module 1

Question 1

Which of the following qualities or processes is NOT associated with living things?
a. Adaptations in individuals over their lifetimes
b. Cells and genetic information
c. Requirement for a source of energy
d. Responding to changes in the environment
e. Imperfect reproduction

Answer 1

Adaptations in individuals over their lifetimes

Question 2

Which of the following is alive?
a. Human immunodeficiency virus
b. An antibiotic-resistance gene found in bacteria
c. A human skin cell
d. An infectious protein (prion) responsible for mad cow disease
e. None of the above are alive

Answer 2

c. A human skin cell

Question 3

Which of the following statements is correct?
a. natural selection increases the likelihood that a favorable mutation will occur
b. populations retain mutations in anticipation of future environmental changes
c. mutations are induced by environmental changes to promote species adaptation
d. all of these are correct statements
e. none of the above are correct statements

Answer 3

e. none of the above are correct statements

Question 4

Evolution does NOT require:
a. Heritable variation in the population
b. At least two generations of an organism
c. Selection or genetic drift to change allele frequencies
d. Differences in reproductive potential
e. All of the above are required for evolution

Answer 4

Differences in reproductive potential

Question 5

Which of the following is a biologically accurate statement?
a. Vertebrates evolved eyes in order to see
b. Once aquatic life invaded land, organisms were forced to evolve mechanisms of support and
locomotion in order to survive
c. Widespread use of pesticides against mosquitoes results in death of non-resistant individuals; as
a result, many mosquito populations are comprised mostly of pesticide-resistant individuals
d. Frequent use of antibiotics puts pressure on infectious bacteria to evolve antibiotic resistance; as
a result, many bacteria are resistant to widely-used antibiotics
e. All of the above are biologically accurate statements

Answer 5

Widespread use of pesticides against mosquitoes results in death of non-resistant individuals; as
a result, many mosquito populations are comprised mostly of pesticide-resistant individuals

Question 6

The process of evolution by natural selection leads to populations which are well-adapted to their
environment. However, populations almost always have detrimental alleles within the gene pool. Which of
the following is NOT a reason such harmful alleles are present in populations?
a. Harmful alleles may be useful in the future, and so they are maintained in the population in
anticipation of possible change
b. Harmful alleles may not affect fitness, because they affect individuals after those individuals
have already reproduced
c. Harmful alleles may be beneficial in certain environments or other specific circumstances
d. Harmful alleles are created due to mutation with each new generation
e. Each of these is a reason harmful alleles are present in populations

Answer 6

Harmful alleles may be useful in the future, and so they are maintained in the population in
anticipation of possible change

Question 7

Male red deer compete for the largest and best mating territories. Large males with large antlers are better at
defending the larger, high-quality territories, and females prefer to mate with large males. What features is
most important in assessing fitness in male red deer?
a. Body and antler size
b. Territory quality and size
c. Number of females receptive to mating
d. Number of actual matings with females
e. Number of offspring surviving to adulthood

Answer 7

e. Number of offspring surviving to adulthood

Question 8

An isolated population of prairie dogs has longer than average teeth. As a result they can eat more grass with
less effort and are better able to survive and reproduce. The mutation(s) that resulted in longer teeth:
a. allowed the teeth to grow longer over several generations until they reached an optimal length
for eating grass.
b. arose in many members of the population simultaneously and then lead to longer teeth.
c. happened as a result of chance within the prarie dog population and then lead to longer teeth.
d. occurred because the prairie dogs needed to be more efficient at eating grass to
survive and reproduce.
e. would only occur in a prairie dog population that eats grass and would not occur in a
population that lives on seeds.

Answer 8

c. happened as a result of chance within the prarie dog population and then lead to longer teeth.

