MOD1 (MANOR) ORGMED

Question 1

282. Halazone is a/an:
     a. iodophor d. oxidizing agent
     b. mercury containing anti-infective e. none of the above
     c. chlorine containing anti-infective

Answer 1

C

Question 2

239. The therapeutic uses of amphetamines does not include which of the following:
     a. in hyperkinetic children c. obesity e. hypertension
     b. narcolepsy d. parkinsonism

Answer 2

E

Question 3

178. Thiabendazole (Mintezol), a benzimidazole derivative, is an anthelmintic drug used primarily to treat
     infections caused by:
     a. Ascaris c. Strongyloides e. Taenia saginata (flatworm)
     b. Necator americanus (hookworm) d. Enterobios vermicularis

Answer 3

C

Question 4

195. For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by
     intravenous route?
     a. miconazole c. ketoconazole e. nystatin
     b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol

Answer 4

B

Question 5

121. Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action:
     a. amorbital b. Phenobarbital c. pentobarbital d. secobarbital

Answer 5

A

Question 6

132. A diuretic that will manifest a competitive inhibition of the action of aldosterone:
     a. Triamterene b. Spirinolactone c. Furosemide d. Chlorothiazide

Answer 6

B

Question 7

12. A fourth generation cephalosphorins:
    a. Cefaloxin b. Cefepime c. Cefamandole d. Cefuroxime

Answer 7

B

Question 8

263. These anti-diarrheals trap the toxins and flushes them out of your system:
     a. adsorbents b. anti-motility agents c. astringents d. oral rehydration salts

Answer 8

A

Question 9

152. The quinolone derivative effective against P. Aeruginosa is:
     a. norfloxacin c. ofloxacin e. lomefloxacin
     b. ciprofloxacin d. enoxacin

Answer 9

B

Question 10

93. The prototype narcotic antagonist is:
    a. nalorphine b. naloxone c. levallorphan d. meperidine

Answer 10

B

Question 11

226. Which of the following bases is most susceptible to alkylating agents?
     a. adenosine c. thymidine e. uridine
     b. cytosine d. guanine

Answer 11

D

Question 12

52. Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins
    render:
    a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria
    b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance

Answer 12

B

Question 13

293. A potentially fatal aplastic anemia is a toxicity associated with:
     a. chloramphenicol b. nitrofurantoin c. clindamycin d. cephalothin

Answer 13

A

Question 14

259. Also known as solvent shift:
     a. facilitated transport c. bulk transport e. none of the above
     b. ion-pair transport d. passive diffusion

Answer 14

C

Question 15

176. A broad-spectrum anthelmintic that is effective against a variety of nematode infestations and is the generic
     name of Antiox:
     a. Piperazine b. Thiabendazole c. Pyrantel pamoate d. Mebendazole

Answer 15

D

Question 16

205. Acetaminophen is preferred over aspirin in following conditions, except:
     a. rheumatic disease d. children with influenza
     b. patients with peptic ulcer e. children with chicken pox
     c. patients with bronchial asthma

Answer 16

A

Question 17

141. Liquefied phenol, USP:
     a. phenol containing 10% water c. carbol-fuchsin solution
     b. phenol as surgical antiseptic d. treatment of tinea infection

Answer 17

A

Question 18

244. Chelating agent that is an effective antidote foe copper poisoning and used in the treatment of Wilson’s
     disease:
     a. deferoxamine mesylate b. dimercaprol c. penicillamine d. EDTA

Answer 18

C

Question 19

177. A common agent in smoking cessation programs providing patches:
     a. lobeline b. nicotine c. emetine d. coal tar

Answer 19

B

Question 20

172. Levodopa is used in the treatment of:
     a. leukemia c. Alzheimer’s disease
     b. Parkinson’s disease d. Tay Sach’s disease

Answer 20

B

Question 21

92. The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:
    a. lipid solubility c. plasma binding
    b. renal excretion d. method of administration

Answer 21

A

Question 22

242. Mechanism of action of trimethoprim:
     a. competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA c. inhibits protein synthesis
     b. folate reductase inhibitor d. destruction of bacterial cell wall

Answer 22

B

Question 23

64. Mescaline is a _________ derivative:
    a. indolethylamine b. phenylethylamine c. steroidal d. xanthine

Answer 23

B

Question 24

65. Anesthetic of choice for labor:
    a. halothane b. enflurance c. nitrous oxide d. methoxyflurane

Answer 24

D

Question 25

202. Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial parasite:
     a. will be effective for radical cure c. will not be clinically effective
     b. will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis d. will both be effective for prophylaxis and radical use

Answer 25

B

Question 26

60. Drug of choice for absence seizures:
    a. carbamazepine b. ethosuximide c. phenytoin d. primidone

Answer 26

B

Question 27

189. The most potent of the inhalation anesthetic agents:
     a. methoxyflurane c. enflurane e. isoflurane
     b. halothane d. nitrous oxide

Answer 27

A

Question 28

194. All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:
     a. ampicillin c. streptomycin e. amikacin
     b. kanamycin d. neomycin

Answer 28

A

Question 29

123. CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant property, except:
     a. Methacarbamol, USP c. Baclofen e. Meprobamate
     b. Carisoprodol, USP d. Buspirone

Answer 29

E

Question 30

229. Penicillin is the drug of choice for the following infective conditions, except:
     a. gonococcal infection d. streptococcal infection
     b. pneumococcal infection e. pseudomonal infection
     c. treponema pallidum infection

Answer 30

E

Question 31

238. All of the following chemotherapeutic agents are useful for prophylaxis against infections caused by
     specific microorganisms, except:
     a. amantadine against influenza A virus d. tetracycline against rickettsial infection
     b. chloramphenicol against typhoid fever e. pyrimethamine against malaria in endemic areas
     c. isoniazid against tubercular infection

Answer 31

B

Question 32

264. Drug of choice for urinary tract infections:
     a. co-trimoxazole b. gentamicin c. naprofen d. all of the above

Answer 32

A

Question 33

248. Passive diffusion includes what drug?
     a. Lipid soluble b. Lipid insoluble c. Amphoteric d. Hydrophilic

Answer 33

A

Question 34

129. Which of the following actions of histamine is not blocked by H1 antagonist:
     a. increase in salivary excretion c. vasodilation
     b. increase in gastric secretions d. itchiness

Answer 34

B

Question 35

51. Cidex:
    a. gammabenzenehexachloride c. hexachlorophene
    b. glutarol d. carbamoyl phosphate

Answer 35

B

Question 36

232. Sensitivity of gram negative bacilli to amoxicillin is due to its:
     a. carboxyl group c. hydroxyl group e. carbonyl group
     b. nitro group d. amino group

Answer 36

D

Question 37

297. Pharmacologic effects of the classic antihistamines include all of the following, except:
     a. sedation with low doses c. an antipruritic effect
     b. inhibition of gastric acid secretion d. drying of salivary and bronchial secretion

Answer 37

B

Question 38

151. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?
     a. Polymyxin B c. Dicloxacillin e. Streptomycin
     b. Penicillin G d. Carbenicillin

Answer 38

C

Question 39

43. Fertility vitamins:
    a. retinoic acid b. riboflavin c. alpha tocopherol d. biotin

Answer 39

C

Question 40

49. The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:
    a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary

Answer 40

A

Question 41

211. Diphenoxylate, an effective antidiarrheal drug is:
     a. related to meperidine c. a narcotic antagonist e. anticholinergic action
     b. atropine-like drug d. a ganglion-blocking drug

Answer 41

A

Question 42

55. A tumor is benign if:
    a. metastasis is evident
    b. cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage
    c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur
    d. cause damage to surrounding structures

Answer 42

C

Question 43

84. Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are:
    a. nasal decongestants b. analgesic c. vasoconstrictor d. bronchodilator

Answer 43

D

Question 44

120. Retin-A is:
     a. alltoin b. adapalene c. tretinoin d. benzoyl peroxide

Answer 44

C

Question 45

80. The functional group in pyridoxine is:
    a. alcohol b. amine c. carboxylic acid d. ketone

Answer 45

A

Question 46

158. AZT or Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of:
     a. Koch’s infection b. HIV or AIDS c. carbuncle d. ringworm

Answer 46

B

Question 47

4. The following are preservatives except:
   a. undecylenic acid b. Methyl paraben c. benzoic acid d. potassium sorbate

Answer 47

A

Question 48

112. Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS.
     a. caffeine b. theophylline c. theobromine d. all of the above

Answer 48

A

Question 49

134. Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:
     a. ototoxic c. hyperglycemic e. goiterogenic
     b. carcinogenic d. hepatotoxic

Answer 49

A

Question 50

255. Classified as a macrolide antibiotic, except:
     a. Bacitracin b. Erythromycin c. Spiramycin d. Oleandomycin

Answer 50

A

Question 51

227. Vincristine is used primarily in the treatment of which of the following?
     a. Hodgkin’s disease c. liver cancer e. prostate cancer
     b. lung cancer d. melanoma

Answer 51

A

Question 52

247. Synthesized from dry hydrogen chloride and carbon monoxide at 300 degrees and 200 atm pressure:
     a. tetrachloroethylene b. piperazine c. both d. none

Answer 52

A

Question 53

53. Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
    a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria
    b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance

Answer 53

D

Question 54

35. Use of crotamiton:
    a. pediculicide b. scabicide c.anthelmintic d. antibacterial

Answer 54

B

Question 55

153. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?
     a. Ampicillin c. Carbenicillin e. Mezlocillin
     b. Oxacillin d. Ticarticillin

Answer 55

B

Question 56

94. Lysergic acid diethylamide is:
    a. derived from mushroom c. histamine analog
    b. a parasympathetic drug d. ergot derivative

Answer 56

D

Question 57

166. These are calcium channel blockers, except:
     a. Verapamil b. Nifedipine c. Atenolol d. Diltiazem

Answer 57

C

Question 58

21. Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines:
    a. quinolines b. biguanides c. beta-lactams d. quinolones

Answer 58

B

Question 59

124. The drug of choice for the treatment of genital herpes being potent against DNA formation:
     a. Symmetrel b. Herplex c. Acyclovir d. Vidarabine

Answer 59

C

Question 60

181. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents has a good penetrability into the cerebrospinal fluid?
     a. streptomycin c. tobramycin e. cephalexin
     b. gentamicin d. chloramphenicol

Answer 60

D

Question 61

161. The generic name of Duracef:
     a. Cephradine b. Cephazoline c. Cephadroxil d. Cephalexin

Answer 61

C

Question 62

260. Externally, ethyl alcohol is employed as:
     a. refrigerant c. astringent
     b. rubefacient d. all of the above

Answer 62

D

Question 63

155. A thiazide diuretic can:
     a. enhance action of amphetamines d. enhance action of oral hypoglycemics
     b. antagonize action of guanethidine e. antagonize action of tricyclic antidepressants
     c. antagonize action of digitalis drugs

Answer 63

A

Question 64

71. A characteristic of cancer cells:
    a. lack of normal growth controls c. G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types
    b. synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase d. None of the above

Answer 64

A

Question 65

240. Nitrous oxide, a general anesthetic agent, is characterized by all of the features of which of the following
     groups?
     a. high potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
     b. low potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
     c. high potency, poor analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
     d. high potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
     e. low potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation

Answer 65

B

Question 66

111. Polyene antibiotics include:
     I. nystatin II . amphotericin B III. Griseofulvin
     a. I only b. III only c. I and II d. II and III

Answer 66

C

Question 67

147. Levarterenol (Levophed) is:
     a. L-epinephrine c. Isoproterenol e. L-ephedrine
     b. L-norepinephrine d. L-dopa

Answer 67

B

Question 68

270. Transport of drug molecules from the site of administration to the systemic circulation:
     a. absorption c. metabolism e. toxicology
     b. adsorption d. excretion

Answer 68

A

Question 69

63. Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:
    a. potassium iodide b. tyloxapol c. guaiafenesin d. emetine

Answer 69

C

Question 70

46. A sample drug excreted via the saliva:
    a. lidocaine b. sulfonamide c. sulfonamide d. thiamine

Answer 70

A

Question 71

110. Bonamine is:
     a. meclizine b. dramamine c. scopolamine d. aspirin

Answer 71

A

Question 72

200. Heparin is a/an:
     a. extract of animal tissue c. metal e. enzyme
     b. extract of plant d. hormone

Answer 72

A

Question 73

201. Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is:
     a. amodiaquine c. primaquine e. mefloquine
     b. chloroquine d. quinine

