MOD1 (MANOR) ORGMED Flashcards
1
Q
- Halazone is a/an:
a. iodophor d. oxidizing agent
b. mercury containing anti-infective e. none of the above
c. chlorine containing anti-infective
A
C
2
Q
- The therapeutic uses of amphetamines does not include which of the following:
a. in hyperkinetic children c. obesity e. hypertension
b. narcolepsy d. parkinsonism
A
E
3
Q
- Thiabendazole (Mintezol), a benzimidazole derivative, is an anthelmintic drug used primarily to treat
infections caused by:
a. Ascaris c. Strongyloides e. Taenia saginata (flatworm)
b. Necator americanus (hookworm) d. Enterobios vermicularis
A
C
4
Q
- For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by
intravenous route?
a. miconazole c. ketoconazole e. nystatin
b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol
A
B
5
Q
- Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action:
a. amorbital b. Phenobarbital c. pentobarbital d. secobarbital
A
A
6
Q
- A diuretic that will manifest a competitive inhibition of the action of aldosterone:
a. Triamterene b. Spirinolactone c. Furosemide d. Chlorothiazide
A
B
7
Q
- A fourth generation cephalosphorins:
a. Cefaloxin b. Cefepime c. Cefamandole d. Cefuroxime
A
B
8
Q
- These anti-diarrheals trap the toxins and flushes them out of your system:
a. adsorbents b. anti-motility agents c. astringents d. oral rehydration salts
A
A
9
Q
- The quinolone derivative effective against P. Aeruginosa is:
a. norfloxacin c. ofloxacin e. lomefloxacin
b. ciprofloxacin d. enoxacin
A
B
10
Q
- The prototype narcotic antagonist is:
a. nalorphine b. naloxone c. levallorphan d. meperidine
A
B
11
Q
- Which of the following bases is most susceptible to alkylating agents?
a. adenosine c. thymidine e. uridine
b. cytosine d. guanine
A
D
12
Q
- Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins
render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria
b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance
A
B
13
Q
- A potentially fatal aplastic anemia is a toxicity associated with:
a. chloramphenicol b. nitrofurantoin c. clindamycin d. cephalothin
A
A
14
Q
- Also known as solvent shift:
a. facilitated transport c. bulk transport e. none of the above
b. ion-pair transport d. passive diffusion
A
C
15
Q
- A broad-spectrum anthelmintic that is effective against a variety of nematode infestations and is the generic
name of Antiox:
a. Piperazine b. Thiabendazole c. Pyrantel pamoate d. Mebendazole
A
D
16
Q
- Acetaminophen is preferred over aspirin in following conditions, except:
a. rheumatic disease d. children with influenza
b. patients with peptic ulcer e. children with chicken pox
c. patients with bronchial asthma
A
A
17
Q
- Liquefied phenol, USP:
a. phenol containing 10% water c. carbol-fuchsin solution
b. phenol as surgical antiseptic d. treatment of tinea infection
A
A
18
Q
- Chelating agent that is an effective antidote foe copper poisoning and used in the treatment of Wilson’s
disease:
a. deferoxamine mesylate b. dimercaprol c. penicillamine d. EDTA
A
C
19
Q
- A common agent in smoking cessation programs providing patches:
a. lobeline b. nicotine c. emetine d. coal tar
A
B
20
Q
- Levodopa is used in the treatment of:
a. leukemia c. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Parkinson’s disease d. Tay Sach’s disease
A
B
21
Q
- The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:
a. lipid solubility c. plasma binding
b. renal excretion d. method of administration
A
A
22
Q
- Mechanism of action of trimethoprim:
a. competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA c. inhibits protein synthesis
b. folate reductase inhibitor d. destruction of bacterial cell wall
A
B
23
Q
- Mescaline is a _________ derivative:
a. indolethylamine b. phenylethylamine c. steroidal d. xanthine
A
B
24
Q
- Anesthetic of choice for labor:
a. halothane b. enflurance c. nitrous oxide d. methoxyflurane
A
D
25
Q
- Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial parasite:
a. will be effective for radical cure c. will not be clinically effective
b. will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis d. will both be effective for prophylaxis and radical use
A
B
26
Q
- Drug of choice for absence seizures:
a. carbamazepine b. ethosuximide c. phenytoin d. primidone
A
B
27
Q
- The most potent of the inhalation anesthetic agents:
a. methoxyflurane c. enflurane e. isoflurane
b. halothane d. nitrous oxide
A
A
28
Q
- All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:
a. ampicillin c. streptomycin e. amikacin
b. kanamycin d. neomycin
A
A
29
Q
- CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant property, except:
a. Methacarbamol, USP c. Baclofen e. Meprobamate
b. Carisoprodol, USP d. Buspirone
A
E
30
Q
- Penicillin is the drug of choice for the following infective conditions, except:
a. gonococcal infection d. streptococcal infection
b. pneumococcal infection e. pseudomonal infection
c. treponema pallidum infection
A
E
31
Q
- All of the following chemotherapeutic agents are useful for prophylaxis against infections caused by
specific microorganisms, except:
a. amantadine against influenza A virus d. tetracycline against rickettsial infection
b. chloramphenicol against typhoid fever e. pyrimethamine against malaria in endemic areas
c. isoniazid against tubercular infection
A
B
32
Q
- Drug of choice for urinary tract infections:
a. co-trimoxazole b. gentamicin c. naprofen d. all of the above
A
A
33
Q
- Passive diffusion includes what drug?
