector

A

The segment of an FDP between an aircraft first moving for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest after landing on the designated parking position

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36
Q

Window of Circadian Low (WOCL)

A

Period between 02:00 and 05:59 hours in the time zone to which a crew member is acclimatised.

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37
Q

What performance indicators does Aer Lingus look at to ensure rosters are appropriate?

A
  • Frequency of use of Commanders Discretion on the extension of FDP or reduction of rest
  • Frequency of use of reserve crew on the second part of a rostered crew pairing due to duty time concerns
  • Frequency of changes to planned rosters due to duty time concerns
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38
Q

Where will reporting times for each flight be published?

A

AIMS/E-Crew system

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39
Q

Fatigue risk management principles that could be applied to the rostering of long night duties may include

A
  • Avoiding long night duties after extended recovery rest periods
  • Progressively delaying the rostered ending time of the FDPs preceding long night duties
  • Starting a block of night duties with a shorter FDP
  • Avoiding the sequence of early starts and long night duties.
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40
Q

What needs to be taken into account when looking at the maximum daily FDP with the use of extension due to in-flight rest (i.e. with in-flight rest)

A
  • Number of sectors flown
  • The minimum in-flight rest allocated to each crew member
  • The type of in-flight rest facilities
  • The augmentation of the basic flight crew
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41
Q

Class 1 rest facility

A

Bunk or other surface that reclines at least 80* back angle to the vertical, allowing for a flat or near flat sleeping position. Located separate from flight crew and passenger cabin. Light can be controlled. Isolated from noise/disturbance.

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42
Q

Class 2 rest facillity

A

Seat in cabin (separated from passengers by at least a curtain) that reclines at least 45* back angle to the vertical, has at least a pitch of 137.5cm, width of 50cm and provides leg and foot support. Some light, sound and disturbance mitigation.

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43
Q

Class 3 rest facility

A

A seat in cabin or crew compartment, reclines 40*, leg + foot support, away from passengers by at least a curtain, darkness and some sound miitigation

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44
Q

Extension of FDP with in-flight rest will comply with:

A
  1. The FDP is limited to 3 sectors
  2. The minimum in-flight rest period is a consecutive 90-minute period for each crew member and 2 consecutive hours for the flight crew members at control during landing
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45
Q

What phase of a flight should in flight rest be taken?

A

Cruise phase

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46
Q

Who allocates in-flight rest periods?

A

Captain

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47
Q

If there is an additional crew member in flight rest can be extended (true or false)

A

true

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48
Q

The minimum rest at destination is at least as long as __ or __ whichever is greater.

A

The preceding duty period or 14 hours

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49
Q

Suitable accomodation is provided for

A

A break of 6 hours or more OR a break that encroaches the window of circadian low (WOCL)

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50
Q

Can split duty and in-flight rest be combined?

A

no

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51
Q

The following factors should be taken into consideration in any decision regarding the utilization of commanders discretion

A

WOCL encroachment
Weather conditions
Complexity of the operation and/or airport environment
Aeroplane malfunctions or specifications
Flight with training or supervisory duties
Increase number of sectors
Circadian diruption
Individual conditions of crew members

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52
Q

Time spent on positoning is part of FDP (true or false)

A

true

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53
Q

Is a positioning flight counted as a sector?

A

no

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54
Q

Maximum duration of standby other than airport standby

A

16 hours

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55
Q

If on standby and no assignment

A

rest period

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56
Q

The combination of standby and FDP do not lead to more than __ hours awake time;

A

18

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57
Q

Aer Lingus monitors rotations and combinations of rotations in terms of their effect on crew member fatigue, and adapts the rosters as necessary

A
  • Monitoring of Fatigue Reports
  • Review of Fatigue Reports at the bi-monthly FSAG Meeting
  • Monitoring of planned / rostered flight couplings
  • Monitoring Crew Control weekly validation reports
  • Monitoring use of commanders Discretion
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58
Q

The monitoring of combinations of rotations is conducted under the Aer Lingus management system

A

Analysis of new flight couplings / routes in relation to fatigue prior to rostering
Monitoring crew feedback and fatigue reports during operations
Review and tailoring of flight couplings and routes as necessary to address fatigue reports / issues

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59
Q

Who carries out alcohol test?