Answer 73

B

Question 74

58. The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given:
    a. orally b. intravenously c. via inhalation d. rectally

Answer 74

C

Question 75

136. Acetazolamide (Diamox) is rarely the drug of choice for diuretic therapy because it:
     a. is too potent
     b. causes systemic acidosis and alkaline urine
     c. is habit forming
     d. does not exhibit tachyphylaxis
     e. induces enzymes, especially carbonic anhydrases

Answer 75

B

Question 76

125. The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within
     erythrocytes:
     a. primaquine b. pyrimethamine c. quinacrine d. chloroquine

Answer 76

A

Question 77

193. Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should be avoided due to several reasons. Which of
     these is not true?
     a. they chelate calcium ions
     b. they may predispose to discoloration of deciduous teeth in the infant
     c. they are toxic to the fetus and may cause abortion
     d. they can cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother
     e. they get deposited in growing bones

Answer 77

C

Question 78

191. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the aminoglycoside antibiotics?
     a. they are highly ionized in solution d. they are ototoxic and nephrotoxic
     b. they are bactericidal e. they are easily absorbed after oral administration
     c. they are more effective in alkaline medium

Answer 78

E

Question 79

68. Propionic acid derivative:
    a. paracetamol b. dipyrone c. piroxicam d. naproxen

Answer 79

D

Question 80

91. Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following
    chemically?
    a. enzymes b. porphyrins c. proteins d. lipids

Answer 80

D

Question 81

234. The following antibiotic possess clinically useful antimalignant property, except:
     a. mitomycin c. streptomycin e. plicamycin
     b. bleomycin d. daunorubicin

Answer 81

C

Question 82

182. The scientist who can lay claim to the title of Father of Chemotherapy:
     a. Robert Koch c. Paul Ehrlich e. Giuseppe Brotzu
     b. Joseph Lister d. Alexander Fleming

Answer 82

C

Question 83

100. Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:
     a. penicillins b. cephalosphorins c. macrolides d.. aminoglycosides

Answer 83

D

Question 84

2. The generic name of Nizoral:
   a. Meconazole b. Clotrimazole c. Ketoconazole d. Potassium sorbate

Answer 84

C

Question 85

204. Drug of choice for ringworm infection is:
     a. nystatin c. griseofulvin e. amphotericin B
     b. ketoconazole d. neomycin

Answer 85

C

Question 86

167. The generic name of the brand Diabinese:
     a. Chlorpropramide b. Glibenclamide c. Metformin d. Acetohexamide

Answer 86

A

Question 87

280. Generic name of Benadryl AH:
     a. guaiafenesin b. diphenhydramine c. apomorphine d. benzonatate

Answer 87

B

Question 88

50. Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins:
    a. penicillenic acid b. penicilloic acid c. penicilloate Cl d. pinecillic acid

Answer 88

A

Question 89

184. This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol:
     a. NO2 group c. OH group e. benzene group
     b. NH2 group d. COOH group

Answer 89

A

Question 90

115. Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an:
     a. wax b. silicone c. sulfur d. ketone

Answer 90

B

Question 91

243. A drug molecule which possesses both intrinsic activity and affinity:
     a. agonist b. antagonist c. poison d. none of the above

Answer 91

A

Question 92

241. A drug receptor may be all of the following, except:
     a. isolable enzyme c. protein or a nucleic acid
     b. functional component of a cell membrane d. chelates

Answer 92

D

Question 93

117. This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of labor pains in obstetrics:
     a. colchicines b. codeine c. apomorphine d. Demerol

Answer 93

D

Question 94

130. Opium is an example of:
     a. narcotic analgesic c. antipyretic analgesic
     b. non-steroidal analgesic d. anti-inflammatory analgesic

Answer 94

A

Question 95

162. The preparation is used as pediculicide:
     a. Ultralan cream b. Trimycin ointment c. Betronavate ointment d. Kwell lotion

Answer 95

D

Question 96

41. This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine:
    a. meclizine b. hyoscine c. dimenhydrinate d. celestamine

Answer 96

C

Question 97

221. All of the following statements are true concerning the penicillins, except:
     a. this class of antibacterials acts by damaging the cell walls of bacteria
     b. piperacillin and ticarcillin have activity against Pseudomonas species
     c. use of any penicillin is contraindicated in a patient who has had an allergic reaction to any one penicillin
     d. they are obtained from the genus of Streptomyces
     e. the addition of clavulanic acid to amoxicillin preparations protects the drug from penicillinase

Answer 97

D

Question 98

61. An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens:
    a. aspartame b. PCP c. BHT d. EDTA

Answer 98

C

Question 99

109. Aureomycin is:
     a. kanamycin b. erythromycin c. chlortetracycline d. oxytetracycline

Answer 99

C

Question 100

169. This drug is used as an osmotic diuretic:
     a. Mannitol b. Ethanol c. Isopropanol d. Glycitol

Answer 100

A

Question 101

218. Which of the following is not used for topical application on external surfaces?
     a. mafenide c. sodium sulfacetamide e. resorcinol
     b. silver sulfadiazine d. sulfisoxazole

Answer 101

D

Question 102

206. Oral neomycin and streptomycin are used for sterilization of bowel and for dysentery because:
     a. they are at least absorbed from oral route
     b. the peak concentration in blood is achieved quickly
     c. they are least toxic to GIT
     d. they are destroyed by the gastric juice

Answer 102

A

Question 103

140. An antimanic agent:
     a. haloperidol b. lithium salts c. LSD d. phenol

Answer 103

B

Question 104

220. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is not bactericidal?
     a. carbenicillin c. cefuroxime e. vancomycin
     b. gentamicin d. erythromycin

Answer 104

D

Question 105

15. The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples:
    a. Erythromycin b. Tetracycline c. Lincomycin d. Clindamycin

Answer 105

D

Question 106

148. The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
     a. streptomycin c. neomycin e. kanamycin
     b. amikacin d. tobramycin

Answer 106

A

Question 107

300. Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to cause:
     a. tinnitus b. hepatic necrosis c. agranulocytosis d. renal tubular acidosis

Answer 107

B

Question 108

170. These drugs are narcotic analgesics, except:
     a. morphine b. codeine c. nalbuphine d. mefenamic acid

Answer 108

D

Question 109

90. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:
    a. short acting b. intermediate acting c. long acting d. ultra short acting