a. Lipid soluble b. Lipid insoluble c. Amphoteric d. Hydrophilic
A
A
34
Q
- Which of the following actions of histamine is not blocked by H1 antagonist:
a. increase in salivary excretion c. vasodilation
b. increase in gastric secretions d. itchiness
A
B
35
Q
- Cidex:
a. gammabenzenehexachloride c. hexachlorophene
b. glutarol d. carbamoyl phosphate
A
B
36
Q
- Sensitivity of gram negative bacilli to amoxicillin is due to its:
a. carboxyl group c. hydroxyl group e. carbonyl group
b. nitro group d. amino group
A
D
37
Q
- Pharmacologic effects of the classic antihistamines include all of the following, except:
a. sedation with low doses c. an antipruritic effect
b. inhibition of gastric acid secretion d. drying of salivary and bronchial secretion
A
B
38
Q
- Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?
a. Polymyxin B c. Dicloxacillin e. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin G d. Carbenicillin
A
C
39
Q
- Fertility vitamins:
a. retinoic acid b. riboflavin c. alpha tocopherol d. biotin
A
C
40
Q
- The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:
a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary
A
A
41
Q
- Diphenoxylate, an effective antidiarrheal drug is:
a. related to meperidine c. a narcotic antagonist e. anticholinergic action
b. atropine-like drug d. a ganglion-blocking drug
A
A
42
Q
- A tumor is benign if:
a. metastasis is evident
b. cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage
c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur
d. cause damage to surrounding structures
A
C
43
Q
- Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are:
a. nasal decongestants b. analgesic c. vasoconstrictor d. bronchodilator
A
D
44
Q
- Retin-A is:
a. alltoin b. adapalene c. tretinoin d. benzoyl peroxide
A
C
45
Q
- The functional group in pyridoxine is:
a. alcohol b. amine c. carboxylic acid d. ketone
A
A
46
Q
- AZT or Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of:
a. Koch’s infection b. HIV or AIDS c. carbuncle d. ringworm
A
B
47
Q
- The following are preservatives except:
a. undecylenic acid b. Methyl paraben c. benzoic acid d. potassium sorbate
A
A
48
Q
- Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS.
a. caffeine b. theophylline c. theobromine d. all of the above
A
A
49
Q
- Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:
a. ototoxic c. hyperglycemic e. goiterogenic
b. carcinogenic d. hepatotoxic
A
A
50
Q
- Classified as a macrolide antibiotic, except:
a. Bacitracin b. Erythromycin c. Spiramycin d. Oleandomycin
A
A
51
Q
- Vincristine is used primarily in the treatment of which of the following?
a. Hodgkin’s disease c. liver cancer e. prostate cancer
b. lung cancer d. melanoma
A
A
52
Q
- Synthesized from dry hydrogen chloride and carbon monoxide at 300 degrees and 200 atm pressure:
a. tetrachloroethylene b. piperazine c. both d. none
A
A
53
Q
- Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria
b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance
A
D
54
Q
- Use of crotamiton:
a. pediculicide b. scabicide c.anthelmintic d. antibacterial
A
B
55
Q
- Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?
a. Ampicillin c. Carbenicillin e. Mezlocillin
b. Oxacillin d. Ticarticillin
A
B
56
Q
- Lysergic acid diethylamide is:
a. derived from mushroom c. histamine analog
b. a parasympathetic drug d. ergot derivative
A
D
57
Q
- These are calcium channel blockers, except:
a. Verapamil b. Nifedipine c. Atenolol d. Diltiazem
A
C
58
Q
- Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines:
a. quinolines b. biguanides c. beta-lactams d. quinolones
A
B
59
Q
- The drug of choice for the treatment of genital herpes being potent against DNA formation:
a. Symmetrel b. Herplex c. Acyclovir d. Vidarabine
A
C
60
Q
- Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents has a good penetrability into the cerebrospinal fluid?
a. streptomycin c. tobramycin e. cephalexin
b. gentamicin d. chloramphenicol
A
D
61
Q
- The generic name of Duracef:
a. Cephradine b. Cephazoline c. Cephadroxil d. Cephalexin
A
C
62
Q
- Externally, ethyl alcohol is employed as:
a. refrigerant c. astringent
b. rubefacient d. all of the above
A
D
63
Q
- A thiazide diuretic can:
a. enhance action of amphetamines d. enhance action of oral hypoglycemics
b. antagonize action of guanethidine e. antagonize action of tricyclic antidepressants
c. antagonize action of digitalis drugs
A
A
64
Q
- A characteristic of cancer cells:
a. lack of normal growth controls c. G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types
b. synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase d. None of the above
A
A
65
Q
- Nitrous oxide, a general anesthetic agent, is characterized by all of the features of which of the following
groups?
a. high potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
b. low potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
c. high potency, poor analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
d. high potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
e. low potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
A
B
66
Q
- Polyene antibiotics include:
I. nystatin II . amphotericin B III. Griseofulvin
a. I only b. III only c. I and II d. II and III
A
C
67
Q
- Levarterenol (Levophed) is:
a. L-epinephrine c. Isoproterenol e. L-ephedrine
b. L-norepinephrine d. L-dopa
A
B
68
Q
- Transport of drug molecules from the site of administration to the systemic circulation:
a. absorption c. metabolism e. toxicology
b. adsorption d. excretion
A
A
69
Q
- Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:
a. potassium iodide b. tyloxapol c. guaiafenesin d. emetine
A
C
70
Q
- A sample drug excreted via the saliva:
a. lidocaine b. sulfonamide c. sulfonamide d. thiamine
A
A
71
Q
- Bonamine is:
a. meclizine b. dramamine c. scopolamine d. aspirin
A
A
72
Q
- Heparin is a/an:
a. extract of animal tissue c. metal e. enzyme
b. extract of plant d. hormone
A
A
73
Q
- Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is:
a. amodiaquine c. primaquine e. mefloquine
b. chloroquine d. quinine
A
B
74
Q
- The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given:
a. orally b. intravenously c. via inhalation d. rectally
A
C
75
Q
- Acetazolamide (Diamox) is rarely the drug of choice for diuretic therapy because it:
a. is too potent
b. causes systemic acidosis and alkaline urine
c. is habit forming
d. does not exhibit tachyphylaxis
e. induces enzymes, especially carbonic anhydrases
A
B
76
Q
- The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within
erythrocytes:
a. primaquine b. pyrimethamine c. quinacrine d. chloroquine
A
A
77
Q
- Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should be avoided due to several reasons. Which of
these is not true?
