Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing 1 > Mod 5 Chap 33 > Flashcards

Mod 5 Chap 33 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

used in the treatment, palliation, diagnosis, cure, and prevention of disease

A

Drug therapy is used for?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

?? is affected by the drugs chemical and physical properties and the patients physical status; a greater percentage of body fat results in slower drug ?? the less a pt wigs, the more concentrated the drug is and the more powerful its effect.

A

Distribution of a drug is affected by?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what causes an increase in unbound drug in circulation; this causes increased drug activity and possible toxicity. Eldery often have decreased levels.

A

Decreased albumin causes?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

most drugs are ? in the liver and excreted by the kidneys

A

Metabolized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is the intended effect

A

Primary effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

may be desirable or undesirable, often the side effects of the drug

A

secondary effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

is the range of levels of the drug in the blood that will produce the desired effect without causing toxic effects

A

therapeutic range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

stimulation or depression,
replacement,
inhibition or killing,
irritation.

A

four types of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

alcohol has a ? effect when combined with drugs that depress the CNS

A

synergistic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

foods can affect the ? or ? of drugs

A

absorption; action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what must be followed when administering drugs?

A

The six rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when giving medications to children the does is based on ? and ?

A

age; weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

? can be related to lack of info, financial problems, health beliefs, unpleasant side effects, or cognitive issues

A

Noncompliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

n.urses are held legally responsible for the ? and ? effects of drugs

A

safe and therapeutic effects of the drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1) be able to locate the information about each drug
2) consistently calculate drug dosages accurately,
3) devise a method for consistently using the six rights of medication administration
4) recognize the nursing implications for each drug administered

A

to be able to prepare for medication administration you need to know these 4 things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

points you need to remember about the druge or teach to the patient.

A

nursing implications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

name not protected by trade mark (ibuprofen)

A

generic name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

name protected by a trademark (may have many different names) (advil motron ect.)

A

trade name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describes the chemical composition of the drug

A

chemical name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

to administer and individual dose of a medication at a specified time.

A

Nurses role in drug therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what determines the route of administration

A

form of a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

? of a particular form is designed to enhance its absorption and metabolism in the body?

A

composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

further regulates dispensing and handling of all controlled substances. it classifies drugs according to their medical usefulness and their potential for abuse.

A

The comprehensive drug abuse prevention and control acts of 1970

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

for a drug to pass U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval and be marketed it must meet 5 standards in what areas?

A

1) purity
2) potency
3) bioavailability
4) efficacy
5) safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what med stimulates heart muscle fibers to contract more powerfully and its effect on the hearts electrical properties causes changes in rate and rhythm

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what med depresses the function of cell groups in the central nervous system, causing drowsiness.

A

barbiturates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what med has the ability to block cell division

A

antineoplastic drugs such as vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

study of how drugs enter the body and reach their site of action and how they are metabolized and excreted?

A

pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The rate of absorption is determined by many factors including? (8)

A

1) body weight
2) age
3) sex
4) disease conditions
5) genetic factors
6) immune mechanisms
7) physiologic and emotional factors
8) hot and cold weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

types and concentrations of substances other than the drug that can be in the tablet, capsule suspension ect.

A

purity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

amount of active drug in the preparation contributing to its strength

A

potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

drugs ability to dissolve, be absorbed, and be transported in the body to its desired site of action

A

bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

laboratory studies providing proof that the drug is effective for its intended use

A

efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

sufficient studies completed to indicate potential side effects, adverse effects, and toxic reactions; safety is determined from the data

A

safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

drugs with no accepted medical use, a high potential for abuse, and lacking accepted safety measures. (opiods, psychedelics, cannabis derivatives, methaqualone, phencyclidine) ex: heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), phenosulfonphthalein (PSP) and peyote

A

schedule I drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

drugs with a medical use, a high potential for abuse, with severe psychological or physical dependence (opioids, psychostimulants, barbiturates and cannabinoids) ex: amobarbital (tuinal) amphetamine, meperidine, morphine, and methadone

A

schedule II drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

drugs that are medically useful but with less potential for abuse that lead to moderate or low physical and high psychological dependence. (lesser opioids, stimulants, some barbiturates, miscellaneous depressants, and anabolic steroids) ex: paregoric, butabarbital, and acetaminophen with codeine

A

schedule III drugs

38
Q

drugs that are medically useful, but with less potential for abuse than scheduled III drugs, their abuse causing limited physical or psychological dependence. (lesser opioids, stimulants that suppress appetite, some barbiturates, benzodiazepines, and miscellaneous depressants) ex: tranquilizers such as chlordiazepoxide (Librium) diazepam (valium) fenfluramine, temazepam, and chloral hydrate

A

schedule IV drugs

39
Q

drugs with medical use, low potential for abuse, and producing less physical dependence than the schedule IV drugs. (few opiods) ex: mixtures with small amounts of narcotics….cough syrup containing codeine

A

schedule V drugs

40
Q

the rapidity with which concentration at a target site occurs depends on ?

A

the blood supply to the site

41
Q

if a pt is taking 2 drugs hat are protein bound, one or the other drug may have a higher concentration in the unbound state than it would if it had been given alone….why?

A

because the drug with the lower unbound concentration has a greater ability to bind to available protein, leaving less protein to bind to the other drug.

42
Q

? and ? help the post surgery pt rid the body of anesthetic more rapidly.

A

deep breathing and coughing

43
Q

Adequate fluid intake of ? mL/kg/day is essential for the pt to eliminate drugs properly

A

50

44
Q

study of a drugs effect on cellular physiology and biochemistry and its mechanism of action ?