Answer 109

D

Question 110

32. This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:
    a. silvadene b. sulfamylon c. whitfield d. vandol

Answer 110

B

Question 111

83. When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is:
    a. humectant c. oil soluble antioxidant
    b. demelanizing agent d. emulsifying agent

Answer 111

C

Question 112

127. Voltaren is:
     a. acemetacin b. ibuprofen c. diclofenac d. naproxen

Answer 112

C

Question 113

30. These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective:
    a. trimethoprim b. sulfones c. quinolones d. none of the above

Answer 113

B

Question 114

228. For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by
     intravenous route?
     a. miconazole c. ketoconazole e. nystatin
     b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol

Answer 114

B

Question 115

144. Tetracycline is:
     a. an intermediate spectrum, bactericidal c. a broad spectrum, bactericidal
     b. a broad spectrum, bacteriostatic d. an intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic

Answer 115

B

Question 116

146. The drug used in all types of tuberculosis is:
     a. ethambutol c. streptomycin e. p-aminosalicylic acid
     b. cycloserine d. isoniazid

Answer 116

D

Question 117

116. An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks:
     a. acetic acid b. lactic acid c. tartaric acid d. citric acid

Answer 117

C

Question 118

19. The generic name of new Merthiolate is:
    a. Chorhexidine gluconate c. Mexachlorophene
    b. Thimerosal d. Benzalkonium chloride

Answer 118

D

Question 119

186. Which is not true regarding ceftriaxone:
     a. a 3rd generation cephalosporin c. administered parenterally e. resistant to acid
     b. resistant to B-lactamase d. once daily dosing

Answer 119

E

Question 120

145. Which of the following is not soluble in or miscible with alcohol, USP?
     a. ether b. acacia c. methanol d. Phenobarbital e. water

Answer 120

B

Question 121

253. A phenol primarily obtained from clove oil:
     a. resorcinol b. cresol c. hexylresorcinol d. eugenol

Answer 121

D

Question 122

20. Mechanism of action of quinolones:
    a. injury to plasma membrane c. protein synthesis inhibition
    b. inhibition of DNA gyrase d. production of toxic free radicals

Answer 122

B

Question 123

99. Chloroquine is the generic name of:
    a. atabrine b. artane c. aralen d. akineton

Answer 123

B

Question 124

289. The following drugs are extensively metabolized in the liver, except:
     a. Isoproterenol b. Propranolol c. Lidocaine d. Paracetamol

Answer 124

D

Question 125

1. The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella
   typhi:
   a. Phenol number b. Phenol coefficient c. Phenol value d. None of the above

Answer 125

B

Question 126

96. Diamox has a generic name of:
    a. allopurinol b. acetazolamide c. dimethylxanthine d. theophylline

Answer 126

B

Question 127

11. These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:
    a. Tinidazole b. Chloroquine c. Etofamide d. Metronidazole

Answer 127

B

Question 128

133. Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by:
     a. acetylation c. oxidation e. methylation
     c. deamination d. conjugation

Answer 128

A

Question 129

14. The drug of choice for typhoid fever:
    a. Chloramphenicol b. Lincomycin c. Penicillin d. Cephalosporins

Answer 129

A

Question 130

214. Which of the following is the longest-acting nitrate?
     a. glyceryl trinitrate c. erythritol tetranitrate e. isosorbide dinitrate
     b. amyl nitrite d. pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Answer 130

D

Question 131

16. The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:
    a. therapeutics b. chemotherapy c. organic chemistry d. biochemistry

Answer 131

B

Question 132

114. The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:
     a. an androgen and a progestin c. an androgen and an estrogen
     b. an estrogen and progestin d. FSH and LH

Answer 132

B

Question 133

197. All of the following are effective and clinically useful against worm infestation caused by Ascaris
     Lumbricoides, except:
     a. piperazine c. mebendazole e. thiabendazole
     b. niridazole d. pyrantel pamoate

Answer 133

B

Question 134

183. Effective administration routes of nitroglycerin for angina pectoris include all of the following, except:
     a. oral b. inravenous c. transdermal d. sublingual

Answer 134

A

Question 135

118. Benzaldehyde is synthetic:
     a. cinnamon oil b. bitter almond oil c. corn oil d. rose oil

Answer 135

B

Question 136

188. An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity:
     a. acetylsalicylic acid c. mefenamic acid e. sulindac
     b. acetaminophen d. indomethacin

Answer 136

B

Question 137

38. An example of a glycine conjugation pathway:
    a. phenol to phenolsulfate c. noradrenaline to epinephrine
    b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid d. antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid

Answer 137

B

Question 138

76. A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:
    a. tocopherol b. retinal c. ergosterol d. retinol

Answer 138

B

Question 139

179. One of the reasons why aminoglycosides are frequently combined with other antibiotics in treating certain
     infections is to:
     a. prevent drug infections d. increase oral absorption
     b. prevent drug emergence of resistant bacteria e. decrease systemic toxicities
     c. increase renal excretion

Answer 139

B

Question 140

219. All of the following benzodiazepines are commonly used in the treatment of anxiety, except:
     a. chlordiazepoxide c. alprazolam e. diazepam
     b. clonazepam d. lorazepam

Answer 140

B

Question 141

296. Which of the following is most likely to cause tinnitus and hearing loss in high doses?
     a. ibuprofen b. phenylbutazone c. acetylsalicylic acid d. indomethacin

Answer 141

C

Question 142

173. The generic name of Nubain:
     a. Nalbuphine b. Naloxone c. Pentazocine d. Methadone

Answer 142

A

Question 143

224. The preferred agent for hypertensive emergencies:
     a. propranolol c. captopril e. sodium nitroprusside
     b. clonidine d. diazoxide

Answer 143

E

Question 144

251. Penicillin G
     a. Methicillin b. Benzyl penicillin c. both d. none

Answer 144

B

Question 145

272. Agents that facilitate the evacuation of bowels:
     a. anti-motility agents c. astringents e. none of the above
     b. cathartics d. antacids

Answer 145

B

Question 146

192. Baclofen, a derivative of GABA is used in:
     a. spasticity in patients with multiple sclerosis c. management of spasticity in rheumatic disorders
     b. parkinsonism d. spasticity of cerebral palsy