a. they chelate calcium ions
b. they may predispose to discoloration of deciduous teeth in the infant
c. they are toxic to the fetus and may cause abortion
d. they can cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother
e. they get deposited in growing bones
A
C
78
Q
- Which of the following statements is not true regarding the aminoglycoside antibiotics?
a. they are highly ionized in solution d. they are ototoxic and nephrotoxic
b. they are bactericidal e. they are easily absorbed after oral administration
c. they are more effective in alkaline medium
A
E
79
Q
- Propionic acid derivative:
a. paracetamol b. dipyrone c. piroxicam d. naproxen
A
D
80
Q
- Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following
chemically?
a. enzymes b. porphyrins c. proteins d. lipids
A
D
81
Q
- The following antibiotic possess clinically useful antimalignant property, except:
a. mitomycin c. streptomycin e. plicamycin
b. bleomycin d. daunorubicin
A
C
82
Q
- The scientist who can lay claim to the title of Father of Chemotherapy:
a. Robert Koch c. Paul Ehrlich e. Giuseppe Brotzu
b. Joseph Lister d. Alexander Fleming
A
C
83
Q
- Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:
a. penicillins b. cephalosphorins c. macrolides d.. aminoglycosides
A
D
84
Q
- The generic name of Nizoral:
a. Meconazole b. Clotrimazole c. Ketoconazole d. Potassium sorbate
A
C
85
Q
- Drug of choice for ringworm infection is:
a. nystatin c. griseofulvin e. amphotericin B
b. ketoconazole d. neomycin
A
C
86
Q
- The generic name of the brand Diabinese:
a. Chlorpropramide b. Glibenclamide c. Metformin d. Acetohexamide
A
A
87
Q
- Generic name of Benadryl AH:
a. guaiafenesin b. diphenhydramine c. apomorphine d. benzonatate
A
B
88
Q
- Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins:
a. penicillenic acid b. penicilloic acid c. penicilloate Cl d. pinecillic acid
A
A
89
Q
- This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol:
a. NO2 group c. OH group e. benzene group
b. NH2 group d. COOH group
A
A
90
Q
- Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an:
a. wax b. silicone c. sulfur d. ketone
A
B
91
Q
- A drug molecule which possesses both intrinsic activity and affinity:
a. agonist b. antagonist c. poison d. none of the above
A
A
92
Q
- A drug receptor may be all of the following, except:
a. isolable enzyme c. protein or a nucleic acid
b. functional component of a cell membrane d. chelates
A
D
93
Q
- This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of labor pains in obstetrics:
a. colchicines b. codeine c. apomorphine d. Demerol
A
D
94
Q
- Opium is an example of:
a. narcotic analgesic c. antipyretic analgesic
b. non-steroidal analgesic d. anti-inflammatory analgesic
A
A
95
Q
- The preparation is used as pediculicide:
a. Ultralan cream b. Trimycin ointment c. Betronavate ointment d. Kwell lotion
A
D
96
Q
- This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine:
a. meclizine b. hyoscine c. dimenhydrinate d. celestamine
A
C
97
Q
- All of the following statements are true concerning the penicillins, except:
a. this class of antibacterials acts by damaging the cell walls of bacteria
b. piperacillin and ticarcillin have activity against Pseudomonas species
c. use of any penicillin is contraindicated in a patient who has had an allergic reaction to any one penicillin
d. they are obtained from the genus of Streptomyces
e. the addition of clavulanic acid to amoxicillin preparations protects the drug from penicillinase
A
D
98
Q
- An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens:
a. aspartame b. PCP c. BHT d. EDTA
A
C
99
Q
- Aureomycin is:
a. kanamycin b. erythromycin c. chlortetracycline d. oxytetracycline
A
C
100
Q
- This drug is used as an osmotic diuretic:
a. Mannitol b. Ethanol c. Isopropanol d. Glycitol
A
A
101
Q
- Which of the following is not used for topical application on external surfaces?
a. mafenide c. sodium sulfacetamide e. resorcinol
b. silver sulfadiazine d. sulfisoxazole
A
D
102
Q
- Oral neomycin and streptomycin are used for sterilization of bowel and for dysentery because:
a. they are at least absorbed from oral route
b. the peak concentration in blood is achieved quickly
c. they are least toxic to GIT
d. they are destroyed by the gastric juice
A
A
103
Q
- An antimanic agent:
a. haloperidol b. lithium salts c. LSD d. phenol
A
B
104
Q
- Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is not bactericidal?
a. carbenicillin c. cefuroxime e. vancomycin
b. gentamicin d. erythromycin
A
D
105
Q
- The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples:
a. Erythromycin b. Tetracycline c. Lincomycin d. Clindamycin
A
D
106
Q
- The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
a. streptomycin c. neomycin e. kanamycin
b. amikacin d. tobramycin
A
A
107
Q
- Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to cause:
a. tinnitus b. hepatic necrosis c. agranulocytosis d. renal tubular acidosis
A
B
108
Q
- These drugs are narcotic analgesics, except:
a. morphine b. codeine c. nalbuphine d. mefenamic acid
A
D
109
Q
- Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:
a. short acting b. intermediate acting c. long acting d. ultra short acting
A
D
110
Q
- This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:
a. silvadene b. sulfamylon c. whitfield d. vandol
A
B
111
Q
- When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is:
a. humectant c. oil soluble antioxidant
b. demelanizing agent d. emulsifying agent
A
C
112
Q
- Voltaren is:
a. acemetacin b. ibuprofen c. diclofenac d. naproxen
A
C
113
Q
- These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective:
a. trimethoprim b. sulfones c. quinolones d. none of the above
A
B
114
Q
- For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by
intravenous route?