A

pharmacodynamics

45
Q

occurs when the highest blood or plasma concentration of the drug is achieved

A

peak action

46
Q

the length of time the drug exerts a pharmacologic effect is?

A

the duration of action

47
Q

begins when the drug reaches a minimum effective concentration level.

A

the onset of drug action

48
Q

time it takes for excretion to lower the drug concentration by half

A

the half life

49
Q

the next dose of a drug is scheduled at the time the previous dose should reach its? thus sustaining a therapeutic level of the drug.

A

half life

50
Q

peak levels

A

highest concentration

51
Q

trough levels

A

lowest concentration

52
Q

drugs work by?

A

attaching to receptor sites on cells or preventing other substances from attaching to those sites.

53
Q

drugs that produce a response are

A

agonists

54
Q

drugs that block a response are

A

antagonists

55
Q

direct action on a receptor site such as when the rate of cell activity is stimulated or secretion from a gland is increased, or cell activity is depressed and the function of a specific organ is reduced.

A

stimulation or depression

56
Q

this action such as injected insulin for people who do not produce their own

A

replacement

57
Q

this action of organisms, such as the action of an antibiotic when it blocks synthesis of the bacterial cell wall

A

inhibition or killing

58
Q

this action such as that produced by a laxative on the colon wall, resulting in peristalsis and defecation

A

irritation

59
Q

the less specific the drugs action,

A

the more side effects the drug may have

60
Q

example of an adverse reaction

A

nausea produced by an antibiotic when its desired action is to kill pathogenic organisms.

61
Q

harmful effects that occur when blood levels of a drug rises above the therapeutic range and causes unintended damage to normal cells

A

toxic effects

62
Q

toxic effects occur if the blood level rises above ?

A

30 mcg/mL

63
Q

FDA designation that the drug may have serious side effects or health risks

A

black box warnings

64
Q

)combined interaction) occurs when the action of the two drugs combined is increased or greater than the effect of the drugs given separately.

A

synergistic effect

65
Q

factors affecting drug therapy (clinical factors 4)

A

1) age, weight
2) prsent health disorder
3) other disease entities
4) pt drug compliance

66
Q

factors affecting drug therapy (administartion 4)

A

1) drug form
2) route of drug
3) multiple drug therapy
4) drug interactions

67
Q

factors affecting drug therapy ( pharmacodynamics 3)

A

1) onset, peak, and duration
2) therapeutic range
3) side effects, adverse reactions

68
Q

factors affecting drug therapy ( pharmacokinetics 4)

A

1) absorption
2) distribution
3) metabolism
4) excretion

69
Q

medication is injected into the dermis just under the epidermis

A

intradermal

70
Q

medication is injected into the tissues just below the dermis of the skin

A

subcutaneous

71
Q

medication is injected into a muscle

A

intramuscular

72
Q

medication is injected into the epidural space of spinal cord

A

epidural

73
Q

medication is injected into the intrathecal space of spinal cord

A

intrathecal

74
Q

fourth leading cause of death in the US is from ?

A

ADE ( adverse drug event) from medication errors

75
Q

strategies to prevent errors

A

1) persevering
2) being physically present
3) reviewing care plans
3) offering options
4) using standards
5) involving another nurse or physician

76
Q

affect the ability to absorb, metabolize, and excrete drugs (5)

A

difference in 1) size

2) age
3) weight
4) surface area
5) organ maturiity

77
Q

older pts on long term anti-inflammatory therapy for arthritis should be monitored for ?

A

gastrointestinal bleeding and anemia

78
Q

if the pt has had a stroke, causing weakness on one side, where should the medication be placed?

A

be certain the medication is placed on the strongest side of the mouth ( always assess swallowing ability before giving anything by mouth to a pt who has had a stroke or neurologic problem causing weakness)

79
Q

what position do you want your pt in when assessing swallowing ability?

A

high fowler’s position

80
Q

process of identifying all the pts medications and communicating this info to the pt and staff.

A

medication reconciliation

81
Q

if a drug has a narrow therapeutic range it is important to assess the ?

A

serum blood level of the drug

82
Q

assess information about each drug including (7)

A

1) noting how the drug works
2) its purpose
3) usual dosages
4) routes of administration
5) side effects
6) the nursing implications for administration
7) monitoring of the pt

83
Q

what is one way to assess the pt’s subjective response to a medication?

A

as the pt if they are noticing any ill effects that is associated with taking the medication.

84
Q

possible nursing diagnoses for pts receving drug therapy include the following (2)

A

1) deficient knowledge related to use and adverse effects of prescribed drugs
2) noncompliance with medication regimen

85
Q

what are the Six Rights of medication administration

A

1) Right drug
2) Right dose
3) Right route
4) Right time
5) Right patient
6) Right documentation
(DDRTPD)

86
Q

at least how many pt identifiers must be used to ensure that the medication is administered to the correct person?

A

two

87
Q

what will you document in the pts chart after the drug is given

A

route, time and site, info about assessment for side effects from previous doses of the drug. any pt teaching that was done, the dosage schedule or precautions

88
Q

a ? day limit may be imposed by some agencies on all medications

A

30 day limit

89
Q

used to record a pts medications, nurses record the doses of drugs administered each day, referred to when giving regularly scheduled and PRN medications

A

MAR ( medication Administration Record)

90
Q

CPOE

A

computerized physician order entry - prescriber directly enters the mediation order in the comp;

Nursing 1 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions