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BIOM1050 > Modle 3 - Support And Movement > Flashcards

Modle 3 - Support And Movement Flashcards

1
Q

Three types of muscle types?

A

Skeletal, Smooth and Cardiac

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2
Q

What percentage of body mass does skeletal muscle take up?

A

40-50%

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3
Q

What are the characteristics of skeletal muscle?

A

Long and striated with plenty of nuclei

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4
Q

What attaches bone to muscle?

A

Tendons

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5
Q

Why is a muscle striated in appearance?

A

It is the arrangement of the sarcomeres

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6
Q

What part of the central nervous system controls skeletal muscle?

A

The somatic nervous sytem

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7
Q

Where is smooth muscle found?

A

GI tract, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, urinary bladder, reproductive organs/tracts, skin and eyes

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8
Q

What does a cardiac muscle look like?

A

Striated, with similar contractile properties to skeletal muscle, but appears to branch (not parallel)

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9
Q

What do muscle fibres interconnect at?

A

Intercalated disks

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10
Q

Are cardiac muscles uni-nucleate?

A

yes

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11
Q

How many muscles in human body?

A

Roughly 320 on either side

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12
Q

Where is the Muscle-Tendon origin and insertion usually?

A

Origin is proximal, insertion is distal

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13
Q

Four main functions of muscles?

A

Contractility, excitability, extensibility, elasticity

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14
Q

What is excitability (muscle)

A

Ability to respond to appropriate stimuli

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15
Q

What is extensibility (muscle)?

A

Ability to be stretches without damage

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16
Q

What is elasticity (muscle)?

A

Ability to store some energy, recoil to the resting length

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17
Q

What us contractility (muscle)?

A

Ability to shorten and thicken, and develop tension

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18
Q

Where are the contractile filaments of a muscle that convert action potentials found?

A

Within the myofibrils

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19
Q

When a muscle shortens, what happens to the filaments and z line? How about when it lengthens?

A

The muscle shortens asa result to the filaments overlapping more, pulling the z lines closer. When it lengthens, the filaments overlap less

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20
Q

What anchors myosin to the z line?

A

Titin

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21
Q

What does Titin contribute to in muscles?

A

Passive force

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22
Q

Diameter of myosin and actin?

A

16nm and 8nm respectively

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23
Q

Action of a muscle shortening at the myosin/actin sites is called:?

A

A power stroke

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24
Q

Four main types of tissues within the body?

A

Epithelial, muscle, nervous and connective

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25
Q

Most common type of tissue in the body?

A

Connective

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26
Q

Define tissues

A

Groups of similar cells and their extracellular products, organised to perform a common function

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27
Q

Do muscle cells have an ECM?

A

Barely anymore, it is surrounded by connective tissue for the most part, which in turn has more a significant ECM

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28
Q

Order of connective tissue in a muscle cell?

A

Epimysium, Perimysium, Endomysium

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29
Q

What does epimysium do?

A

Fibrous tissue that surrounds skeletal muscle

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30
Q

What does perimysium do?

A

Groups muscle fibres into a fascicle

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31
Q

What does endomysium do?

A

Surrounds each muscle fibre

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32
Q

What does a motor unit consist of?

A

1 motor neuron, its motor axon and all of the uscle fibres it innervates

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33
Q

Three types of skeletal muscle fibres?

A

Type 1: Slow oxidative
Type 2a: Fast oxidative
Type 2b: Fast glycolytic

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34
Q

Myoglobin content of the three skeletal muscle fibres?

A

Type 1: (high) Red
Type 2a: (high) Red
Type 2b: (low) White

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35
Q

Mitochondria count in skeletal muscle fibres?

A

Type 1: Many
Type 2a: Many
Type 2b: Few

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36
Q

Rate of fatigue within muscle fibres?

A

Type 1: Slow
Type 2a: Intermediate
Type 2b: Fast

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37
Q

Major ATP sources in skeletal muscle fibres?

A

Type 1: Aerobic respiration
Type 2a: Aerobic respiration
Type 2b: Glycolysis

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38
Q

Where are most slow twitch fibres found in concentration?

A

Frontalis, Peroneus Longus (calf) and Biceps Femoris

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39
Q

What is a hydrostatic skeleton?