a. miconazole c. ketoconazole e. nystatin
b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol
A
B
115
Q
- Tetracycline is:
a. an intermediate spectrum, bactericidal c. a broad spectrum, bactericidal
b. a broad spectrum, bacteriostatic d. an intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic
A
B
116
Q
- The drug used in all types of tuberculosis is:
a. ethambutol c. streptomycin e. p-aminosalicylic acid
b. cycloserine d. isoniazid
A
D
117
Q
- An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks:
a. acetic acid b. lactic acid c. tartaric acid d. citric acid
A
C
118
Q
- The generic name of new Merthiolate is:
a. Chorhexidine gluconate c. Mexachlorophene
b. Thimerosal d. Benzalkonium chloride
A
D
119
Q
- Which is not true regarding ceftriaxone:
a. a 3rd generation cephalosporin c. administered parenterally e. resistant to acid
b. resistant to B-lactamase d. once daily dosing
A
E
120
Q
- Which of the following is not soluble in or miscible with alcohol, USP?
a. ether b. acacia c. methanol d. Phenobarbital e. water
A
B
121
Q
- A phenol primarily obtained from clove oil:
a. resorcinol b. cresol c. hexylresorcinol d. eugenol
A
D
122
Q
- Mechanism of action of quinolones:
a. injury to plasma membrane c. protein synthesis inhibition
b. inhibition of DNA gyrase d. production of toxic free radicals
A
B
123
Q
- Chloroquine is the generic name of:
a. atabrine b. artane c. aralen d. akineton
A
B
124
Q
- The following drugs are extensively metabolized in the liver, except:
a. Isoproterenol b. Propranolol c. Lidocaine d. Paracetamol
A
D
125
Q
- The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella
typhi:
a. Phenol number b. Phenol coefficient c. Phenol value d. None of the above
A
B
126
Q
- Diamox has a generic name of:
a. allopurinol b. acetazolamide c. dimethylxanthine d. theophylline
A
B
127
Q
- These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:
a. Tinidazole b. Chloroquine c. Etofamide d. Metronidazole
A
B
128
Q
- Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by:
a. acetylation c. oxidation e. methylation
c. deamination d. conjugation
A
A
129
Q
- The drug of choice for typhoid fever:
a. Chloramphenicol b. Lincomycin c. Penicillin d. Cephalosporins
A
A
130
Q
- Which of the following is the longest-acting nitrate?
a. glyceryl trinitrate c. erythritol tetranitrate e. isosorbide dinitrate
b. amyl nitrite d. pentaerythritol tetranitrate
A
D
131
Q
- The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:
a. therapeutics b. chemotherapy c. organic chemistry d. biochemistry
A
B
132
Q
- The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:
a. an androgen and a progestin c. an androgen and an estrogen
b. an estrogen and progestin d. FSH and LH
A
B
133
Q
- All of the following are effective and clinically useful against worm infestation caused by Ascaris
Lumbricoides, except:
a. piperazine c. mebendazole e. thiabendazole
b. niridazole d. pyrantel pamoate
A
B
134
Q
- Effective administration routes of nitroglycerin for angina pectoris include all of the following, except:
a. oral b. inravenous c. transdermal d. sublingual
A
A
135
Q
- Benzaldehyde is synthetic:
a. cinnamon oil b. bitter almond oil c. corn oil d. rose oil
A
B
136
Q
- An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity:
a. acetylsalicylic acid c. mefenamic acid e. sulindac
b. acetaminophen d. indomethacin
A
B
137
Q
- An example of a glycine conjugation pathway:
a. phenol to phenolsulfate c. noradrenaline to epinephrine
b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid d. antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid
A
B
138
Q
- A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:
a. tocopherol b. retinal c. ergosterol d. retinol
A
B
139
Q
- One of the reasons why aminoglycosides are frequently combined with other antibiotics in treating certain
infections is to:
a. prevent drug infections d. increase oral absorption
b. prevent drug emergence of resistant bacteria e. decrease systemic toxicities
c. increase renal excretion
A
B
140
Q
- All of the following benzodiazepines are commonly used in the treatment of anxiety, except:
a. chlordiazepoxide c. alprazolam e. diazepam
b. clonazepam d. lorazepam
A
B
141
Q
- Which of the following is most likely to cause tinnitus and hearing loss in high doses?
a. ibuprofen b. phenylbutazone c. acetylsalicylic acid d. indomethacin
A
C
142
Q
- The generic name of Nubain:
a. Nalbuphine b. Naloxone c. Pentazocine d. Methadone
A
A
143
Q
- The preferred agent for hypertensive emergencies:
a. propranolol c. captopril e. sodium nitroprusside
b. clonidine d. diazoxide
A
E
144
Q
- Penicillin G
a. Methicillin b. Benzyl penicillin c. both d. none
A
B
145
Q
- Agents that facilitate the evacuation of bowels:
a. anti-motility agents c. astringents e. none of the above
b. cathartics d. antacids
A
B
146
Q
- Baclofen, a derivative of GABA is used in:
a. spasticity in patients with multiple sclerosis c. management of spasticity in rheumatic disorders
b. parkinsonism d. spasticity of cerebral palsy
A
A
147
Q
- Drug of choice for leprosy:
a. rifampicin c. prothionamide e. dapsone
b. ethonamide d. clofazimine
A
E
148
Q
- Which of the following penicillin derivatives is both acid-stable and resistant to penicillinase?