A

ramp inspector

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60
Q

Cut off point for alcohol beforre a flight

A

8 hours

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61
Q

No scuba diving __ hours before flying

A

24 hours

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62
Q

Can cabin crew donate blood?

A

no

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63
Q

How much cosmic radiation are cabin crew exposed to in 1 year?

A

1 msv

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64
Q

2 measures taken against cosmic radiation

A
  • Assessment of the exposure of crew -> takes account of the assessed exposure when organising working schedules with a view to reducing the doses of highly exposed cabin crewmembers..
  • Information available to all cabin crewmembers relating to the health risks that their work involves.
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65
Q

ABP

A

Able bodied persons

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66
Q

AFT

A

toward rear of aircraft

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67
Q

Jetway

A

airbridge

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68
Q

Airside

A

where boarding gates are

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69
Q

Air Operator CERTIFICATE [AOC]

A

A certificate authorising an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport operations

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70
Q

Apron

A

ramp

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71
Q

Banking

A

Having one wing of an aircraft higher than another while making a turn

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72
Q

Bulkhead

A

A partition wall inside an aircraft

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73
Q

CCI

A

cabin crew instruction - changes to safety and security policies

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74
Q

Cabin Crew Line Operations Bulletin (CCLOB)

A

Supporting and reinforcing safety & security policies and procedures

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75
Q

Captain

A

Senior flight crew member

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76
Q

Commander

A

The pilot designated by the operator to be in command of the aircraft

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77
Q

Cargo Manifest

A

A document recording details of cargo consigned to each destination of an aircraft

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78
Q

CIP

A

Commercially important passenger

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79
Q

Charter flight

A

A revenue flight, which is not operated on a regular, published schedule - may operate on or off regular flights

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80
Q

Cruise Relief Pilot

A

A flight crewmember that is assigned to perform pilot tasks during cruise flight to allow the pilot in command or a co-pilot obtain planned rest

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81
Q

Deadheading

A

Deadheading flights occur when the airline needs to move an aircraft and its crew from one location to another with no commercial passengers on board

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82
Q

Ditching

A

Emergency landing on water

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83
Q

Drag

A

The force hindering forward motion of an aircraft, directly opposing thrust

84
Q

Drill

A

A sequence of actions, which must be strictly adhered to

85
Q

EU-OPS

A

Legally binding regulations governing flight operations within EU member states

86
Q

Exemption

A

A formal authorisation issued by the Authority providing relief from part or all of the provisions of EU-OPS. The authorisation may or may not be conditional

87
Q

First officer

A

Co-pilot

88
Q

FWD

A

Nose of the aircraft

89
Q

Fuselage

A

External framework of an aircraft - area contained cabin and baggage hold

90
Q

Galley

A

Kitchen area of aircraft

91
Q

IATA

A

International Air Transport Association

92
Q

Infant (INF)

A

0-24 months

93
Q

Landing gear

A

The undercarriage [wheels] of an aircraft

94
Q

Load control

A

That section of airline staff concerned with weight and balance of an aircraft

95
Q

Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

A

A list prepared by the manufacturer, which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, as approved by the certification authorities

96
Q

Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

A

A list prepared by the operator, which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, in conformity with, or more restrictive than the MMEL established for the aircraft type

97
Q

Nominated person

A

Previously identified as Post Holder under EU-OPS

98
Q

Nose wheel

A

That part of the undercarriage directly underneath the nose of the aircraft

99
Q

Offload

A

Item or passenger removed from aircraft

100
Q

Opening (OPE)

A

The name given to the open spaces where galley stores are loaded. Each OPE has a number so that catering supplies / stocks can be correctly loaded

101
Q

PAX

A

Passenger

102
Q

Passenger manifest

A

A document on which is recorded the name of all passengers on a flight

103
Q

Dispatcher

A

Ramp agent

104
Q

State of Regisry

A

The state on whose register the aircraft is entered

105
Q

Sterile flight deck

A

Access to the flight deck restricted, access only authorised for essential safety related information