A

Fluid held under pressure (like in worms)

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40
Q

Four basic roles of our skeletal structure?

A

Support, protection, movement and metabolic functions

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41
Q

What percentage of the body’s calcium and phosphorus does the human body store in its bones?

A

99% of calcium and 85% of phosphorus

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42
Q

Two segment of adult skeleton?

A

Axial and Appendicular

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43
Q

What is the axial skeleton in relation to?

A

Head and trunk region

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44
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton?

A

In relation to limbs

append - to add something to the end

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45
Q

How many bones in adult skeleton?

A

206

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46
Q

How many bones in axial skeleton?

A

80

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47
Q

How many bones in the skull?

A

22

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48
Q

Name of bone in middle ear?

A

Ossicle

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49
Q

What s the bone that aids the tongue in movement?

A

Hyoid

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50
Q

How many bones in appendicular skeleton?

A

126

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51
Q

Four main anatomical planes?

A

Sagittal, parasagittal, coronal and transverse

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52
Q

Flexion and extension of the foot at the ankle is referred to as:

A

Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

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53
Q

Three types of joints?

A

Fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial

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54
Q

What are fibrous joints?

A

Contain fibrous connective tissue and allow very little movement. *ie skull or ankle

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55
Q

What are cartilaginous joints?

A

Contain cartilage that cushions forces. Allows a little movement. *ie pelvic girdle, intervertebral discs

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56
Q

What are synovial joints?

A

Only joint that has a space (filled with fluid) that allows for greatest range of movement *ie knee, elbow

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57
Q

What connects bone to bone?

A

Cartilage and ligaments

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58
Q

Six types of joint movements?

A 
Pivot joint
Hinge joint
Saddle join
Plane joint
Condyloid joint
Ball-and-socket joint
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59
Q

What joint is found between tarsal bones?

A

Plane joint

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60
Q

What joint is found between the trapezium carpal bone and 1st metacarpal bone?

A

Saddle joint

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61
Q

What joint is found in the hip?

A

Ball and socket

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62
Q

What joint is found in the elbow?

A

Hinge

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63
Q

What joint is found in the neck (c1 and c2)?

A

Pivot

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64
Q

What joint is found between the radius and carpal bones of the wrist?

A

Condyloid joint

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65
Q

Antagonist of masseter/temporalis?

A

Masseter/temporalis - jaw closer

Giastric - jaw opener

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66
Q

Antagonist of rectus abdominis?

A

Eractor spinae

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67
Q

Antagonist of tibialis anterior?

A

Soleus

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68
Q

What do synergist muscles do?

A

Help perform the same joint motion (as agonist muscles)

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69
Q

Four types of bone?

A

Long, short, flat and irregular

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70
Q

What type of bones are caprals and tarsals?

A

Short

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71
Q

What type of bone is the sesamoid bone?

A

short

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72
Q

What type of bone are ribcages?

A

flat

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73
Q

What bones produce blood?

A

Flatand irregular

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74
Q

What is the term for blood production?

A

Hematopoiesis

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75
Q

What type of bone is the pelvis?

A

Irregular

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76
Q

Percentage of bone that is collagen?

A

40%

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77
Q

Percentage of bone that is calcium and salts?

A

60%

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78
Q

What provides the hardness and rigidity of a bone?

A

The calcium and alts

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79
Q

What does collagen do to a bone?

A

Provides toughness and flexibility

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80
Q

Where is calcium and salts found in bone?

A

Between the collagen fibres

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81
Q

How is collegan fibre in bones in children presented?

A

They are randomly distributed compared to a mature bone

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82
Q

Four types of bone cells?

A

Osteoclasts, osteoblasts, osteocytes and osteogenic cells

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83
Q

What are osteoclasts? (Four main points)

A

Very large cell with many nuclei thought to:

  1. Improve reabsorption efficiency
  2. Breakdown one matrix
  3. Destroy and reabsorb bone
  4. Respond to mechanical stress
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84
Q

What are dig tunnels line with in bone?

A

With collagen by the Osteoblasts

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85
Q

What are osteoblasts? (4 points)

A

Located on the surface of the bone, they:

  1. Line tunnels with collagen
  2. Create bone matrix
  3. Build bone
  4. Differentiate into osteocytes when trapped in bone
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86
Q

What are osteocytes? (Four things)

A

Long cytoplasmic extensions that:

  1. Maintain bone matrix
  2. Hold bone together
  3. Mineralise the bone matrix (calcium and salts)
  4. Supply nutrients into the bone matrix
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87
Q

What are osteogenic cells?

A

Stem cells that develop into an osteoblast (to form bone) and then an osteocyte (to maintain bone)

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88
Q

What is the ECM composed of in tissues?

A

Proteins, salts, H2O and dissolved macromolecules

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89
Q

Two types of bone?

A

Traecular (spongy bone)

Compact (lamellar or cortical bone)

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90
Q

What is trabecular bone?

A

Greater surface area compared to compact bone

Promotes bone marrow to develop (produces red blood cels and lymphocytes, support the immune system).

Trabeculae form along lines of stess

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91
Q

What is compact bone?

A

Hard, dense bone

Support the body, stores calcium

Organised structure

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92
Q

How does a bone grow or remodel?

A

In response to the forces applied upon it

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93
Q

Where are long bones the thickest?

A

Along the shaft

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94
Q

How does handedness play a role in bone thickness?

A

Right or left hand that dominates tends to be thicker

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95
Q

Why is the shaft (long part) of the bone the thickest?

A

Bending stress is the greatest

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96
Q

Which bones are most likely to be at their thickest?

A

Where heavy, active muscles attach - where they are most likely to buckle

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97
Q

How many ossification centres in a foetus? (11 weeks prior to birth)

A

800

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98
Q

How many ossification centres in a neonate (new born)?

A

450

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99
Q

What ratio of skeleton is cartilaginous in neonates?

A

2/3rds

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100
Q

What percentage of skeleton in an adult is cartilaginous?

A

10%

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101
Q

What process does long bone develop through?

A

Endochondral ossification

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102
Q

What precedes bone formation?

A

Crtlagnoustissue

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103
Q

When can primary ossification centres be found?

A

8 weeks after fertilisation

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104
Q

When are secondary ossification centres found?

A

They are present after birth until growth stops

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105
Q

Stages of bone development

A 
Resting cartilage
Cartilage proliferation
Cartilage maturation
Cartilage calcification
Ossification
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106
Q

What is the spongy bone?

A

Trabecular

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107
Q

What forms along lines of stress?

A

Trabeculae

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108
Q

What are the types of muscle fibre directions?

A 
Circular
Convergent
Unipennate
Bipennate
Parallel-non-fusiform
Parallel-fusiform
Mutlipennate
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109
Q

What is the difference between parallel-fusiform and parallel-non-fusiform?

A

Parallel-fusiform gets bigger in the middle, whereas the non-fusiform doesn’t

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110
Q

What can circular muscles do?

A

Close an opening

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111
Q

What are long and short muscles good at?

A

Long muscles are better at controlling movement over joints that have a large range of motion.

Shorter, wider muscles are better at generating larger forces over a smaller range of motion

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112
Q

What is PCSA?

A

Physiological cross section area

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113
Q

What is the simple calculation for PCSA?

A

PCSA = Muscle Volume/Fibre Length

114
Q

What is the greatest predictor of force capacity?

A

The muscles physiological cross sectional area

115
Q

What is muscle force influenced by? (4)

A

Muscle architecture
Sarcomere length
Single motor unit
Type of contraction

116
Q

Three components of Hill’s mechanical model of muscle-tendon unit?

A

Contractile Component (CC)
Series Elastic Component (SEC)
Parallel Elastic Component (PEC)

117
Q

What composes the contractile component?

A

Muscle fibres, actin and myosin cross bridges

118
Q

What composes the series elastic component?

A

Intracellular titin and tendons

119
Q

What composes the parallel elastic component?

A

Connective tissues and passive cross bridge connections

120
Q

What are the three types of connective tissues?

A

Epimysium, perimysium and endomysium

121
Q

Optimal sarcomere operating length?

A

80-120% of resting length

122
Q

What does elasticity refer to?

A

It describes the tendency of a material to revert to its previous shape after deformation;

123
Q

What is the smallest functional unit in the musculoskeletal system?

A

The single motor unit

124
Q

What is force altered by in muscle contractions?

A

The NUMBER and DISCHARGE RATE of motor units

125
Q

What is force influenced by?