a. methicillin c. ampicillin e. phenoxymethyl penicillin
b. disodium carbenicillin d. oxacillin
A
D
149
Q
- A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite:
a. Xenical b. Gas-X c. Apokinon d. Adifax
A
D
150
Q
- Benzyl penicillin is also known as:
a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin V c. Oxacillin d. Ampicillin
A
A
151
Q
- Mechanism of action of mebendazole:
a. paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium c. decreased glucose uptake
b. unknown mechanism of action d. phagocytic attack on worms
A
C
152
Q
- Which of the following agents is not used for local candidiasis?
a. nystatin c. griseofulvin e. clotrimazole
b. gentian violet d. miconazole
A
C
153
Q
- Procaine is a/an:
a. amine b. ester c. alcohol d. ketone
A
B
154
Q
- These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools:
a. adsorbents b. astringents c. anti-motility d. oresols
A
B
155
Q
- An antibiotic most commonly used in topical preparations:
a. clotrimazole c. griseofulvin e. foscarnet
b. vidarabine d. bacitracin
A
D
156
Q
- All of the following drugs interfere with platelet activity, except:
a. aspirin c. protamine e. anisindione
b. dimercaprol d. warfarin
A
B
157
Q
- Ma huang is a/an:
a. imidazole alkaloid b. alkaloidal amine c. purine d. steroidal alkaloid
A
B
158
Q
- An example of iodophor:
a. iodine tincture b. povidone-iodine c. Lugol’s solution d. all of the above
A
B
159
Q
- Cevitamic acid is:
a. folic acid b. ascorbic acid c. nicotinic acid d. glacial acetic acid
A
B
160
Q
- Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:
a. lidocaine b. procaine c. dibucaine d. bupivacaine
A
A
161
Q
- The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and vnblastine:
a. Mayapple b. Periwinkle c. European year d. Datura alba
A
B
162
Q
- Sunshine vitamin:
a. A b. D c. E d. K
A
B
163
Q
- All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except:
a. erythromycin b. oleandomycin c. vancomycin d. spiramycin
A
C
164
Q
- Rancidity of fats may be due to:
a. reduction to alcohols c. oxidation of double bonds e. hydrogenation
b. impurities d. saponification
A
C
165
Q
- Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza:
a. ribavirin b. rimantadine c. gancyclovir d. foscarnet
A
B
166
Q
- Nubain:
a. meperidine c. methadone e. pentazocine
b. nalbuphine d. fentanyl
A
B
167
Q
- 1,3-dimethylxanthine is:
a. caffeine b. theobromine c. theophylline d. aminophylline
A
C
168
Q
- Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the:
a. maturation of osteoblast c. reduction of inflammation
b. collagen formation d. epithelial proliferation
A
B
169
Q
- Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is:
a. pen V b. methicillin c. carbenicillin d. oxacillin
A
C
170
Q
- The following antimalarials are synthetic drugs, except:
a. Atabrine b. Aralen c. Camoquin d. Quinine
A
D
171
Q
- Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:
a. polychlorinated biphenyls c. butylatedhydroxyanisole
b. acesulfame d. none of the above
A
A
172
Q
- Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to:
a. codeine b. methadone c. heroin d. pentazocine
A
C
173
Q
- Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which rendered inactive in the presence of:
a. organic acid c. cationic surfactants e. inorganic salts
b. gram-negative organisms d. soaps
A
D
174
Q
- A good local anesthetic should have all of the following properties, except:
a. systemic toxicity should be low
b. effective at body fluid pH
c. onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of action to avoid toxicity
d. must be effective regardless of the site of application
e. not irritant to the tissue and should not cause any permanent structural damage to nerves
A
C
175
Q
- An example of a commercial product that is pro-drug:
a. Lasix b. Geocillin c. Morphine d. Valium
A
A
176
Q
- Mechanism of action of this anti-tubercular agent is to inhibit protein synthesis:
a. PZA b. Streptomycin c. INH d. Ethambutol
A
B
177
Q
- Ativan has this generic name:
a. triazolam b. lorazepam c. flurazepam d. tranexamic acid
A
B
178
Q
- For patients allergic to penicillins, this drug is used as alternative:
a. erythromycin c. aureomycin e. none of the above
b. spectinomycin d. lincomycin
A
A
179
Q
- Absolute alcohol is commercially prepared by:
a. direct distillation c. azeotropic distillations
b. fermentation d. none
A
C
180
Q
- Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:
a. oral hypoglycemics b. diuretics c. anti-inflammatory d. spasmolytic
A
A
181
Q
- Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agents?
a. Isoniazid c. Phenoxymethyl penicillin e. Tetracycline
b. Chloramphenicol d. Erythromycin
A
E
182
Q
- This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin:
a. freeze-drying c. chromatography e. distillation
b. extraction d. x-ray
A
A
183
Q
- Polyene antibiotics for fungi:
a. amphotericin B c. ketoconazole e. both b & c
b. miconazole d. both a & b
A
A
184
Q
- Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:
a. rhodomine B c. p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol
b. aluminum reagent d. dimethylglyoxime
A
A
185
Q
- Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:
a. dilantin b. codeine c. meperidine d. naloxone
A
C
186
Q
- In terms of pH, aspirin is absorbed in the:
a. mouth c. stomach e. rectum
b. small intestines d. large intestines
A
C
187
Q
- Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is an agent useful in the treatment of diarrhea. It is structurally similar to:
a. kaolin c. diphenhydantoin e. oxalic acid
b. meperidine d. pectin
A
B
188
Q
- Superinfection is common with:
a. antibiotics which are given parenterally c. those which suppress the normal bacterial flora
b. those which are used for prolonged period d. those which are given as a depot preparation
A
C
189
Q
- An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:
a. suramin b. pentamidine c. efflornithine d. stibophen
A
B
190
Q
- Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:
a. ketamine b. thiopental c. enflurane d. none of the above
A
C
191
Q
- Which of the following is considered a primary drug for the treatment of all seizure types except absence?