106
Q

Thrust

A

driving power as associated with flight

107
Q

TAN

A

Training academy notice

108
Q

Taxiway

A

Connecting are between ramp and runway

109
Q

ART

A

Annual Recurrent Training

110
Q

DL

A

Deferred Defects List

111
Q

DEST

A

Destination

112
Q

DFO

A

Director of flight operations

113
Q

DIFS

A

Director of in-flight operations

114
Q

ETA

A

Estimated time of arrival

115
Q

ETD

A

Estimated time of departure

116
Q

ETOPS

A

Extended twin engline operations

117
Q

EU-OPS

A

Regulations governing Flight Operations within EU member states

118
Q

FAM

A

A Familiarisation flight is where a cabin crewmember operates additional to the operating crew

119
Q

INCAD

A

Incapacitated Passenger Advice Form

120
Q

MAASM

A

Meet & Assist

121
Q

POS/PY

A

Positioning Crew

122
Q

PA

A

Public Address - Announcements

123
Q

PIL

A

Passenger Information List

124
Q

PRM

A

Passenger with reduced mobility

125
Q

RCCM

A

Restricted flying new entrant cabin crewmember

126
Q

SCCM

A

Senior cabin crew member

127
Q

SEP

A

Safety and Emergency Procedures

128
Q

SOP

A

Standard Operating Procedures

129
Q

SCP

A

Special category Passenger

130
Q

SPML

A

Special Meal

131
Q

STD/STA

A

Scheduled time of departure/arrival

132
Q

SNY

A

Supernumeracy - Extra cabin crewmember

133
Q

TECH (INOP)

A

Technically unserviceable

134
Q

UC

A

Unaccompanied child

135
Q

U/S

A

Unserviceable

136
Q

WCHR

WCHS

WCHC

A

Disabled passenger with some impairment in mobility

Disabled passenger more heavily impaired in mobility

Disabled passenger unable to cover distances unassisted

137
Q

WCHBW

A

Wheelchair with dry cell battery

138
Q

WCBW

A

Wheelchair with wet cell battery

139
Q

2 letter code for Ireland

A

EI

140
Q

Where are the white tail lights?

A

AFT (back)

141
Q

Where are the red wingtip tights?

A

LEFT

142
Q

Where are the green wingtip lights?

A

Right

143
Q

Engines are numbered from

A

Left (1) to right (2)

144
Q

Rudder

A

Enables the aircraft to yaw, forcing the tail to move from left to right

145
Q

Elevator

A

Move up and down to change the aircraft pitch attitude

146
Q

Ailerons

A

roll the aircraft into bank angles to enable it to turn

147
Q

Where are training edge flaps relative to leading edge flaps?

A

Leading: FWW
Training: AFT

148
Q

Trailing and leading edge flaps

A

The flaps are used for takeoff and landing to increase lift, allowing the aircraft to fly at slower speeds

149
Q

Spoilers

A

Reduce lift on both wings allowing the aircraft to descend faster without increasing airspeed

150
Q

Speed brakes

A

Used on ground at touchdown to dramatically reduce the lift during landing

151
Q

Initial climb

A

With a positive rate of climb the landing gear is selected up

A little later the flaps are selected up as the aircraft starts to accelerate to the higher speed.

A lower engine power [climb power] is selected at this time

152
Q

Descent

A

Engine power is reduced to “flight idle” [a lower setting.]

Speed brakes may be selected to maintain descent rate without increasing speed (deploy on top of the wings and will cause a slight vibration)

153
Q

Approach

A

Engine power will increase

Flaps selected out

Landing gear is selected down

154
Q

Landing (on touchdown)

A

Speed brakes extend

Reverse engine power is selected [reverse thrust]

155
Q

The pressurisation system will allow the aircraft cabin altitude to climb to a maximum equivalent altitude of about ___ feet

A

7000

156
Q

Where does air enter?

A

Engine

157
Q

What is done to the air after entering?

A

Air conditioned since it is hot from engine

158
Q

What is done after air is cooled?