A

The number of different motor units that are discharging

126
Q

What is used to record a myo-electric action potential?

A

A EMG

127
Q

How many muscle fibres per motor unit in the eye?

A

6

128
Q

How many muscle fibres per motor unit in the quadriceps?

A

Roughly 2000

129
Q

What is the neuromuscular junction?

A

The connection between the nervous system and the muscle

130
Q

Other words for a neuromuscular junction?

A

Motor point, motor end plate, synatic cleft and synaptic terminal

131
Q

What neurotransmitter is released at the synaptic terminal?

A

Acetylcholine

132
Q

How is a myoelectric action potential triggered at the synaptic terminal?

A

By aCh binding to proteins on muscle cell membrane (G-Protein response)

133
Q

During a myoelectric action potential, where does the action potential sweep along into?

A

It sweeps along the mucle fibre into transverse (T) tubules

134
Q

Where is Ca2+ released from in an action potential?

A

The SR (Sarcoplasmic reticulum)

135
Q

What do calcium ions bind to in thin filament?

A

Troponin

136
Q

What happens once calcium ions bind to troponin during an action potential?

A

Myosin-binding sites are exposed

137
Q

What two processes slide thin filaments towards the centre of a sarcomere?

A

Cycles of myosin cross-bridge formation and breakdown

Coupled with ATP hydrolysis

138
Q

What removes Cytosolic Ca^2+ after an action potential ends?

A

Cytosolic CA^2+is removed by active transport into SR via a Ca^2+ pump

139
Q

What is the final step of a muscle contraction following an action potential?

A

Tropomyosin blockage of myosin-binding sites is restored, contraction ends, and muscle fibres relax

140
Q

What does a surface electromyography record?

A

The myoelectrical action potentials that are running along the muslce fibresunder the electrodes

141
Q

Six physiological factors that influence muscle force

A
  1. Muscle physiological cross-sectional area
  2. Pennation angle of muscle fibres
  3. Sarcomere length
  4. Type of contraction
  5. Number
142
Q

What is an atom?

A

Smallest unit of masure

143
Q

What is a molecule?

A

Two or more atoms

144
Q

What is a macromolecule?

A

More complex molecules (Protein, dNA) combining together to form organelles

145
Q

Four types of tissues?

A

Epithelial
Nervous
Muscle
Connective

146
Q

Wha is the study of tissues?

A

Histology

147
Q

What percentage of body weight do nerves take??

A

~3%

148
Q

What muscles move the food along the digestive tract?

A

Peristalsis

149
Q

What characteristics define connective tissue?

A

Few cells + an extensive ECM

150
Q

Where is fibrous connective tissue found?

A

In tendons ad ligaments

151
Q

What is fibrous connective tissue? How is it structures?

A

Dense bundles of collagen fibres. Collagen generally lies in parallel.

152
Q

What does fibrous connective tissue do?

A

Provides shock absorption
Limits range of motion
Transmits force from muscle to bone

153
Q

What is cartilage? Where is it found?

A

Smooth elastic connective tissue.

Covers and protects the ends of long bones at the joints, but always found between the ribs, in the ear, nose etc

154
Q

What are cartilage cells called?

A

Chondrocytes

155
Q

What do chondrocytes secrete? What does this do?

A

They secrete collagen and other substances to make tissue strong and flexible

156
Q

What happens to most cartilage during development and maturity?

A

It is replaced by bone

157
Q

What type of tissue is bone?

A

Connective tissue

158
Q

What cells deposit collagen?

A

Osteoblasts

159
Q

What cells maintain the matrix with calcium and salts?

A

Osteocytes

160
Q

What are osteons?

A

Concentric layers of the mineralised matrix around blood vessels in compact bone

161
Q

What is the integumentary system?

A

Skin and its derivatives (hair, claws, skin glands)

162
Q

What is peak height velocity?

A

The period where maximum rate of growth occurs during adolescence

163
Q

what is the strongest indicator of risk of osteoporosis?

A

Bone acquisition during childhood and adolescence

164
Q

How does bone develop in foetuses?

A

Cartilaginous tissue precedes bone formation

Primary ossification centres form ~8 weeks after fertilisation

165
Q

What are the areas of a bone to start developing?

A

Primary ossification centres

166
Q

Stages of bone development?