Answer 146

A

Question 147

283. Drug of choice for leprosy:
     a. rifampicin c. prothionamide e. dapsone
     b. ethonamide d. clofazimine

Answer 147

E

Question 148

131. Which of the following penicillin derivatives is both acid-stable and resistant to penicillinase?
     a. methicillin c. ampicillin e. phenoxymethyl penicillin
     b. disodium carbenicillin d. oxacillin

Answer 148

D

Question 149

37. A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite:
    a. Xenical b. Gas-X c. Apokinon d. Adifax

Answer 149

D

Question 150

7. Benzyl penicillin is also known as:
   a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin V c. Oxacillin d. Ampicillin

Answer 150

A

Question 151

36. Mechanism of action of mebendazole:
    a. paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium c. decreased glucose uptake
    b. unknown mechanism of action d. phagocytic attack on worms

Answer 151

C

Question 152

196. Which of the following agents is not used for local candidiasis?
     a. nystatin c. griseofulvin e. clotrimazole
     b. gentian violet d. miconazole

Answer 152

C

Question 153

107. Procaine is a/an:
     a. amine b. ester c. alcohol d. ketone

Answer 153

B

Question 154

40. These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools:
    a. adsorbents b. astringents c. anti-motility d. oresols

Answer 154

B

Question 155

223. An antibiotic most commonly used in topical preparations:
     a. clotrimazole c. griseofulvin e. foscarnet
     b. vidarabine d. bacitracin

Answer 155

D

Question 156

209. All of the following drugs interfere with platelet activity, except:
     a. aspirin c. protamine e. anisindione
     b. dimercaprol d. warfarin

Answer 156

B

Question 157

106. Ma huang is a/an:
     a. imidazole alkaloid b. alkaloidal amine c. purine d. steroidal alkaloid

Answer 157

B

Question 158

69. An example of iodophor:
    a. iodine tincture b. povidone-iodine c. Lugol’s solution d. all of the above

Answer 158

B

Question 159

98. Cevitamic acid is:
    a. folic acid b. ascorbic acid c. nicotinic acid d. glacial acetic acid

Answer 159

B

Question 160

85. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:
    a. lidocaine b. procaine c. dibucaine d. bupivacaine

Answer 160

A

Question 161

164. The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and vnblastine:
     a. Mayapple b. Periwinkle c. European year d. Datura alba

Answer 161

B

Question 162

285. Sunshine vitamin:
     a. A b. D c. E d. K

Answer 162

B

Question 163

86. All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except:
    a. erythromycin b. oleandomycin c. vancomycin d. spiramycin

Answer 163

C

Question 164

154. Rancidity of fats may be due to:
     a. reduction to alcohols c. oxidation of double bonds e. hydrogenation
     b. impurities d. saponification

Answer 164

C

Question 165

28. Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza:
    a. ribavirin b. rimantadine c. gancyclovir d. foscarnet

Answer 165

B

Question 166

274. Nubain:
     a. meperidine c. methadone e. pentazocine
     b. nalbuphine d. fentanyl

Answer 166

B

Question 167

102. 1,3-dimethylxanthine is:
     a. caffeine b. theobromine c. theophylline d. aminophylline

Answer 167

C

Question 168

122. Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the:
     a. maturation of osteoblast c. reduction of inflammation
     b. collagen formation d. epithelial proliferation

Answer 168

B

Question 169

103. Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is:
     a. pen V b. methicillin c. carbenicillin d. oxacillin

Answer 169

C

Question 170

257. The following antimalarials are synthetic drugs, except:
     a. Atabrine b. Aralen c. Camoquin d. Quinine

Answer 170

D

Question 171

72. Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:
    a. polychlorinated biphenyls c. butylatedhydroxyanisole
    b. acesulfame d. none of the above

Answer 171

A

Question 172

79. Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to:
    a. codeine b. methadone c. heroin d. pentazocine

Answer 172

C

Question 173

135. Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which rendered inactive in the presence of:
     a. organic acid c. cationic surfactants e. inorganic salts
     b. gram-negative organisms d. soaps

Answer 173

D

Question 174

198. A good local anesthetic should have all of the following properties, except:
     a. systemic toxicity should be low
     b. effective at body fluid pH
     c. onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of action to avoid toxicity
     d. must be effective regardless of the site of application
     e. not irritant to the tissue and should not cause any permanent structural damage to nerves

Answer 174

C

Question 175

298. An example of a commercial product that is pro-drug:
     a. Lasix b. Geocillin c. Morphine d. Valium

Answer 175

A

Question 176

268. Mechanism of action of this anti-tubercular agent is to inhibit protein synthesis:
     a. PZA b. Streptomycin c. INH d. Ethambutol

Answer 176

B

Question 177

87. Ativan has this generic name:
    a. triazolam b. lorazepam c. flurazepam d. tranexamic acid

Answer 177

B

Question 178

262. For patients allergic to penicillins, this drug is used as alternative:
     a. erythromycin c. aureomycin e. none of the above
     b. spectinomycin d. lincomycin

Answer 178

A

Question 179

273. Absolute alcohol is commercially prepared by:
     a. direct distillation c. azeotropic distillations
     b. fermentation d. none

Answer 179

C

Question 180

75. Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:
    a. oral hypoglycemics b. diuretics c. anti-inflammatory d. spasmolytic

Answer 180

A

Question 181

150. Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agents?
     a. Isoniazid c. Phenoxymethyl penicillin e. Tetracycline
     b. Chloramphenicol d. Erythromycin

Answer 181

E

Question 182

235. This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin:
     a. freeze-drying c. chromatography e. distillation
     b. extraction d. x-ray

Answer 182

A

Question 183

258. Polyene antibiotics for fungi:
     a. amphotericin B c. ketoconazole e. both b & c
     b. miconazole d. both a & b

Answer 183

A

Question 184

62. Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:
    a. rhodomine B c. p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol
    b. aluminum reagent d. dimethylglyoxime

Answer 184

A

Question 185

97. Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:
    a. dilantin b. codeine c. meperidine d. naloxone

Answer 185

C

Question 186

287. In terms of pH, aspirin is absorbed in the:
     a. mouth c. stomach e. rectum
     b. small intestines d. large intestines

Answer 186

C

Question 187

138. Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is an agent useful in the treatment of diarrhea. It is structurally similar to:
     a. kaolin c. diphenhydantoin e. oxalic acid
     b. meperidine d. pectin

Answer 187

B

Question 188

292. Superinfection is common with:
     a. antibiotics which are given parenterally c. those which suppress the normal bacterial flora
     b. those which are used for prolonged period d. those which are given as a depot preparation