A

It is mixed with 50% cabin air to produce a 50/50 mix (mixing manifold)

159
Q

What happens to the air after mixing

A

Circulates cabin and then 50% is disposed about 20-30 times an hour

160
Q

Engines provide ___

A

thrust

161
Q

Purpose of wing is to provide __

A

lift

162
Q

Purpose of tail

A

provide directionality

163
Q

___ provided by the wings, opposing and equal to the ____ of the aircraft

A

lift, weight

164
Q

___ from the engines, opposing and equal to the ___ of the fuselage and wings

A

thrust, drag

165
Q

Thrust

A

aircrafts propelling force

166
Q

Lift

A

acts at right angle to the line of flight and through the centre of pressure on the wings

167
Q

Weight - Gravity

A

acts vertically downward through the centre of gravity

168
Q

Drag

A

Opposes forward motion - regarded as rearward acting force

169
Q

4 forces of an aircraft

A

thrust drag weight@gravity lift

170
Q

How does lift enable the aircraft to fly?

A

Once in motion, air passes over the top and bottom surfaces of the wings. Because the wings are curved structures, the resulting pressure will be greater along the bottom surface than the top surface. This resulting upward force is known as LIFT and enables the aircraft to fly.

171
Q

What provides the aircraft thrust

A

engines

172
Q

IN which layer of the atmosphere do aircraft operate

A

Stratosphere

173
Q

In which layer of the atmosphere do we live

A

troposphre

174
Q

Air temp ___ with altitude (increases or decreases)

A

decreases

175
Q

How are clouds formed?

A

Air cooled -> water vapour condensed

176
Q

What produces winds?

A

Differences in atmospheric pressure, which are primarily attributed to differences in temperature also described as the unequal heating of the earth

177
Q

What makes wind strong?

A

The greater the difference in pressure between 2 adjacent regions - hot air rises and flows over the coldd air

178
Q

Gale force wind

A

Strong winds associated with low pressure areas

179
Q

Rime ice

A

Looks like frost but may be very thick. It has a rough, milkey white appearance

180
Q

Clear/glazed ice

A

Like black ice, this is smooth and generally follows the contours of the surface closely, although it can for ridges after further accumulation

181
Q

Mixed ice

A

Rime + Clear/glazed

182
Q

Causes of turbulence

A

Clouds
Thunderstorms
Wind
Thunderclouds (often contrain ice crystals)
Jet stream
Objects near plane e.g. mountains

183
Q

Light turbulence

A

1 metre rise/drop

184
Q

Moderate turbulence

A

3-6 metre rise/drop

185
Q

Severe turbulence

A

30 metre rise/drop

186
Q

Clear air turbulence

A

Associated with fast moving bands of air or “Jet Streams” which occur as part of the global weather environment and with ‘Weather Fronts’

187
Q

Wake turbulence

A

Experienced when an aircraft passes through the wake of an aircraft flying in front. ATC will regulate the separation distances between aircraft, but on occasions wake turbulence may occur and will result in the aircraft rolling quickly before returning to level flight

188
Q

Windshear

A

Occurs when there is a sudden change of wind direction and or speed

Headwind Tailwind Downdraft

189
Q

Headwind

A

Wind thrusting at FWD of aircraft

190
Q

Tailwind

A

Wind thrusting at AFT of aircraft

191
Q

Downdraft

A

Win thrusting plane do

192
Q

Hazards of thunderstorms

A

Severe turbulence
Lightning strikes
Severe icing
Windshear

193
Q

What happens when a plane is struck by lightning?

A

Outer case acts as a conductor for electricity to pass through

Usually hits wing tip and exit from tail

194
Q

2 ways volcanic ash affects aircraft

A
  1. Enters engine
  2. Lowers visibility
195
Q

What causes jet lag

A

Trans meridian transitions

196
Q

Who audits the IAA

A

Department of Transport

197
Q

Who is responsible for Aviation Security Law?

A

IAA - Department of Transport

198
Q

Audit

A

Company is informed prior of when, where and what will be inspected

199
Q

Inspection

A

Company doesn’t know - surprise inspection

200
Q

When does CCTO expire

A

24 months since last flight

201
Q

What to do if attestation is lost or stolen

A

Report to training academy and gardaí

202
Q

What does the training academy do if your attestation is lost

A

Apply for it to be reissued - 72 hours approx

203
Q

FTL

A

flight and duty time limitations

204
Q

Aviation accident

A

Person is fatally or seriously injured
Aircraft missing
Aircraft sustains damage or structural failure

205
Q

Aviation incident

A

Occurence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft that affects or could affect the safety of the operation

CCTO (8 decks)

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