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Intro to Networking > Module 04 > Flashcards

Module 04 Flashcards

1
Q

A three-step process in which transport layer protocols establish a connection between nodes.

A

Three-way-handshake

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2
Q

A method of error checking that determines if the contents of an arriving data unit match the contents of the data unit sent by the source.

A

Checksum

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3
Q

A software package or hardware-based tool that can capture and analyze data on a network.

A

Protocol analyzer

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4
Q

The trip a unit of data takes from one connectivity device to another. Typically, hop is used in the context of router-to-router communications

A

Hops

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5
Q

A core protocol in the TCP/IP suite that functions in the data link layer of the OSI model. ARP works in conjunction with IPv4 to discover the MAC address of a node on the local network and to maintain a database that maps local IP addresses to MAC addresses.

A

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)

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6
Q

A database of records that maps MAC addresses to IP addresses. The ARP table is stored on a computer’s hard disk where it is used by the ARP utility to supply the MAC addresses of network nodes, given their IP addresses.

A

ARP table

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7
Q

A record in an ARP table that is created when a client makes an ARP request that cannot be satisfied by data already in the ARP table.

A

Dynamic ARP table entries

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8
Q

A record in an ARP table that someone has manually entered using the ARP utility.

A

Static ARP table entries

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9
Q

A data link layer protocol that works with ICMPv6 to detect neighboring devices on an IPv6 network, helps manage the SLAAC (stateless address autoconfiguration) process, and oversees router and network prefix discovery.

A

NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

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10
Q

The name for a MAC address on an IPv6 network.

A

Link-layer address

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11
Q

The most common Ethernet standard today. Ethernet II is distinguished from other Ethernet frame types in that it contains a 2-byte type field to identify the upper-layer protocol contained in the frame.

A

Ethernet II

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12
Q

A sublayer of layer 2 that is primarily concerned with multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability.

A

LLC (logical link control) sublayer

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13
Q

The lower portion of the data link layer that is specifically involved with managing MAC addresses in message frames.

A

MAC sublayer

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14
Q

The largest IP packet size in bytes that routers in a message’s path will allow without fragmentation and excluding the frame.

A

MTU (maximum transmission unit)

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15
Q

A setting on Ethernet network devices that allows the creation and transmission of extra-large frames, which can be as large as just over 9,000 bytes.

A

Jumbo frame

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16
Q

A network access method specified for use by IEEE 802.3 (Ethernet) networks. In CSMA/CD, each node waits its turn before transmitting data to avoid interfering with other nodes’ transmissions.

A

CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection)

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17
Q

In Ethernet networks, the interference of one node’s data transmission with the data transmission of another node sharing the same segment.

A

Collision

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18
Q

The portion of an Ethernet network in which collisions could occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time. Today, switches and routers separate collision domains.

A

Collision domain

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19
Q

The use of an algorithm to scramble data into a format that can be read only by reversing the algorithm—that is, by decrypting the data—to keep the information private.

A

Encryption

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20
Q

A three-tenet, standard security model describing the primary ways that encryption protects data. Confidentiality ensures that data can only be viewed by its intended recipient or at its intended destination. Integrity ensures that data was not modified after the sender transmitted it and before the receiver picked it up. Availability ensures that data is available to and accessible by the intended recipient when needed.

A

CIA (confidentiality, integrity, and availability) triad

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21
Q

A series of characters that is combined with a block of data during that data’s encryption.

A

Key

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22
Q

A type of key encryption in which the sender and receiver use a key to which only they have access. Also known as symmetric encryption.

A

Private key encryption

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23
Q

A method of encryption that requires the same key to encode the data as is used to decode the cipher text.

A

Symmetric encryption

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24
Q

A form of key encryption in which data is encrypted using two keys: One is a key known only to a user (that is, a private key), and the other is a key associated with the user and that can be obtained from a public source, such as a public key server. Public key encryption is also known as asymmetric encryption.

A

Public key encryption

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25
Q

A type of encryption (such as public key encryption) that uses a different key for encoding data than is used for decoding the cipher text.

A

Asymmetric encryption

26
Q

A small file containing verified identification information about the user and the user’s public key.

A

Digital certificate

27
Q

An organization that issues and maintains digital certificates as part of the PKI (public-key infrastructure).

A

CA (certificate authority)

28
Q

The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users.

A

PKI (public-key infrastructure)

29
Q

The process of comparing and matching a client’s credentials with the credentials in a client database to enable the client to log on to the network.

A

Authentication

30
Q

A layer 3 protocol that defines encryption, authentication, and key management for TCP/IP transmissions. IPsec is an enhancement to IPv4 and is native to IPv6.

A

IPsec (Internet Protocol Security)

31
Q

In the context of IPsec, a type of encryption that provides authentication of the IP packet’s data payload through public key techniques.

A

AH (authentication header)

32
Q

In the context of IPsec, a type of encryption that provides authentication of the IP packet’s data payload through public key techniques and encrypts the entire IP packet for added security.

A

ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)

33
Q

A method for connecting and logging on to a server, LAN, or WAN from a workstation that is in a different geographical location.

A

Remote access

34
Q

A server that runs communications services enabling remote users to log on to a network and grant privileges to the network’s resources.

A

RAS (remote access server)

35
Q

A virtual connection between a client and a remote network, two remote networks, or two remote hosts over the Internet or other types of networks, to remotely provide network resources.

A

VPN (virtual private network)

36
Q

A version of FTP that incorporates the SSL/TLS protocols for added security.

A

FTPS (FTP Secure or FTP over SSL)

37
Q

A file server used to remotely boot devices that don’t have their own hard drives, to collect log files from devices, or to back up and update network device configuration files.

A

TFTP server

38
Q

Software that allows a user on one computer, called the client, to control another computer, called the host or server, across a network connection.

A

Terminal emulator

39
Q

The act of impersonating fields of data in a transmission, such as when a source IP address is impersonated in a DRDoS attack.

A

Spoofing

40
Q

Graphical-based access to a remote computer’s desktop.

A

Remote desktop connection

41
Q

A service on a Windows server that can manage high volumes of RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) connections to a network’s computers through a single public IP address.

A

Remote desktop gateway

42
Q

A remote desktop implementation that offers VM instances for remote access clients.

A

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)

43
Q

A service offered by Windows Server that uses RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) to allow multiple users to access the same virtual or physical Windows Server system at the same time.

A

RDS (Remote Desktop Services)

44
Q

Software that uses the cross-platform protocol RFB (remote frame buffer) to remotely control a workstation or server.

A

VNC (Virtual Network Computing)

45
Q

A switch management option, such as Telnet, that uses the existing network and its protocols to interface with a switch.

A

In-band management

46
Q

A dedicated connection (either wired or wireless) from the network administrator’s computer used to manage each critical network device, such as routers, firewalls, servers, power supplies, applications, and security cameras.

A

Out-of-band managment

47
Q

A type of VPN in which VPN gateways at multiple sites encrypt and encapsulate data to exchange over tunnels with other VPN gateways. Meanwhile, clients, servers, and other hosts on a site-to-site VPN communicate with the VPN gateway.

A

Site-to-site VPN

48
Q

A type of VPN in which clients, servers, and other hosts establish tunnels with a private network using a VPN gateway at the edge of the private network.

A

Client-to-site VPN

49
Q

A VPN gateway that manages multiple tunnels from individual VPN clients.

A

VPN headband

50
Q

A VPN accessed by the client system through a limited, web-based connection using a browser and secured by SSL/TLS.

A

Clientless VPN

51
Q

A type of VPN that captures all network traffic, whether destined for the Internet or for the corporate network.

A

Full tunnel VPN

52
Q

A type of VPN that captures only the traffic destined for the corporate network. The client can communicate with local network resources directly and with Internet resources through a local Internet connection.

A

Split tunnel VPN

53
Q

A tunneling protocol developed by Cisco that is used to transmit IP and other kinds of messages through a tunnel.

A

GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation)

54
Q

A tunneling protocol developed by Cisco that allows the configuration of multiple tunnel destinations on a single interface.

A

mGRE (multipoint GRE)

55
Q

A particular type of enterprise VPN using Cisco devices that dynamically creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels for site-to-site connections.

A

DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint VPN)

56
Q

A TCP/IP troubleshooting utility that displays statistics and details about TCP/IP components and connections on a host. It also lists ports, which can signal whether services are using the correct ports.

A

Netstat

57
Q

A Windows utility that uses ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) echo requests to trace the path from one networked node to another, identifying all intermediate hops between the two nodes.

A

Tracert

58
Q

A TCP/IP troubleshooting utility available in Linux, UNIX, and macOS systems that sends UDP messages to a random port on the destination node to trace the path from one networked node to another, identifying all intermediate hops between the two nodes.

A

Traceroute

59
Q

(1) A repeated trial message transmitted by the tracert and traceroute utilities to trigger routers along a route to return specific information about the route. (2) A small electronic device that emits a tone when it detects electrical activity on a wire pair. When used in conjunction with a tone generator, it can help locate the termination of a wire pair. Also called a tone locator. (3) In 802.11 wireless networking, a type of frame issued by a station during active scanning to find nearby access points.

A

Probes

60
Q

A free, command-line packet sniffer utility that runs on Linux and other UNIX operating systems.

A

tcdump

61
Q

A software package or hardwarebased tool that can capture data on a network.

A

Packet sniffer

Intro to Networking (7 decks)

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