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Intro to Networking > Module 07 > Flashcards

Module 07 Flashcards

1
Q

The overall design of a device, network, or other system. In the context of a network, the architecture includes the devices involved, how they’re configured, the services implemented to support the network, and the way devices are connected to the network.

A

Architecture

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2
Q

A switch that provides plug-and-play simplicity with minimal configuration options and has no IP address assigned to it.

A

Unmanaged switch

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3
Q

A switch that can be configured via a command-line interface or a webbased management GUI, and sometimes can be configured in groups.

A

Managed switches

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4
Q

A switch capable of interpreting layer 3 data and works much like a router in that it supports the same routing protocols and makes routing decisions.

A

Layer 3 switch

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5
Q

A switch capable of interpreting layer 4 data, which means it can perform advanced filtering, keep statistics, and provide security functions.

A

Layer 4 switch

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6
Q

The use of more than one identical component, device, or connection for storing, processing, or transporting data.

A

Redundancy

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7
Q

Redundant broadcast transmissions that flood a network in switching loops that are not limited by some protective system such as STP (Spanning Tree Protocol).

A

Broadcast storm

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8
Q

A switching protocol defined by the IEEE standard 802.1D that functions at the data link layer and prevents traffic loops by artificially blocking the links that would complete a loop.

A

STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

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9
Q

The single bridge on a network selected by STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) to provide the basis for all subsequent path calculations.

A

Root bridge

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10
Q

The most efficient path from each switch to the root bridge in an STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) environment.

A

Least cost path

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11
Q

The port on a switch designated as the interface facing the root bridge in an STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) switched environment.

A

Root port

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12
Q

A type of network message that transmits STP information between switches.

A

BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units)

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13
Q

Layers of security implemented to protect a network from multiple attack vectors.

A

Defense in depth

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14
Q

A device that distributes traffic intelligently among multiple devices or connections.

A

Load balancer

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15
Q

A hierarchical network design that organizes switches and routers into three tiers: access layer or edge layer, distribution layer or aggregation layer, and core layer. This design increases both redundancy on the network and network performance.

A

Three-tiered architecture

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16
Q

Workgroup switches connected directly to hosts. Also called edge layer.

A

Access layer

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17
Q

Workgroup switches connected directly to hosts. Also called access layer.

A

Edge layer

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18
Q

A highly redundant mesh of connections between multilayer switches or routers that provides routing within the corporate network as well as traffic filtering and the network’s connection to one or more WANs. Also called aggregation layer.

A

Distribution layer

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19
Q

A highly redundant mesh of connections between multilayer switches or routers that provides routing within the corporate network as well as traffic filtering and the network’s connection to one or more WANs. Also called distributed layer.

A

Aggregation layer

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20
Q

A remote location within the corporation’s network that is often connected over a WAN link or the open Internet.

A

Branch offices

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21
Q

A group of highly efficient multilayer switches or routers that support the network’s backbone traffic.

A

Core layer

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22
Q

The flow of traffic between peers within a network segment.

A

East-west traffic

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23
Q

Messages that must leave the local segment to reach their destinations.

A

North-south traffic

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24
Q

A two-layer network architectural design where spine switches organize traffic and network segments using OSI layer 3 technologies while leaf switches manage traffic by either layer 2 or layer 3 principles.

A

Spine-and-leaf architecture

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25
Q

A rack architecture where one switch on each rack serves as the connection point to the network for all other devices on the rack.

A

ToR (top of rack) switching

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26
Q

A rack architecture in which switches in a rack at the end of the row serve as the connection points to the network for all other devices in the row.

A

EoR (end of row) switching

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27
Q

A centralized approach to networking that removes most of the decision-making power from network devices and instead handles that responsibility at a software level.

A

SDN (software-defined networking)

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28
Q

A product that integrates configuration and management control of all network devices, both physical and virtual, into one cohesive system that is overseen by the network administrator through a single dashboard.

A

SDN controller

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29
Q

An SDN (software-defined networking) construct made up of physical or virtual devices that receive and send network messages. Also called data plane.

A

Infrastructure plane

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30
Q

An SDN (software-defined networking) construct made up of physical or virtual devices that receive and send network messages. Also called infrastructure plane.

A

Data plan

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31
Q

The process of decision making, such as routing, blocking, and forwarding, that is performed by protocols.