Answer 188

C

Question 189

25. An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:
    a. suramin b. pentamidine c. efflornithine d. stibophen

Answer 189

B

Question 190

67. Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:
    a. ketamine b. thiopental c. enflurane d. none of the above

Answer 190

C

Question 191

215. Which of the following is considered a primary drug for the treatment of all seizure types except absence?
     a. carbamazepine c. valproic acid e. phenobarbital
     b. ethosuximide d. diazepam

Answer 191

A

Question 192

233. Bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia is the characteristic toxic effect of all the following
     drugs, except:
     a. oxytetracycline c. methotrexate e. dactinomycin
     b. chloramphenicol d. mitomycin

Answer 192

A

Question 193

252. Organo-Silicon polymers containing O and Si atoms with a substituent organic groups:
     a. silicons b. alkynes c. esters d. ethers

Answer 193

A

Question 194

81. Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are:
    a. enols b. esters c. ethers d. amines

Answer 194

A

Question 195

203. All statements regarding antipyretic analgesics are false, except:
     a. produce fall in blood pressure c. develop drug dependence e. produce general CNS depression
     b. raise the pain threshold d. relieve visceral pain

Answer 195

B

Question 196

104. Zantac is:
     a. cimetidine b. famotidine c. ranitidine d. nizatidine

Answer 196

C

Question 197

213. Which of the following drugs does not reduce blood cholesterol level?
     a. clofibrate c. destrothyroxine e. colestipol
     b. epinephrine d. cholestyramine

Answer 197

B

Question 198

149. The most effective agent in the treatment of Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia infection is:
     a. penicillin G c. vancomycin e. bacitracin
     b. tetracycline d. gentamicin

Answer 198

B

Question 199

236. The metabolite of the red dye, prontosil, responsible for its antimicrobial property:
     a. sulfisoxazole c. sulfanilamide e. sulfapyridine
     b. sulfamethoxazole d. sulfacetamide

Answer 199

C

Question 200

246. Dimercaprol is also known as:
     a. BAL b. Dithioglycerol c. both a & b d. none of the above

Answer 200

C

Question 201

225. Superior to acyclovir in the treatment of herpes viruses in the CNS in neonates:
     a. idoxuridine c. vidarabine e. zidovudine
     b. ribavirin d. amantadine

Answer 201

C

Question 202

165. A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer:
     a. alopecia b. miosis c. mydriasis d. ataxia

Answer 202

A

Question 203

6. A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:
   a. Griseofulvin b. Nystatin c. Salicylic acid d. Econazole

Answer 203

B

Question 204

265. Voltaren:
     a. tolmetin b. sulindac c. diclofenac d. piroxicam

Answer 204

C

Question 205

56. 1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:
    a. 100,000 cancer cells b. 1 billion cancer cells c. 1 million cancer cells d. none of the above

Answer 205

B

Question 206

23. The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria:
    a. chloroquine b. quinine c. amodiaquine d. cycloguanil

Answer 206

D

Question 207

157. Piperazine citrate (Antepar), gentian violet, pyrivinium pamoate (Povan) and thiabendazole
     (Mintezol) are all:
     a. anthelmintics c. antiseptics e. anticholinergics
     b. dyes d. scabicides

Answer 207

A

Question 208

59. A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer:
    a. tamoxifen b. depo-provera c. flutamide d. goserelin

Answer 208

B

Question 209

210. 6-aminopenicillanic acid is:
     a. major metabolite of penicillin
     b. responsible for development of penicillin resistance
     c. the common nucleus of all penicillins
     d. a long-acting penicillin
     e. minor metabolite of penicillin

Answer 209

C

Question 210

142. Castellani’s paint:
     a. phenol containing 10% water c. phenol as surgical antiseptic
     b. carbol-fuchsin solution d. antibacterial dye

Answer 210

B

Question 211

39. The following are characteristics of active transport, except:
    a. follow saturation kinetics c. carrier mediated
    b. expenditure of energy d. higher to lower concentration gradient

Answer 211

B

Question 212

143. This is an effective antidote for the treatment of poisoning by copper:
     a. penicillamine b. dimercaprol c. lugol’s solution d. castellani’s paint

Answer 212

A

Question 213

207. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about indomethacin?
     a. it is a powerful analgesic only
     b. it is a power anti-inflammatory only
     c. it is only analgesic and anti-inflammatory without antipyretic effect
     d. it is a powerful analgesic and anti-inflammatory agent with antipyretic and uricosuric actions
     e. it is powerful antipyretic only

Answer 213

D

Question 214

101. Epinephrine is also known as:
     a. tocopherol b. adrenalin c. emetine d. levarterenol

Answer 214

B

Question 215

250. Brand name of Bisacodyl:
     a. Gelusin MPX b. Dulcolax c. Haloperidol d. Fleet

Answer 215

B

Question 216

159. Is a folate-reductase inhibitor:
     a. Trimethoprim b. Sulfonamides c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline

Answer 216

A

Question 217

54. A glycopeptide antibiotic:
    a. beta-lactam b. vancomycin c. polymyxin d. probenecid

Answer 217

B

Question 218

276. The least stable of all vitamins:
     a. ascorbic acid c. thiamine e. menadione
     b. folic acid d. retinoic acid

Answer 218

A

Question 219

174. Methenamine is also called:
     a. Uridine b. Uracil c. Uric acid d. Urothropin

Answer 219

D

Question 220

48. Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:
    a. physical characteristics c. both a and c
    b. ability to bind on a specific receptor d. none of the above

Answer 220

B

Question 221

77. Paracetamol is a/an:
    a. salicylate b. pyrazolone c. aniline derivative d. azocine derivative

Answer 221

C

Question 222

126. Feldene is:
     a. sulindac b. piroxicam c. indomethacin d. ketoprofen

Answer 222

B

Question 223

18. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:
    a. Povidone-Ioduine b. Strong I2 solution c. Iodine Tincture d. I2 in KI solution

Answer 223

A

Question 224

288. Therapeutic gas used as a gas diluent/carrier:
     a. oxygen b. helium c. nitrogen d. carbon dioxide

Answer 224

B

Question 225

190. Which of the following antineoplastics is not considered an antimetabolite?
     a. methotrexate c. etoposide e. cytarabine
     b. thioguanine d. fluorouracil