Question 9

Fish stocks of many species have decreased over the last several centuries as humans have preferentially
harvested the largest and most reproductively successful individuals in the population. Many fish
populations now exhibit earlier sexual maturity where younger and smaller individuals are capable of
reproducing compared to populations two hundred years ago.
In regard to body size at sexual maturity, the situation described above is an example of:
a. Introduction of a new allele due to mutation or gene flow
b. A change in the frequency of an existing allele due to genetic drift
c. A change in the frequency of an existing allele due to directional selection
d. A change in the frequency of an existing allele due to disruptive selection
e. None of the above are accurate descriptions of this situation

Answer 9

c. A change in the frequency of an existing allele due to directional selection

Question 10

Which of the following is a key difference between genetic drift and natural selection?
a. Drift increases frequencies of the most common alleles; selection increases frequencies of the
rarest alleles
b. Drift occurs in the absence of natural selection; selection occurs in the absence of drift
c. Drift increases frequencies of alleles associated with lower fitness; selection increases
frequencies of alleles associated with higher fitness
d. Drift alters frequencies of alleles at random; selection increases frequencies of alleles associated
with higher fitness

Answer 10

d. Drift alters frequencies of alleles at random; selection increases frequencies of alleles associated
with higher fitness

Question 11

Two populations exist in different geographical locations with very different environmental conditions. Gene
flow between these two different populations would:
a. Increase the likelihood of the populations diverging into two separate species
b. Decrease the adaptation of each population to its local environment
c. Alter allele frequencies in the populations due to chance alone
d. Decrease the genetic diversity in each population
e. All of the above are likely outcomes of gene flow between these populations

Answer 11

b. Decrease the adaptation of each population to its local environment

Question 12

A mosquito population has a gene with two alleles, M1 and M2. If 70% of the gametes produced in the
population carry the M2 allele, and the population is not evolving, what proportion of the offspring
mosquitoes will be heterozygous at this gene locus?
a. 0.70
b. 0.49
c. 0.42
d. 0.21
e. 0.30

Answer 12

c. 0.42

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. No mutation is occurring
b. No natural selection is occurring
c. Individuals mate randomly
d. Population size is fixed
e. No migration

Answer 13

d. Population size is fixed

Question 14

In a particular species of bird, song volume is controlled by one gene with 2 alleles. Population A has 250
loud singers, 500 medium singers, and 250 soft singers. Population B has 100 loud singers, 800 medium
singers, and 100 soft singers. Medium singers are heterozygous.
Assuming expected genotype frequencies given by Hardy-Weinberg equations, which population is in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with regard to the singing volume gene?
a. A
b. B
c. Both
d. Neither
e. It cannot be determined from the information provided

Answer 14

a. A

Question 15

Red bottoms, a homozygous recessive condition, make up 36% of the bear population. The rest
have ‘normal’ bottoms. Using this information, calculate the frequency of the homozygous
dominant and heterozygous genotypes out of 100 individuals.
a. 36; 48
b. 48; 16
c. 36; 16
d. 16; 48
e. 16; 36

Answer 15

d. 16; 48

Question 16

A key feature of a species defined by the ecological species concept is:
a. Reproductive isolation
b. Niche specialization
c. Morphological distinction
d. A and B
e. A and C

Answer 16

b. Niche specialization

Question 17

Speciation that occurs when a sexually reproducing population is not separated by a geographical barrier is:
a. Gametic
b. Sympatric
c. Allopatric
d. Prezygotic
e. Postzygotic

Answer 17

b. Sympatric

Question 18

Females in a population prefer either full facial hair (full beard) or no facial hair (clean-shaven), but do not
like partial facial hair (stubble, goatees, mustaches, etc.). What type of selection does this represent?
a. Stabilizing
b. Directional toward beards
c. Directional toward clean-shaven
d. Disruptive
e. Balancing

Answer 18

d. Disruptive

Question 19

Silver beam fish and Common beam fish are capable of producing hybrid offspring, but the hybrid offspring
are sterile. This is an example of:
a. Postzygotic isolation
b. Prezygotic isolation
c. Gametic isolation
d. Mechanical isolation
e. Behavioral isolation

Answer 19

a. Postzygotic isolation

Question 20

Two frog populations exist in the same geographic area. Both populations look very similar physically and
breed in shallow water, but they are not observed to interbreed in the wild. One population feeds in static
pond shallows, while the other feeds in the shallows of rapidly-moving streams. The males in each
population make similar mating calls. What type(s) of reproductive isolation is/are likely in effect in the two
populations?
a. Temporal
b. Mechanical
c. Habitat
d. Behavioral

Answer 20

c. Habitat

Question 21

21. Prokaryotes include bacteria and archaea. Given the tree above, why does the term ʹprokaryoteʹ refer to a
    paraphyletic group?
    a. it defines a group based on a synapomorphy, not an adaptation
    b. it includes two groups that do not have a common ancestor
    c. it excludes one of the descendants of the common ancestor
    d. it includes only single-celled organisms
    e. none of the above

Answer 21

c. it excludes one of the descendants of the common ancestor

Question 22

A phylogenetic tree:
a. Is a visual representation of relationships between species
b. Represents a hypothesis to describe relationships between species
c. Can incorporate both genetic and morphological data
d. Includes an ancestor and its descendants
e. All of the above

Answer 22

e. All of the above

Question 23

In the eukaryotic tree of life, three extant (living) lineages include plants, animals, and fungi. Which of the
following accurately represents the relationship between these extant lineages where fungi and animals are
more closely related to each other than either is to plants?
| ——- B
A -
| C
|[ D
a. A=plants; C=fungi; B=animals
b. B=fungi; C=animals; D=plants
c. B=plants; C= fungi, D= animals
d. A=fungi; B=plants; C=animals
e. none of the above

Answer 23

c. B=plants; C= fungi, D= animals

Question 24

If the half-life of carbon-14 is approximately 5000 years old, then approximately how many years old is a
fossil containing 1/8th of today’s proportions of carbon-14 to carbon-12?
a. 8,000
b. 15,000
c. 20,000
d. 40,000
e. Cannot be determined from the information provided

Answer 24

b. 15,000

Question 25

Assuming the fundamentals of stratigraphy and a perfect fossil record, if we were to extract a column of
rock, which which of the following organisms would be found in the deepest layer?
a. Single-cell Prokaryotes
b. Single-cell Eukaryotes
c. Ancient Plants
d. Ancient Insects
e. Land Dinosaurs

Answer 25

a. Single-cell Prokaryotes

Question 26

Which of the following is TRUE of oxygen in early Earth history?
a. It was initially created by the photosynthetic activity of chloroplasts in plants
b. It was an important requirement for the origin of life
c. Its accumulation over time is evidenced by banded iron formations in ancient rock
d. It occurred following the appearance of eukaryotes in the fossil record
e. None of the above are true

Answer 26

c. Its accumulation over time is evidenced by banded iron formations in ancient rock

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT true of mass extinctions?
a. Mass extinctions often open previously-occupied niches and facilitate adaptive radiations
b. Mass extinctions typically remove only the species that are least-well adapted
c. Mass extinctions occur when species become extinct at a much faster rate than normal
d. Mass extinctions have occurred multiple times throughout Earth’s history
e. None of the above are true of mass extinctions

Answer 27

b. Mass extinctions typically remove only the species that are least-well adapted

Question 28

Which of the following coincided with the mass extinction of the dinosaurs?
a. The Cambrian explosion
b. The end of the Permian
c. The impact of a large meteor
d. Oxygenation of the Earth
e. None of these

Answer 28

c. The impact of a large meteor

Question 29

Which of the following is the correct sequence of these events in the RNA-World hypothesis for the origin
of life?
I. formation of protocells with self-replicating RNA molecules
II. synthesis of organic monomers such as amino acids and nucleotides
III. synthesis of organic polymers such as polypeptides and nucleic acids
IV. formation of DNA-based genetic systems
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III, II, IV
c. III, II, I, IV
d. IV, III, I, II
e. II, III, I, IV

Answer 29

e. II, III, I, IV

Question 30

Why is RNA a promising candidate for the first hereditary molecule in the origin of life on Earth?
a. RNA molecules are more chemically stable than DNA molecules so they are more resistant to
breakage and damage than DNA molecules.
b. RNA molecules usually have two complementary strands, so hereditary information can be
recovered from either strand.
c. RNA molecules can both carry genetic information and have catalytic activity, so may be able to
replicate each other without proteins
d. RNA molecules use different base pairs than DNA, and those bases are much easier to make

Answer 30

c. RNA molecules can both carry genetic information and have catalytic activity, so may be able to
replicate each other without proteins

Question 31

Although biological evolution, strictly speaking, refers to living organisms composed of cells, on which of
these stages in the RNA World hypothesis could evolution by selection operate?
a. chemical reactions creating mono-ribonucleotides from inorganic starting materials
b. polymerization of mono-ribonucleotides into random RNA chains 40-50 nucleotides long
c. catalytic RNA molecules that cleave other RNA molecules
d. catalytic RNA molecules that synthesize RNA molecules using other RNA strands as a template
e. all of the above

Answer 31

d. catalytic RNA molecules that synthesize RNA molecules using other RNA strands

Question 32

A good scientific hypothesis:
a. Is true
b. Summarizes exiting data
c. Can be falsified through observations
d. All of these statements are true
e. None of these statements are true

Answer 32

c. Can be falsified through observations

Question 33

According to Platt’s strong inference principles, scientists who investigate the RNA
World hypothesis should design experiments to:
a. disprove various alternative hypotheses about how RNA molecules may have
originated or functioned
b. prove that pre-biotic Earth had self-replicating RNA molecules
c. prove that a self-replicating RNA molecule was the first genetic material in the
first cells
d. prove that pre-biotic Earth had self-replicating RNA molecules and that a self-
replicating RNA molecule was the first genetic material in the first cells
e. all of these are consistent with Platt’s strong inference

Answer 33

a. disprove various alternative hypotheses about how RNA molecules may have
originated or functioned

Question 34

Microfossils of cells that appear to have nuclei would indicate what domain of life?
a. Archaea
b. Bacteria
c. Plants
d. Animals
e. Eukarya

Answer 34

e. Eukarya

Question 35

Which of the following is alive?
a. The influenza virus
b. A gene that causes bacteria to be resistant to antibiotics
c. A cell found in a plant leaf
d. A molecule of DNA
e. All of these are alive

Answer 35

c. A cell found in a plant leaf

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living things?
a. Composed of cells with genetic information
b. Requirement for a source of energy
c. Ability to respond to changes in the environment
d. Development of adaptations within individuals during their lifetimes
e. Reproduction with some degree of error

Answer 36

d. Development of adaptations within individuals during their lifetimes

Question 37

Biological evolution always requires:
a. Heritable variation
b. Overproduction of individuals
c. Competition for access to resources
d. A selective agent
e. An adaptation that improves biological fitness

Answer 37

a. Heritable variation

Question 38

A species of lizards has males that with bright pink throats. Females prefer to mate with
males with the pinkest throat coloration, but bright pink also stands out to predators.
What feature is most important in directly assessing overall fitness in a male, relative to
other males in this population?
a. How bright pink his throat is
b. How many years he is reproductively active
c. Number of times he mates with any female
d. Number of times he escapes predation
e. Number of surviving offspring he generates

Answer 38

e. Number of surviving offspring he generates

Question 39

Which of these conditions would completely prevent natural selection from altering a
population through time?
a. None of the variation in the population is heritable
b. All mating between individuals is random
c. No changes are occurring in the environment
d. The population lives in a habitat with no predators
e. The population is very large

Answer 39

a. None of the variation in the population is heritable

Question 40

Fish stocks of many species have decreased over the last several centuries as humans
have preferentially harvested the largest and most reproductively successful individuals
in the population. Many fish populations now exhibit earlier sexual maturity where
younger and smaller individuals are capable of reproducing compared to populations two
hundred years ago. In regard to body size at sexual maturity, the situation described
above is an example of:
a. Introduction of a new allele due to mutation or gene flow
b. A change in the frequency of an existing allele due to genetic drift
c. A change in the frequency of an existing allele due to directional selection
d. A change in the frequency of an existing allele due to disruptive selection
e. A change in the frequency of an existing allele due to balancing selection

Answer 40

c. A change in the frequency of an existing allele due to directional selection

Question 41

What is the role of mutation in biological evolution?
a. mutations arise in a population response to selection
b. mutations cause genetic drift in a population
c. mutations are adaptive and cause populations to experience increased fitness
d. mutations arise by chance and create random genetic variation in a population

Answer 41

d. mutations arise by chance and create random genetic variation in a population

Question 42

A change in a population’s allele frequency due to chance alone is best described as:
a. Adaptation
b. Mutation
c. Gene flow
d. Genetic drift
e. Random mating

Answer 42

d. Genetic drift

Question 43

Suppose that a population turtles from the mainland migrate into another population of
turtles on an island, where they mate with the island population. The island and the
mainland have different environmental conditions. Gene flow between these two
different populations would:
a. Increase the adaptation of each population to its local environment
b. Decrease the likelihood of speciation occurring between these two populations
c. Alter allele frequencies due to chance alone
d. Decrease the genetic diversity in each population
e. Increase fitness in each population