A

Control pane

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32
Q

An SDN (software-defined networking) construct corresponding to the OSI model’s application layer where network applications communicate with the network via APIs (application programming interfaces).

A

Application plane

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33
Q

An SDN (software-defined networking) construct sometimes considered part of the control plane that allows network administrators to remotely manage and monitor network devices.

A

Management plane

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34
Q

The provision of multiple connections between servers and storage devices in a SAN (storage area network) to ensure quick failover and high-performance load balancing.

A

Multipathing

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35
Q

A storage networking architecture that runs separately from Ethernet networks to maximize speed of data storage and access.

A

FC (Fibre Channel)

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36
Q

A technology that allows FC to travel over Ethernet hardware and connections.

A

FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet)

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37
Q

A transport layer protocol used by SANs that runs on top of TCP to allow fast transmission over LANs, WANs, and the Internet.

A

iSCSI (Internet SCSI)

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38
Q

A storage networking architecture that serves a few niche markets and falls on the difficult end of the installation and configuration spectrum.

A

IB (InfiniBand)

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39
Q

The emulation of all or part of a computer or network.

A

Virtualization

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40
Q

In the context of virtualization, a virtual machine operated and managed by a virtualization program.

A

Guest

41
Q

The element of virtualization software that manages multiple guest machines and their connections to the host (and by association, to a physical network).

A

Hypervisor

42
Q

A hypervisor that installs on a computer before any OS and is sometimes erroneously called a bare-metal hypervisor.

A

Type 1 hypervisor

43
Q

A hypervisor that installs in a host OS as an application and is called a hosted hypervisor.

A

Type 2 hypervisor

44
Q

A logically defined network interface associated with a physical or virtual machine.

A

vNIC (virtual NIC)

45
Q

A logically defined device that operates at the data link layer to pass frames between physical and virtual nodes.

A

vSwitch (virtual switch)

46
Q

A type of network connection in which a vNIC accesses a physical network using the host machine’s NIC. The bridged vNIC obtains its own IP address, default gateway, and subnet mask information from the physical LAN’s DHCP server.

A

Bridged mode

47
Q

A type of network connection in which a vNIC relies on the host machine to act as a NAT device. The virtualization software acts as a DHCP server.

A

NAT mode

48
Q

A type of network connection in which VMs on a host can exchange data with each other and with their host, but they cannot communicate with any nodes beyond the host. In host-only mode, VMs use the DHCP service in the host’s virtualization software to obtain IP address assignments.

A

Host-only mode

49
Q

A network architecture that merges physical and virtual network devices.

A

NFV (Network Functions Virtualization)

50
Q

The flexible provision of data storage, applications, or services to clients over a network.

A

Cloud computing

51
Q

The provision of cloud services hosted on the same hardware for multiple customers.

A

Multitenancy

52
Q

The ability to quickly and dynamically upscale or downscale resources in response to changing demand.

A

Elasticity

53
Q

A business that offers one or more cloud services to other businesses or individuals.

A

CSP (cloud services provider)

54
Q

Categories of cloud service types according to the division of labor between customer and cloud provider for each service.

A

Cloud service models

55
Q

The physical location of the customer and the hardware they own.

A

On-premises data center

56
Q

A cloud service model in which hardware services are provided virtually, including network infrastructure devices such as virtual servers.

A

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)

57
Q

A cloud service model in which various platforms are provided virtually, enabling developers to build and test applications within virtual, online environments tailored to the specific needs of a project.

A

PaaS (Platform as a Service)

58
Q

A lightweight, self-contained environment that provides the services needed to run an application in nearly any OS environment.

A

Containers

59
Q

A cloud-native, streamlined technology for hosting cloud-based applications where a server runs for short bursts only when needed by an application or service.

A

Serverless compute

60
Q

A cloud service model in which applications are provided through an online user interface and are compatible with a multitude of devices and operating systems.

A

SaaS (Software as a Service)

61
Q

A type of cloud computing in which the cloud can provide any combination of functions depending on a client’s exact needs, or assumes functions beyond networking including, for example, monitoring, storage, applications, and virtual desktops.

A

XaaS (Anything as a Service)

62
Q

A cloud-service model in which desktop services (that is, VDI) are provided virtually from a third-party provider.

A

DaaS (Desktop as a Service)

63
Q

A cloud deployment model in which shared and flexible data storage, applications, or services are managed centrally by service providers and delivered over public transmission lines, such as the Internet.

A

Public cloud

64
Q

A cloud deployment model in which shared and flexible data storage, applications, or services are managed on and delivered via an organization’s own network, or established virtually for a single organization’s private use.

A

Private cloud

65
Q

A cloud deployment model in which flexible data storage, applications, or services are shared between multiple organizations but are not available publicly.

A

Community cloud

66
Q

A cloud deployment model in which shared and flexible data storage, applications, or services are made available through a combination of other service models into a single deployment, or a collection of services connected within the cloud.

A

Hybrid cloud

67
Q

A cloud deployment model consisting of a combination of cloud platforms (such as AWS, Azure, and Salesforce) or a combination of other deployment models, such as private, public, and community cloud.

A

Multicloud

68
Q

The process of using text-based commands in a computer-readable configuration file to create and manage cloud resources.

A

IaC (infrastructure as code)

69
Q

The use of technology to perform a process or procedure with minimal human interaction.

A

Automation

70
Q

The design, development, and optimization of automation processes into a single workflow.

A

Orchestration

71
Q

A data center facility at which a provider rents space to allow for dedicated connection services.

A

PoPs (Points of Presence)

72
Q

A data center facility that is shared by a variety of providers. Also called a carrier hotel.

A

Colocation facility

73
Q

A measure of how consistently and reliably a file, device, or connection can be accessed by authorized personnel.

A

Availability

74
Q

A system that functions reliably nearly all the time.

A

HA (high availability)

75
Q

A resource’s ongoing existence.

A

Durability

76
Q

A measurement of how well a resource functions without errors.

A

Reliability

77
Q

The measurement of a resource’s ability to recover from errors even when it becomes unavailable during an outage.

A

Resiliency

78
Q

The duration or percentage of time a system or network functions normally between failures.

A

Uptime

79
Q

The capacity of a system to continue performing despite an unexpected hardware or software malfunction.

A

Fault tolerance

80
Q

A deviation from a specified level of system performance for a given period of time.

A

Failure

81
Q

The malfunction of one component of a system.

A

Fault

82
Q

The average amount of time that will pass before the next failure of a device or service is expected to occur.

A

MTBF (mean time between failures)

83
Q

The average amount of time required to repair a device or restore a service.

A

MTTR (mean time to repair)

84
Q

In the event of a component failure, the ability of a redundant component to immediately assume the duties of the failed component.

A

Automatic failover

85
Q

The seamless combination of multiple network interfaces or ports to act as one logical interface.

A

Link aggregation

86
Q

The seamless combination of multiple network interfaces or ports on Cisco devices to act as one logical interface.

A

Port aggregation

87
Q

The seamless combination of multiple network interfaces or ports on Windows devices to act as one logical interface.

A

NIC teaming

88
Q

The distribution of traffic over multiple components or links to optimize performance and fault tolerance.

A

Load balancing

89
Q

A protocol currently defined by IEEE’s 802.1AX standard that dynamically coordinates communications between two hosts on aggregated connections.

A

LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)

90
Q

A technique of grouping multiple devices so they appear as a single device to the rest of the network.

A

Clustering

91
Q

A single IP address that represents a cluster of devices.

A

VIP (virtual IP address)

92
Q

A protocol that allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share one or more IP addresses.

A

CARP (Common Address Redundancy Protocol)

93
Q

A standard that assigns a virtual IP address to a group of routers.

A

VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol)

94
Q

Cisco’s proprietary standard that assigns a virtual IP address to a group of routers.

A

HSRP (Hot Standby Routing Protocol)

95
Q

The centralized control of many VMs’ access to a network across a server cluster.

A

Distributed switching

96
Q

A type of network message that transmits STP information between switches.

A

BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit)

97
Q

A remote location within the corporation’s network that is often connected over a WAN link or the open Internet.

A

Branch office

98
Q

Categories of cloud service types according to the division of labor between customer and cloud provider for each service.

A

cloud service model

99
Q

A lightweight, self-contained environment that provides the services needed to run an application in nearly any OS environment.

A

Container

Intro to Networking (7 decks)

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