Answer 225

C

Question 226

78. All of the following are progestins except:
    a. norethindrone b. testosterone c. ethynodiol diacetate d. progesterone

Answer 226

B

Question 227

139. Which of the following is classified as a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
     a. ampicillin c. sodium methicillin e. potassium phenethicillin
     b. penicillin G d. sodium cloxacillin

Answer 227

A

Question 228

44. Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized
    from:
    a. calcitonin b. vitamin D2 c. vitamin D3 d. caltrate

Answer 228

C

Question 229

29. More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:
    a. levo b. dextro c. cis isomer d. trans isomer

Answer 229

A

Question 230

267. The following are the uses of methylene blue, except:
     a. antidote for cyanide poisoning c. antidote for barbiturate poisoning
     b. antidote for nitrate poisoning d. none of the above

Answer 230

C

Question 231

237. Which of the following antiviral agents is not useful for the treatment of herpes virus infection?
     a. vidarabine c. trifluridine e. idoxuridine
     b. interferon d. acyclovir

Answer 231

B

Question 232

119. The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins:
     a. benzene ring b. B-lactam ring c. thiazole ring d. phenothiazone

Answer 232

B

Question 233

26. Methylated erythromycin:
    a. clarithromycin b. azithromycin c. lincomycin d. ilotycin

Answer 233

A

Question 234

108. The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an:
     a. amine b. alcohol c. ester d. ether

Answer 234

D

Question 235

271. Methylsalicylate is also known as :
     a. toothache drop b. oil of Jasmine c. oil of rose d. oil of wintergreen

Answer 235

D

Question 236

281. A bright red dye that was found to create remarkable cures of streptococcal infections:
     a. prontosil b. methyl red c. both d. none

Answer 236

A

Question 237

57. The following are mucolytics, except:
    a. bromhexine b. acetylcysteine c. caramiphen d. none of the above

Answer 237

C

Question 238

284. The metabolic function of niacin:
     a. decarboxylation c. differentiation of epithelial tissues
     b. redox reactions d. maturation of erythrocytes

Answer 238

B

Question 239

222. In choosing a specific benzodiazepine for the treatment of insomnia, all of the following are considerations,
     except:
     a. age of the patient
     b. mental status of the patient
     c. the half life of the drug
     d. the absorption of the drug
     e. the underlying sleep disorder being treated

Answer 239

B

Question 240

291. The excretion of weakly basic drug will be more rapid in acidic urine than in basic urine because:
     a. all drugs are excreted more rapidly in acidic urine
     b. the drug will exist primarily in the unionized form, which cannot easily be reabsorbed
     c. weak bases cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules
     d. the drug will exist primarily in the ionized form, which cannot be easily reabsorbed

Answer 240

D

Question 241

216. Which of the following penicillins is acid stable and therefore orally effective:
     a. benzathine penicillin c. cloxacillin e. piperacillin
     b. procaine penicillin d. tricarcillin

Answer 241

C

Question 242

230. All of the following drugs act as prodrugs and need to be converted in the body to active compound, except:
     a. levodopa c. prednisone e. cyclophosphamide
     b. salbutamol d. bacampicillin

Answer 242

B

Question 243

74. Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?
    a. imide b. amide c. amine d. aniline

Answer 243

C

Question 244

88. Plasil is:
    a. acyclovir b. metoclopramide c. diclofenac sodium d. tranexamic acid

Answer 244

B

Question 245

290. A dye used in vital nerve staining:
     a. malachite green b. gentian violet c. methylene blue d. basic fuchsin

Answer 245

C

Question 246

275. Kaopectate:
     a. activated charcoal c. Oresol e. atropine sulfate
     b. attaulgite d. kaolin + pectin

Answer 246

D

Question 247

295. Bactrim and Septrim are trade names for a fixed-dose combination of:
     a. sulfamethizole and trimethoxazole c. sulfamethoxazole and phenazopyridine
     b. sulfisoxazole and methenamine d. sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

Answer 247

D

Question 248

34. Active form of the sulfonamide:
    a. non-ionized b. ionized c. amphoteric d. oxo ring

Answer 248

B

Question 249

137. The antipsychotic drug loxapine succinate (Loxitane) is a _____ compound:
     a. phenothiazine c. dibenzoxazepine e. butyrophenone
     b. benzodiazepine d. thioxanthene

Answer 249

C

Question 250

175. Neurotoxicity caused by Isoniazid can be treated with:
     a. thiamine b. pyridoxine c. menaquinone d. ergocalciferol

Answer 250

B

Question 251

66. The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:
    a. Codeine b. Avamigran c. Litec d. Inderal

Answer 251

B

Question 252

269. Compounds that result from a combination of electron donors with a metal ion to form a ring structure:
     a. chelates b. ligands c. both d. none

Answer 252

A

Question 253

9. A fluoroquinolone:
   a. Norfloxacin b. Pipemedic acid c. Methenamine d. none of the above

Answer 253

A

Question 254

256. A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo:
     a. Achromycin b. Albamycin c. Erythromycin d. Viomycin

Answer 254

C

Question 255

5. The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:
   a. clotrimazole b. miconazole c. co-trimoxazole d. cotrimazine

Answer 255

C

Question 256

8. First generation urinary tract anti-infective:
   a. salicylic acid b. Griseofulvin c. Norfloxacin d. Nalidixic acid

Answer 256

D

Question 257

31. Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:
    a. paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation c. phagocytic attack on worms
    b. inhibition of cell division d. decreased glucose uptake

Answer 257

B

Question 258

82. MAO is classified as a/an:
    a. protein inhibitor b. complexing agent c. enzyme d. hormone

Answer 258

C

Question 259

266. The chemical name of Phenethicillin:
     a. Benzyl penicillin c. Phenoxyethyl penicillin
     b. Phenoxymethyl penicillin d. Phenoxypropyl penicillin

Answer 259

C

Question 260

279. Major organ for excretion:
     a. liver c. skin e. none of the above
     b. kidney d. small intestines

Answer 260

B

Question 261

105. Cytotec is:
     a. sucralfate b. misoprostol c. omeprazole d. pirenzepine

Answer 261

B

Question 262

299. All of the following statements are correct, except:
     a. sulfonamides increase the risk of neonatal kernicterus
     b. ketoconazole penetrates into the CSF
     c. metronidazole is effective against Enterobacter histolytica
     d. mebendazole is the drug of choice in the treatment of whipworm infections