A
  1. Cartilage cell increase in cell number and size
  2. Tissue is calcified
  3. Tissue is invaded by nutrients and osteoblasts
  4. Osteoclasts remodel the internal structure
167
Q

What is the outer layer of bone called?

A

Harder external cortex

168
Q

What is the less dense internal region of bone?

A

Hollow structure

169
Q

In regards to weight and strength, what is a bone?

A

Light and strong

170
Q

How do bones develop?

A

Via endochondral ossification

171
Q

When are secondary ossification centres present?

A

After birth until growth stops

172
Q

Where can all stages of bone development be seen?

A

In a growth (epiphyseal) plate

173
Q

Stages of development in an epiphyseal plate?

A 
Resting cartilage
Cartilage proliferation
Cartilage maturation
Cartilage calcification
Ossification
174
Q

What is a sign ossification has occured?

A

Osteoblasts forming bone

175
Q

What is a sign cartilage calcification has occurred?

A

Extracellular matrix becomes calcified

176
Q

What is a sign of cartilage maturation?

A

Hypertrophy

177
Q

What is asign of cartilage proliferation?

A

Hyperplasia

178
Q

Where are curved bones thickest?

A

Where they are most likely to buckle

179
Q

Where are long bones thickest?

A

Midway down the shat

180
Q

Where are bony projections found?

A

Where heavy, active muscles attach

181
Q

Where do lines of stress form in the bone?

A

On the trabeculae

182
Q

What happens to trabecular during decay?

A

A decrease in the number of traberculae (“small rods”)

183
Q

How is a muscle fibre formed?

A

A fibre is made from a large number of fused embroyonic cells (myoblasts)

184
Q

Why does a muscle have multiple nuclei?

A

For it is formed from multiple embryonic cells (myoblasts)

185
Q

What are satellite cells?

A

Stem cells that can differentiate into myoblasts and sit within the endomysium

186
Q

When do myoblasts fuse to other muscle cells?

A

During growth and repair throughout the life-span

187
Q

What are satellite cells most important for during maturation?

A

Hypertrophy

188
Q

What do myoblasts cells do in utero?

A

Elongate and aggregate into bundles. They fuse longitudinally and form the multinucleated fibres (myotubes)

189
Q

When do myoblasts become striated in utero?

A

Striated by the 3rd month of development

190
Q

How are myotubes formed?

A

By fusion of myoblasts

191
Q

When do our muscles start producing force?

A

12 weeks1

192
Q

Total weight of infant that is muscle?

A

~25%

193
Q

Total weight of adult Male (20 yrs) that is muscle? What about female?

A

~40%, female roughly 30-35%

194
Q

Contraction speed of slow oxidative muscle fibre?

A

Slow

195
Q

Contraction speed of fast oxidative muscle fibre?

A

Fast

196
Q

Contraction speed of fast glycolytic muscle fibre?

A

Fast

197
Q

Major ATP source of slow oxidative muscle fibre?

A

Aerobic respiration

198
Q

Major ATP source of fast oxidative muscle fibre?

A

Aerobic respiration

199
Q

Major ATP source of fast glycolytic muscle fibre?

A

Glycolysis

200
Q

Rate of fatigue of slow oxidative muscle fibre?

A

Slow

201
Q

Rate of fatigue of fast oxidative muscle fibre?

A

Interediate

202
Q

Rate of fatigue of fast glycolytic muscle fibre?

A

Fast

203
Q

Mitochondria count of slow oxidative fibres?

A

Many

204
Q

Mitochondria count of fast oxidative fibres?

A

Many

205
Q

Mitochondria count of fast glycolytic fibres?

A

Few

206
Q

Myoglobin content of slow oxidative fibres?

A

High (red muscle)

207
Q

Myoglobin content of fast oxidative fibres?

A

High (red muscle)

208
Q

Myoglobin content of fast glycolytic fibres?

A

Low (white muscle)

209
Q

Can an ultrasound give information about fibre types?

A

No

210
Q

Two types of input to motorneuron in the spinal cord?

A

Excitatory and inhibitory inputs

211
Q

Where do excitatory and inhibitory inputs generate?

A

Excitatory and inhibitory post synaptic potentials (EPSP and IPSP’s)

212
Q

Motor areas of the brain?