a. carbamazepine c. valproic acid e. phenobarbital
b. ethosuximide d. diazepam
A
A
192
Q
- Bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia is the characteristic toxic effect of all the following
drugs, except:
a. oxytetracycline c. methotrexate e. dactinomycin
b. chloramphenicol d. mitomycin
A
A
193
Q
- Organo-Silicon polymers containing O and Si atoms with a substituent organic groups:
a. silicons b. alkynes c. esters d. ethers
A
A
194
Q
- Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are:
a. enols b. esters c. ethers d. amines
A
A
195
Q
- All statements regarding antipyretic analgesics are false, except:
a. produce fall in blood pressure c. develop drug dependence e. produce general CNS depression
b. raise the pain threshold d. relieve visceral pain
A
B
196
Q
- Zantac is:
a. cimetidine b. famotidine c. ranitidine d. nizatidine
A
C
197
Q
- Which of the following drugs does not reduce blood cholesterol level?
a. clofibrate c. destrothyroxine e. colestipol
b. epinephrine d. cholestyramine
A
B
198
Q
- The most effective agent in the treatment of Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia infection is:
a. penicillin G c. vancomycin e. bacitracin
b. tetracycline d. gentamicin
A
B
199
Q
- The metabolite of the red dye, prontosil, responsible for its antimicrobial property:
a. sulfisoxazole c. sulfanilamide e. sulfapyridine
b. sulfamethoxazole d. sulfacetamide
A
C
200
Q
- Dimercaprol is also known as:
a. BAL b. Dithioglycerol c. both a & b d. none of the above
A
C
201
Q
- Superior to acyclovir in the treatment of herpes viruses in the CNS in neonates:
a. idoxuridine c. vidarabine e. zidovudine
b. ribavirin d. amantadine
A
C
202
Q
- A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer:
a. alopecia b. miosis c. mydriasis d. ataxia
A
A
203
Q
- A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:
a. Griseofulvin b. Nystatin c. Salicylic acid d. Econazole
A
B
204
Q
- Voltaren:
a. tolmetin b. sulindac c. diclofenac d. piroxicam
A
C
205
Q
- 1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:
a. 100,000 cancer cells b. 1 billion cancer cells c. 1 million cancer cells d. none of the above
A
B
206
Q
- The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria:
a. chloroquine b. quinine c. amodiaquine d. cycloguanil
A
D
207
Q
- Piperazine citrate (Antepar), gentian violet, pyrivinium pamoate (Povan) and thiabendazole
(Mintezol) are all:
a. anthelmintics c. antiseptics e. anticholinergics
b. dyes d. scabicides
A
A
208
Q
- A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer:
a. tamoxifen b. depo-provera c. flutamide d. goserelin
A
B
209
Q
- 6-aminopenicillanic acid is:
a. major metabolite of penicillin
b. responsible for development of penicillin resistance
c. the common nucleus of all penicillins
d. a long-acting penicillin
e. minor metabolite of penicillin
A
C
210
Q
- Castellani’s paint:
a. phenol containing 10% water c. phenol as surgical antiseptic
b. carbol-fuchsin solution d. antibacterial dye
A
B
211
Q
- The following are characteristics of active transport, except:
a. follow saturation kinetics c. carrier mediated
b. expenditure of energy d. higher to lower concentration gradient
A
B
212
Q
- This is an effective antidote for the treatment of poisoning by copper:
a. penicillamine b. dimercaprol c. lugol’s solution d. castellani’s paint
A
A
213
Q
- Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about indomethacin?
a. it is a powerful analgesic only
b. it is a power anti-inflammatory only
c. it is only analgesic and anti-inflammatory without antipyretic effect
d. it is a powerful analgesic and anti-inflammatory agent with antipyretic and uricosuric actions
e. it is powerful antipyretic only
A
D
214
Q
- Epinephrine is also known as:
a. tocopherol b. adrenalin c. emetine d. levarterenol
A
B
215
Q
- Brand name of Bisacodyl:
a. Gelusin MPX b. Dulcolax c. Haloperidol d. Fleet
A
B
216
Q
- Is a folate-reductase inhibitor:
a. Trimethoprim b. Sulfonamides c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline
A
A
217
Q
- A glycopeptide antibiotic:
a. beta-lactam b. vancomycin c. polymyxin d. probenecid
A
B
218
Q
- The least stable of all vitamins:
a. ascorbic acid c. thiamine e. menadione
b. folic acid d. retinoic acid
A
A
219
Q
- Methenamine is also called:
a. Uridine b. Uracil c. Uric acid d. Urothropin
A
D
220
Q
- Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:
a. physical characteristics c. both a and c
b. ability to bind on a specific receptor d. none of the above
A
B
221
Q
- Paracetamol is a/an:
a. salicylate b. pyrazolone c. aniline derivative d. azocine derivative
A
C
222
Q
- Feldene is:
a. sulindac b. piroxicam c. indomethacin d. ketoprofen
A
B
223
Q
- A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:
a. Povidone-Ioduine b. Strong I2 solution c. Iodine Tincture d. I2 in KI solution
A
A
224
Q
- Therapeutic gas used as a gas diluent/carrier:
a. oxygen b. helium c. nitrogen d. carbon dioxide
A
B
225
Q
- Which of the following antineoplastics is not considered an antimetabolite?