Answer 262

B

Question 263

45. A metabolite of chloral hydrate:
    a. trichloroacetic acid b. acetaldehyde c. carbapenem ring d. phenacetone

Answer 263

A

Question 264

249. It is the tendency of the drug to combine with the receptor:
     a. Efficacy b. Intrinsic activity c. Bonding d. Affinity

Answer 264

D

Question 265

128. Depo-Provera is:
     a. cyproterone acetate c. medroxyprogesterone acetate
     b. nandrolene decanoate d. leuproreline acetate

Answer 265

C

Question 266

286. The following are fat-soluble vitamins, except:
     a. A b. B2 c. D d. E e. K

Answer 266

B

Question 267

294. Which is not true for cephalosporins?
     a. broad spectrum b. bactericidal c. affected by penicillinases d. acid-stable

Answer 267

C

Question 268

95. Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:
    a. acetic acid b. salicylic acid c. oxalic acid d. citric acid

Answer 268

B

Question 269

187. All of the following substances are present in opium, except:
     a. thebaine c. codeine e. papaverine
     b. methadone d. morphine

Answer 269

B

Question 270

113. A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:
     a. starch b. insulin c. dextrose d. dextran

Answer 270

D

Question 271

156. Surfactants are characterized by:
     a. the presence of water-solubilizing groups d. the presence of fat-solubilizing groups
     b. negative charges e. the presence of water-solubilizing and fat-solubilizing
     c. positive charges groups in the same molecule

Answer 271

E

Question 272

42. The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except:
    a. tolbutamide b. haloperidol c. nitroglycerine d. DDT

Answer 272

A

Question 273

3. Sulfonamides used for burn therapy:
   a. Mafenide b. Silver sulfadiazine c. both a and b d. none of the preceeding

Answer 273

C

Question 274

70. Phenylmethanol:
    a. chloretone b. benzyl alcohol c. phenylalcohol d. carvacrol

Answer 274

B

Question 275

160. The structure of this class of antibiotic has a beta-lactam ring and a thiazolidine ring.
     a. Tazobactam b. Penicillin c. Cephalosporins d. Monobactam

Answer 275

B

Question 276

245. Which is not a chelating agent?
     a. 8-Methoxyquinoline c. 8-Hydroxyquinoline
     b. 8-Mercaptoquinoline d. 4-AZA-Oxime

Answer 276

A

Question 277

171. This is used as an inhalation anesthetic:
     a. droperidol b. thiopental c. halothane d. midazolam

Answer 277

C

Question 278

217. A monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an antidepressant drug:
     a. amitryptiline c. clozapine e. fluoxetine
     b. thioridazine d. tranylcypromine

Answer 278

D

Question 279

168. A loop or high-ceiling diuretic:
     a. Furosemide b. Sorbitol c. Spirinolactone d. Hydrochlorothiazide

Answer 279

A

Question 280

278. The most toxic vitamin:
     a. folic acid c. retinoic acid e. pyridoxine
     b. pantothenic acid d. thiamine

Answer 280

C

Question 281

163. An antibiotic that is obtained from Streptomyces noursei:
     a. Amphotericin B b. Nystatin c. Griseofulvin d. Clindamycin

Answer 281

B

Question 282

261. Carbonic acid gas:
     a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide e. helium
     b. nitrogen d. ammonia

Answer 282

C

Question 283

24. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
    a. amodiaquine b. mefloquine c. atabrine d. daraprim

Answer 283

B

Question 284

89. The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:
    a. methyl salicylate b. acetyl chloride c. salicylic acid d. salicylamide

Answer 284

C

Question 285

277. A change in structure of isoniazid causes:
     a. an increase in the potency of the drug c. decrease in the potency of the drug
     b. an increase in the duration of drug action d. none of the above

Answer 285

C

Question 286

47. A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis:
    a. Retin-A b. Tegison c. Accutane d. Oilatum

Answer 286

B

Question 287

208. Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation?
     a. phenoxymethylpenicillin c. benzyl penicillin e. methicillin
     b. benzathine penicillin d. cloxacillin

Answer 287

B

Question 288

13. This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:
    a. Zidovudine b. Chloroquine c. Acyclovir d. Metronidazole

Answer 288

C

Question 289

185. Diazepam is used in the treatment of all of the following, except:
     a. anxiety c. skeletal muscle spasm e. preoperative sedation
     b. status epilepticus d. analgesia

Answer 289

D

Question 290

254. Which of the following is used in the treatment of pernicious anemia?
     a. thiamine b. niacin c. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin

Answer 290

D

Question 291

231. Amongst the following the drug of choice for scabies is:
     a. sulfur c. benzyl benzoate e. tannic acid
     b. crotamiton d. amodiaquine

Answer 291

C

Question 292

199. From the list given below, identify the drug possessing “triad of features” which includes antiamebic.
     antigiardiasis, and antitrichomonal:
     a. iodoquinol c. emetine e. piperazine
     b. chloroquine d. metronidazole

Answer 292

D

Question 293

27. A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin:
    a. Kantrex b. Amikin c. Garamycin d. Nebcin

Answer 293

B

Question 294

212. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs result in decrease in heart rate of the accelerated heart and usually reduce the
     rate of conduction of cardiac impulse. They include the following, except:
     a.quinidine c. disopyramide e. amiodarone
     b. procainamide d. phenytoin

Answer 294

E

Question 295

180. Angiotensin-converting enzymes (ACE) inhibitors are associated with a high incidence of which of the
     following adverse reactions?
     a. hepatitis c. agranulocytosis e. hirsutism
     b. hypokalemia d. proteinuria

Answer 295

D

Question 296

10. Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:
    a. Ethambutol b. Rifampin c. Isoniazid d. Streptomycin

Answer 296

D

Question 297

17. Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
    a. disinfectant b. fungicides c. antiseptics d. systemic anti-infectives

Answer 297

C

Question 298

22. 7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:
    a. clindamycin b. roxithromycin c. spectinomycin d. ilotycin

Answer 298

A

Question 299

33. Drug of choice for filarial infections:
    a. ivermectin c. diethylcarbamazine
    b. praziquantel d. Stibophen

Answer 299

C

Question 300

73. Prostaglandins are also known as:
    a. saturated fats b. compound lipids c. eicosanoids d. all of the above

Answer 300

C