Answer 43

b. Decrease the likelihood of speciation occurring between these two populations

Question 44

Which of these is NOT an expected characteristic of populations in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium?
a. the population includes recent immigrants
b. the population is very large
c. individuals in the population mate randomly
d. the population is not experiencing selection for the trait in question
e. there are no new mutations arising in the population

Answer 44

a. the population includes recent immigrants

Question 45

A lemur population has a gene with two alleles, F and f. If 20% of the gametes produced
in the population carry the F allele, and the population is not evolving, what proportion of
the offspring will be heterozygous at this gene locus?
a. 0.04
b. 0.20
c. 0.32
d. 0.64
e. 0.80

Answer 45

c. 0.32

Question 46

In a particular species of bird, tail length is controlled by one gene with 2 alleles.
Population A has 100 birds with long tails, 800 birds with medium tails, and 100 birds
with short tails. Population B has 250 birds with long-tails, 500 bird with medium tails,
and 250 birds with short tails. Which population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with
regard to the tail length gene?
a. Population A
b. Population B
c. Both populations
d. Neither population
e. It cannot be determined from the information provided

Answer 46

b. Population B

Question 47

Which of the following indicates that a population is in H-W equilibrium?
a. Whenever the dominant genotype is most frequently observed in the population
b. Whenever allele frequencies can be expressed as p + q equal to 1 in the
population
c. Whenever genotype frequencies add up to 1 because p2 + 2pq + q2
d. Whenever the observed allele frequencies accurately predict the observed
genotype frequencies
e. Whenever heterozygotes outnumber homozygotes consistently over multiple
generations

Answer 47

d. Whenever the observed allele frequencies accurately predict the observed
genotype frequencies

Question 48

Species defined by the biological species concept must be:
a. Morphologically distinct
b. Geographically separated
c. Reproductively isolated
d. Morphologically distinct and reproductively isolated
e. Geographically separated and reproductively isolated

Answer 48

c. Reproductively isolated

Question 49

Two populations of guppies live in a pool. Population A feeds and mates preferentially at
night, whereas population B prefers to feed and mate in the daytime. When a female from
population A is placed in a laboratory aquarium with a male from population B, they
mate and have viable, fertile progeny, and the natural hybridization rate between the two
populations is ~1%. Physically, the dull-colored fish from population A look very similar
to the dull-colored fish from population B. The guppies in these two populations are
likely different species according to the:
a. Biological species concept
b. Ecological species concept
c. Morphological species concept
d. Phylogenetic species concep

Answer 49

b. Ecological species concept

Question 50

Which type of speciation best describes closely-related sexually reproducing populations
in the same area that do not interbreed?
a. Sympatric
b. Allopatric
c. Gametic
d. Prezygotic
e. There is no evidence of speciation in this situation

Answer 50

a. Sympatric

Question 51

Bullfrogs and Red-legged frogs have been geographically separated for tens of thousands
of years, but recently Bullfrogs have been unintentionally introduced into territory where
previously only Red-legged frogs lived. Now that they live in the same areas, Bullfrogs
and Red-legged frogs will readily mate, but the resulting embryos do not successfully
develop. This is an example of:
a. Gametic isolation
b. Mechanical isolation
c. Prezygotic isolation
d. Postzygotic isolation
e. All of these

Answer 51

d. Postzygotic isolation

Question 52

Two frog populations exist in the same geographic area. Both populations look very
similar and breed in shallow water, but they are not observed to interbreed in the wild.
One population feeds in static pond shallows, while the other feeds in the shallows of
rapidly-moving streams. The males in each population make slightly different mating
calls. What type(s) of reproductive isolation is/are likely in effect in the two populations?
a. Temporal
b. Habitat
c. Behavioral
d. Temporal and habitat
e. Habitat and behavioral

Answer 52

e. Habitat and behavioral

Question 53

Building phylogenetic trees utilizes data from multiple sources including homology and
genetic similarities. The least complicated evolutionary relationships are usually the
correct ones and when a specific adaptation appears in more than species it usually means
they had a common ancestor. This principle for constructing trees where the most likely
pattern is the one requiring the fewest changes is known as what?
a. Parsimony
b. Analogy
c. Oxidation
d. Allopatry
e. Disruption

Answer 53

a. Parsimony

Question 54

In oxidized iron banded rock formations, where would we find the oldest layer of rock if
there had been no tectonic activity in the area?
a. At the top
b. In the middle
c. At the bottom
d. Depends on the amount of oxygen at the given period
e. None of the above

Answer 54

c. At the bottom

Question 55

Which of these events occurred first?
a. Increase in atmospheric oxygen due to oxidative phosphorylation from ancient
cyanobacteria
b. Extinction of the dinosaurs
c. Migration of humans out of Africa
d. First bilaterally symmetrical animals
e. Taylor Swift concert in Atlanta

Answer 55

a. Increase in atmospheric oxygen due to oxidative phosphorylation from ancient
cyanobacteria

Question 56

Which of these events has or could lead to an adaptive radiation event?
a. A large asteroid hitting the planet
b. The evolution of flight in birds
c. Animals colonizing a cave where no other animals exist
d. Oxygen gas being released into the atmosphere due to the development of
oxygenic photosynthesis
e. All of the above

Answer 56

e. All of the above

Question 57

You and your research group have just identified a previously undiscovered species of
early mammal by locating their fossils. You decide to carbon date the specimen and find
that it is roughly 22,800 years old. Given the half life of carbon-14 is 5,700 years. How
much of the original carbon-14 is left in the sample?
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1/8
d. 1/16
e. 1/32

Answer 57

d. 1/16

Question 58

Evolutionary processes can function in RNA self-replication as is hypothesized to occur
in the RNA World hypothesis. Some RNA molecules are able to replicate quicker than
other RNA molecules and are thus use the available ribonucleotides faster than other
RNA molecules. Which of these types of evolution is this an example of?
a. Natural selection
b. Genetic drift
c. Gene flow
d. Non-random mating
e. None of the above

Answer 58

a. Natural selection

Question 59

Protocells are formed by having a layer of what type of organic molecule surrounding an
interior space?
a. RNA
b. Lipids
c. Proteins
d. Sugars
e. Clay

Answer 59

b. Lipids

Question 60

Which of these is NOT a requirement for the origin of life?
a. Carbon source
b. Multicellularity
c. Hereditary mechanism
d. Energy
e. Segregate molecules from the environment

Answer 60

b. Multicellularity

Question 61

Average trait selected over the extreme. Results in a decrease of a populations genetic variance.

Answer 61

Stabilizing Selection

Question 62

A populations genetic variation shifts towards a new phenotype when exposed to environmental changes.

Answer 62

Directional Selection

Question 63

Two or more extreme phenotypes are selected over the average. Increases genetic variation.

Answer 63

Disruptive Selection

Question 64

Differences in timing prevent reproduction between closely related species.

Answer 64

Temporal Isolation

Question 65

A physical incompatibility between reproductive organs of two organisms. No fertilization occurs. Includes any physical barrier that prevents mating.

Answer 65

Mechanical Isolation

Question 66

When species are reproductively isolated from others due to differences in behavior.

Answer 66

Behavioral Isolation

Question 67

A group of any size and systematic rank that originated from a single common ancestor, but does not, as opposed to a monophyletic group, contain all descendants from this ancestor.

Answer 67

Paraphyletic Group

Question 68

If the half-life of carbon-14 is approximately 5000 years old, then approximately how many years old is a fossil containing 1/8th of today’s proportions or carbon-14 to carbon-12.

Answer 68

1/8 = 0.125
(1/2)^n = 0.125
n(log)(0.5) = log(0.125)
n = 3
5000 * 3 = 15,000

Question 69

The change in frequency of an existing gene variant in the population due to random chance. Alters frequencies of alleles at random: selection increases frequences of alleles associated with higher fitness.

Answer 69

Genetic Drift

Question 70

The transfer of genetic material from one population to another.

Answer 70

Gene Flow

Question 71

Concept of species in which a species is a set of organisms adapted to a particular set of resources, called a niche, in the environment.

Answer 71

Ecological Species Concept

Question 72

Occurs when a species separates into 2 groups which are isolated from each other.

Answer 72

Allopatric Speciation