a. methotrexate c. etoposide e. cytarabine
b. thioguanine d. fluorouracil
A
C
226
Q
- All of the following are progestins except:
a. norethindrone b. testosterone c. ethynodiol diacetate d. progesterone
A
B
227
Q
- Which of the following is classified as a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
a. ampicillin c. sodium methicillin e. potassium phenethicillin
b. penicillin G d. sodium cloxacillin
A
A
228
Q
- Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized
from:
a. calcitonin b. vitamin D2 c. vitamin D3 d. caltrate
A
C
229
Q
- More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:
a. levo b. dextro c. cis isomer d. trans isomer
A
A
230
Q
- The following are the uses of methylene blue, except:
a. antidote for cyanide poisoning c. antidote for barbiturate poisoning
b. antidote for nitrate poisoning d. none of the above
A
C
231
Q
- Which of the following antiviral agents is not useful for the treatment of herpes virus infection?
a. vidarabine c. trifluridine e. idoxuridine
b. interferon d. acyclovir
A
B
232
Q
- The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins:
a. benzene ring b. B-lactam ring c. thiazole ring d. phenothiazone
A
B
233
Q
- Methylated erythromycin:
a. clarithromycin b. azithromycin c. lincomycin d. ilotycin
A
A
234
Q
- The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an:
a. amine b. alcohol c. ester d. ether
A
D
235
Q
- Methylsalicylate is also known as :
a. toothache drop b. oil of Jasmine c. oil of rose d. oil of wintergreen
A
D
236
Q
- A bright red dye that was found to create remarkable cures of streptococcal infections:
a. prontosil b. methyl red c. both d. none
A
A
237
Q
- The following are mucolytics, except:
a. bromhexine b. acetylcysteine c. caramiphen d. none of the above
A
C
238
Q
- The metabolic function of niacin:
a. decarboxylation c. differentiation of epithelial tissues
b. redox reactions d. maturation of erythrocytes
A
B
239
Q
- In choosing a specific benzodiazepine for the treatment of insomnia, all of the following are considerations,
except:
a. age of the patient
b. mental status of the patient
c. the half life of the drug
d. the absorption of the drug
e. the underlying sleep disorder being treated
A
B
240
Q
- The excretion of weakly basic drug will be more rapid in acidic urine than in basic urine because:
a. all drugs are excreted more rapidly in acidic urine
b. the drug will exist primarily in the unionized form, which cannot easily be reabsorbed
c. weak bases cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules
d. the drug will exist primarily in the ionized form, which cannot be easily reabsorbed
A
D
241
Q
- Which of the following penicillins is acid stable and therefore orally effective:
a. benzathine penicillin c. cloxacillin e. piperacillin
b. procaine penicillin d. tricarcillin
A
C
242
Q
- All of the following drugs act as prodrugs and need to be converted in the body to active compound, except:
a. levodopa c. prednisone e. cyclophosphamide
b. salbutamol d. bacampicillin
A
B
243
Q
- Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?
a. imide b. amide c. amine d. aniline
A
C
244
Q
- Plasil is:
a. acyclovir b. metoclopramide c. diclofenac sodium d. tranexamic acid
A
B
245
Q
- A dye used in vital nerve staining:
a. malachite green b. gentian violet c. methylene blue d. basic fuchsin
A
C
246
Q
- Kaopectate:
a. activated charcoal c. Oresol e. atropine sulfate
b. attaulgite d. kaolin + pectin
A
D
247
Q
- Bactrim and Septrim are trade names for a fixed-dose combination of:
a. sulfamethizole and trimethoxazole c. sulfamethoxazole and phenazopyridine
b. sulfisoxazole and methenamine d. sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
A
D
248
Q
- Active form of the sulfonamide:
a. non-ionized b. ionized c. amphoteric d. oxo ring
A
B
249
Q
- The antipsychotic drug loxapine succinate (Loxitane) is a _____ compound:
a. phenothiazine c. dibenzoxazepine e. butyrophenone
b. benzodiazepine d. thioxanthene
A
C
250
Q
- Neurotoxicity caused by Isoniazid can be treated with:
a. thiamine b. pyridoxine c. menaquinone d. ergocalciferol
A
B
251
Q
- The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:
a. Codeine b. Avamigran c. Litec d. Inderal
A
B
252
Q
- Compounds that result from a combination of electron donors with a metal ion to form a ring structure:
a. chelates b. ligands c. both d. none
A
A
253
Q
- A fluoroquinolone:
a. Norfloxacin b. Pipemedic acid c. Methenamine d. none of the above
A
A
254
Q
- A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo:
a. Achromycin b. Albamycin c. Erythromycin d. Viomycin
A
C
255
Q
- The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:
a. clotrimazole b. miconazole c. co-trimoxazole d. cotrimazine
A
C
256
Q
- First generation urinary tract anti-infective:
a. salicylic acid b. Griseofulvin c. Norfloxacin d. Nalidixic acid
A
D
257
Q
- Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:
a. paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation c. phagocytic attack on worms
b. inhibition of cell division d. decreased glucose uptake
A
B
258
Q
- MAO is classified as a/an:
a. protein inhibitor b. complexing agent c. enzyme d. hormone
A
C
259
Q
- The chemical name of Phenethicillin:
a. Benzyl penicillin c. Phenoxyethyl penicillin
b. Phenoxymethyl penicillin d. Phenoxypropyl penicillin
A
C
260
Q
- Major organ for excretion:
a. liver c. skin e. none of the above
b. kidney d. small intestines
A
B
261
Q
- Cytotec is:
a. sucralfate b. misoprostol c. omeprazole d. pirenzepine
A
B
262
Q
- All of the following statements are correct, except:
a. sulfonamides increase the risk of neonatal kernicterus
b. ketoconazole penetrates into the CSF
c. metronidazole is effective against Enterobacter histolytica
d. mebendazole is the drug of choice in the treatment of whipworm infections
A
B
263
Q
- A metabolite of chloral hydrate:
a. trichloroacetic acid b. acetaldehyde c. carbapenem ring d. phenacetone
A
A
264
Q
- It is the tendency of the drug to combine with the receptor:
a. Efficacy b. Intrinsic activity c. Bonding d. Affinity
A
D
265
Q
- Depo-Provera is:
a. cyproterone acetate c. medroxyprogesterone acetate
b. nandrolene decanoate d. leuproreline acetate
A
C
266
Q
- The following are fat-soluble vitamins, except:
a. A b. B2 c. D d. E e. K
A
B
267
Q
- Which is not true for cephalosporins?
a. broad spectrum b. bactericidal c. affected by penicillinases d. acid-stable
A
C
268
Q
- Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:
a. acetic acid b. salicylic acid c. oxalic acid d. citric acid
A
B
269
Q
- All of the following substances are present in opium, except:
a. thebaine c. codeine e. papaverine
b. methadone d. morphine
A
B
270
Q
- A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:
a. starch b. insulin c. dextrose d. dextran
A
D
271
Q
- Surfactants are characterized by:
a. the presence of water-solubilizing groups d. the presence of fat-solubilizing groups
b. negative charges e. the presence of water-solubilizing and fat-solubilizing
c. positive charges groups in the same molecule
A
E
272
Q
- The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except:
a. tolbutamide b. haloperidol c. nitroglycerine d. DDT
A
A
273
Q
- Sulfonamides used for burn therapy:
a. Mafenide b. Silver sulfadiazine c. both a and b d. none of the preceeding
A
C
274
Q
- Phenylmethanol:
a. chloretone b. benzyl alcohol c. phenylalcohol d. carvacrol
A
B
275
Q
- The structure of this class of antibiotic has a beta-lactam ring and a thiazolidine ring.
a. Tazobactam b. Penicillin c. Cephalosporins d. Monobactam
A
B
276
Q
- Which is not a chelating agent?
a. 8-Methoxyquinoline c. 8-Hydroxyquinoline
b. 8-Mercaptoquinoline d. 4-AZA-Oxime
A
A
277
Q
- This is used as an inhalation anesthetic:
a. droperidol b. thiopental c. halothane d. midazolam
A
C
278
Q
- A monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an antidepressant drug:
a. amitryptiline c. clozapine e. fluoxetine
b. thioridazine d. tranylcypromine
A
D
279
Q
- A loop or high-ceiling diuretic:
a. Furosemide b. Sorbitol c. Spirinolactone d. Hydrochlorothiazide
A
A
280
Q
- The most toxic vitamin:
a. folic acid c. retinoic acid e. pyridoxine
b. pantothenic acid d. thiamine
A
C
281
Q
- An antibiotic that is obtained from Streptomyces noursei:
a. Amphotericin B b. Nystatin c. Griseofulvin d. Clindamycin
A
B
282
Q
- Carbonic acid gas:
a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide e. helium
b. nitrogen d. ammonia
A
C
283
Q
- Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
a. amodiaquine b. mefloquine c. atabrine d. daraprim
A
B
284
Q
- The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:
a. methyl salicylate b. acetyl chloride c. salicylic acid d. salicylamide
A
C
285
Q
- A change in structure of isoniazid causes:
a. an increase in the potency of the drug c. decrease in the potency of the drug
b. an increase in the duration of drug action d. none of the above
A
C
286
Q
- A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis:
a. Retin-A b. Tegison c. Accutane d. Oilatum
A
B
287
Q
- Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation?
a. phenoxymethylpenicillin c. benzyl penicillin e. methicillin
b. benzathine penicillin d. cloxacillin
A
B
288
Q
- This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:
a. Zidovudine b. Chloroquine c. Acyclovir d. Metronidazole
A
C
289
Q
- Diazepam is used in the treatment of all of the following, except:
a. anxiety c. skeletal muscle spasm e. preoperative sedation
b. status epilepticus d. analgesia
A
D
290
Q
- Which of the following is used in the treatment of pernicious anemia?
a. thiamine b. niacin c. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin
A
D
291
Q
- Amongst the following the drug of choice for scabies is:
a. sulfur c. benzyl benzoate e. tannic acid
b. crotamiton d. amodiaquine
A
C
292
Q
- From the list given below, identify the drug possessing “triad of features” which includes antiamebic.
antigiardiasis, and antitrichomonal:
a. iodoquinol c. emetine e. piperazine
b. chloroquine d. metronidazole
A
D
293
Q
- A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin:
a. Kantrex b. Amikin c. Garamycin d. Nebcin
A
B
294
Q
- Class I antiarrhythmic drugs result in decrease in heart rate of the accelerated heart and usually reduce the
rate of conduction of cardiac impulse. They include the following, except:
a.quinidine c. disopyramide e. amiodarone
b. procainamide d. phenytoin
A
E
295
Q
- Angiotensin-converting enzymes (ACE) inhibitors are associated with a high incidence of which of the
following adverse reactions?
a. hepatitis c. agranulocytosis e. hirsutism
b. hypokalemia d. proteinuria
A
D
296
Q
- Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:
a. Ethambutol b. Rifampin c. Isoniazid d. Streptomycin
A
D
297
Q
- Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
a. disinfectant b. fungicides c. antiseptics d. systemic anti-infectives
A
C
298
Q
- 7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:
a. clindamycin b. roxithromycin c. spectinomycin d. ilotycin
A
A
299
Q
- Drug of choice for filarial infections:
a. ivermectin c. diethylcarbamazine
b. praziquantel d. Stibophen
A
C
300
Q
- Prostaglandins are also known as:
a. saturated fats b. compound lipids c. eicosanoids d. all of the above
A
C