A

Brain stem and cerebellum

213
Q

What does the brain stem for for motor control?

A

Basic movement and posture

214
Q

What does the cerebellum for for motor control?

A

Refining information

215
Q

What does the spinal cord do in regards to motor control?

A

Reflex activity (involuntary movement)

216
Q

Steps of using ATP during skeletal muscle contraction?

A
  1. Contraction begins when ATP is hydrolosyed to create ADP and an inorganic phosphate
  2. This energy allows the myosin head to extend and attach to a binding site on the actin forming a cross bridge
  3. Allowing the power stroke. Pulling of actin across myosin. Shortening the sacromere
  4. ADP and inorganic phosphate are released during power stroke
  5. Myosin remains attached to actin (in a lo energy state until a new ATP molecule binds
217
Q

What are the three types of connective tissue?

A

Collagenous fibres
Reticular fibres
Elastic fibres

218
Q

What do collagenous fibres do?

A

Provide strength and flexibility

219
Q

What do reticular fibres do?

A

Join connective tissue to adjacent tissues

220
Q

What do elastic fibres do?

A

Make tissue elastic

221
Q

When you pinch the skin on the back of your hand, how do the three connective tissues work together?

A

The collagenous and reticular fibres prevent the skin from being pulled far from the bone, while the elastic fibres restore it back to its place.

222
Q

What is the most widesead connective tissue in the vertebrate body?

A

Loose connective tissue

223
Q

What does loose connective tissue do? Where is it found?

A

Binds epithelia to underlying tissues and holds organs in place. Found in the skin and throughout the body

224
Q

Where does loose connective tissue get its name from?

A

The loose weave of its fibres

225
Q

What is fibrous connective tissue? Where is it found?

A

Tissue dense with collagenous fibres. Found in tendons and ligaments.

226
Q

What connects bone to bone?

A

Ligaments

227
Q

What connects muscles to bone?

A

Tendons

228
Q

What repeating units form the concrete structure of bone?

A

Osteons

229
Q

What is the energy storage cell?

A

Adipose

230
Q

What does cartilage consist of?

A

Collagenous fibres embedded in a rubbery protein-carbohydrate complex

231
Q

In cartilage, what is the rubbery protein-carbohydrate complex called?

A

The chondroitin sulphate

232
Q

What cells are found in a chondroitin sulphate?

A

Chondrocytes

233
Q

What do chondrocytes do?

A

Secrete the collagen and chondroitin sulphate, which together make a strong yet flexible supportive material.

234
Q

What cell shape are smooth muscle?

A

Striated and spindle shaped

235
Q

What muscle types are voluntary and involuntary?

A

Muscle = V
Smooth Muscle = IV
Cardiac Muscle = IV

236
Q

How does cardiac muscles connect? What does this achieve?

A

Via intercalated disks, which relay signals from cell to cell and help synchronise heart contractions

237
Q

What do glial cells do?

A

Help nourish, insulate and replenish neurons. In some cases modulate neuron functioning.

238
Q

What junctions are found between nerves?

A

Gap junctions

239
Q

What do neurotrasmitters package into at the presynaptic neuron?

A

Synaptic vessicles

240
Q

What is the distance of the synaptic cleft typically?

A

50nm

241
Q

What is a ligan-gated ion channel also called?

A

Ionotrpic receptor

242
Q

What can a hypolarisation that occurs at the postsynaptic membrane result in? Why?

A

A inhibitory postsnaptic potential, because it moves the membrane potential further from theshold

243
Q

What occurs when two ESPS signals happen in rapid summation?

A

Temporal summation

244
Q

What occurs when two different sources of postsynaptic neurons occur simultaneously?

A

Spatial summation

245
Q

In G-protein responses, what does the neurotrasmitter bind to?

A

A metabotropic receptor

246
Q

What enzyme terminates acetylcholine?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

247
Q

What is the effect of acetylcholine in the heart? Why does this occur?

A

Inhibitory rather than excitatory. In the heart, acetylcholine released by neurons activates a signal transduction pathway.

The G proteins in the pathway inhibit adenylyl cyclase and open potassium channels in the muscle cell membrane. Both effects reduce the rate at which the heart pumps.

248
Q

Two major classes of aetylcholine receptors?

A

One is a ligand-gated ion channel, other is ionotropic found in the CNS and PNS

249
Q

Most common neurotrasmitter in the CNS of vertebrates?

A

Glutamate

250
Q

Difference between vertebrates and invertebrates at the neuromuscular junction?

A

Invertebrates use glatamate instead of acetylcholine

251
Q

What is the neurotransmitter at most inhibitory synapses in the brain?

A

Gama-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

252
Q

What does binding of GABA to receptors in postsynaptic cells result in?

A

Permeability to Cl-, resulting in an IPSP

253
Q

What does vallium bind to?

A

A GABA receptor in the brain (causing IPSP)

254
Q

What does nicotine bind to?

A

A ionotropic receptor that acetylcholine binds to, resulting in physiological and psychological stimulaton

255
Q

Five types of neurotransmitters?

A 
Acetylecoline
Amino acids
Biogenic Amines
Neuropeptides
Gases
256
Q

Most diverse group of neurotransmitters?

A

Neuropeptides

257
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is nonadreneline?

A

A biogenic amine

258
Q

What do depression drugs usually focus on? (What type of neurotransmitter?)

A

Increasing brain concentrations of biogenic amines

259
Q

How does prozac work?

A

It enhances the effect of serotonin by inhibiting its reuptake after release

260
Q

How does botox work?

A

By blocking transmission at synapses (inhibiting acetylcholine) of particular face muscles

261
Q

What are neuropeptides?

A

Relatively short chains of amino acids that serve as neurotransmitters and operate via metabotropic receptors

262
Q

Key neurotransmitter of pain? What type os neurotransmitter is it?

A

Substance P - a neuropeptide

263
Q

What decrease pain reception?

A

Endorphins

264
Q

In addition to decreasing pain, what do endorphins do?>

A

Reduce urine output, decrease respiration, produce euphoria and stimualte good emotions

265
Q

How do opiates work?

A

By binding to same receptors as endorphins

266
Q

How do males become erect?

A

By release of nitric oxide into tissue of penis

267
Q

How does viagra work?

A

By inhibiting an enzyme that terminates the action of nitric oxide

268
Q

How is nitric acid stored? (As a neurotransmitter)

A

It’s not stored, but synthesised on demand

269
Q

Can CO work as a neurotransmitter? How?

A

In the brain, CO regulates the release of hypothalamic hormones. In the PNS, it acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter that hyperpolarises the plasma membrane of intestinal smooth muscle cells.

270
Q

If you were to inhibit acetylcholinesterase, what would happen to the EPSP produced by acetylcholine?

A

They would remain for longer since the neurotransmitter would remain longer in the synaptic cleft

271
Q

Three membrane activites that occur both in fertilisation of an eff and in neutrotransmission across a synapse?

A

Membrane depolarisation
Exocytosis
Membrane fusion

272
Q

Major component of thin filaments? What type of protein is it?

A

Globular protein actin

273
Q

What type of molecules make up thick filaments?

A

Myosin molecules

274
Q

What gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance?

A

The borders of the sarcomeree line up in adjacent myofibrils, forming a pattern of light and dark band (striatations) visible with a light microscope

275
Q

What does calcium bind to in the sacromere?

A

Troponin

276
Q

What does tropomyosin do to myosin?

A

Blocks the myosin head

277
Q

How does calcium move tropomoyosin out of the way?

A

By binding to troponin and it then moves tropomyosin out of the way

278
Q

How does tropomyosin disconnect from myosin?

A

Low calcium makes troponin go back to its standard configuration and makes tropomyosin block the myosin head once again

279
Q

Difference between afferent and efferent?

A

Afferent takes information to the cns

Efferent is the effector (to the muscles)

280
Q

In the animal cell, what part of cytoskeleton does not contribute to motility?

A

Out of microtubules, intermediate filaments and microfilaments, intermediate filaments (fibrous proteins) play no part

281
Q

Percentage of body weight that is bone?

A

15%

282
Q

Difference between compact and cancellous bone?

A

Compact bones are made of osteons while spongy bones are made of trabeculae.

Compact bones are tough and heavy while spongy bones are light.

Compact bones fill the outer layer of most of the bones while spongy bones fill the inner layer of the bones

BIOM1050 (7 decks)

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