Mod 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Adequate food intake consists of what?

A

Balance of nutrition

Water
Carbohydrates 
Protein 
Fats
Vitamins 
Minerals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three major functions of nutrients?

A

Providing energy for the body process and movement

Providing structural material for body tissue

regulating body processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the body’s most basic nutrient need?

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the body’s second most important nutrient need?

A

Fuel or energy

Carbohydrates, fats and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are macronutrients?

A

Carbohydrates, fats, protein, minerals, vitamins and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are micronutrients?

A

Vitamins and minerals that are required in small amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What elements make up carbohydrates?

A

Carbon
Hydrogen
Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two types of carbohydrates?

A

Simple carbohydrates

Complex carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

High sugar content foods are referred to as what?

A

Empty calories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the simplest of all carbohydrates that are water soluble and are produced naturally by both plants and animals?

A

Sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the difference between monosaccharides and disaccharides?

A

Monosaccharides are single molecule

Disaccharides are double molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the three monosaccharides?

A

Glucose
Fructose
Galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Out of the monosaccharides which is the most abundant in simple sugars?

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Polysaccharides come from what?

A

Starches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is fiber a complex carbohydrate or a simple carbohydrate?

A

Complex carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is fiber digested by humans?

A

It can not be digested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Carbohydrates provide what to the human body?

A

Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How are carbohydrates stored?

A

Either as glycogen or as fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Proteins are composed of what elements?

A

Carbon
Hydrogen
Oxygen
Nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Three quarters of the body solids are made up of what?

A

Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the difference between essential amino acids and nonessential amino acids?

A

Essential amino acids are those that have to be supplied as part of the protein ingested

Nonessential amino acids can be manufactured by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many essential amino acids are there?

A

Nine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the nonessential amino acids?

A
Alanine 
Aspartic acid 
Cystine 
Glutamic acid
Glycine
Hydroxyproline
Proline
Serine
Tyrosine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between complete protein and incomplete proteins?

A

Complete proteins contain all of the essential amino acids plus many of the nonessential ones

Incomplete proteins lack one or more essential amino acids ( most commonly lysine, methionine or tryptophan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where does digestion of proteins begin?

A

Stomach however it is mostly digested in the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is nutrition?

A

Is the sum of all the interaction between an organism and the food it consumes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Protein metabolism includes what three activities?

A

Anabolism- building tissue
Catabolism- breaking down tissue
Maintaining nitrogen balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the difference between the elements in lipids and the ones in carbohydrates?

A

Lipids contain a higher proportion of hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is fatty acids made up of?

A

Of carbon chains and hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the determining factor of whether a fatty acid is considered saturated or unsaturated?

A

The relative number of hydrogen atoms they contain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where are lipids digested?

A

It start in the stomach but is mainly digested in the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are some water- soluble vitamins?

A

C and B complex vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do fat soluble vitamins include?

A

A, D, E, and K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the difference between macro minerals and microminerals?

A

Macrominerals are required daily amount over 100 mg such as calcium, phosphorus, sodium, potassium, magnesium, chloride and sulfur

Microminerals are less the 100 mg like zinc, manganese, iodine, fluoride, copper, cobalt, chromium and selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is used to determine if an individual’s healthy weight?

A

Ideal body weight (IBW)

Body mass index (BMW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When would the the rule of 5 be use to calculate approximate IBW?

A

If it is a female client rule of 6 is for male clients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When should the BMI not be used to calculate healthy weight?

A

People who have fluid retention ( ascites or edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What BMI is considered underweight?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What BMI is considered normal ?

A

18.5-24.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What BMI is considered overweight?

A

25.0-29.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What BMI is considered obese?

A

30.0-34.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What BMI is considered extreme obesity?

A

40.0+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How would you calculate BMI?

A

Height in meters (1 meter is 39.6 in)
Measure weight in kilograms ( 1 kilograms is 2.2 lbs)

Divid the two and you will have the BMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are factors affecting nutrition?

A
Development 
Sex
Ethnicity and culture 
Beliefs about food
Personal preferences
Religious practices 
Life style
Economics
Medications and therapy 
Health
Alcohol consumption 
Advertising 
Psychological factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does grapefruit interact with certain medications?

A

Can cause toxicity when taken with a variety of medication including amiodarone, carbamazepine, cisapride, cyclosporine, diazepam, nifedipine, sequinavir or,statins, terfenadine, verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does vitamin K interact with certain medications?

A

Can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does tyramine interact with certain medications?

A

In combination with monomine oxidase inhibitors medication isocarboxazid, isoniazid, linezolid, phenelizine and tranlcypromine it creates sudden increase in epinephrine leading to headaches, increased pluse and blood pressure and possible death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does milk interact with certain medications?

A

Interferes with absorption of tetracycline antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the benefits of on demand feelings for newborns/ infants?

A

Decreases problems with over feeding or under feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the stomach capacity of a infant?

A

90 mls

51
Q

When should solid food be introduced to a baby’s diet?

A

4-6 months

52
Q

Why should one food be introduced to a infant at a time?

A

To see if it is tolerated and that there are no allergies

53
Q

Why should infants under one year of age not me feed honey?

A

Because it contains spores of clostridium botulinum and can cause infection and death

54
Q

How much fluid should a toddler have a day?

A

1,250 ml in a 24 hour period

55
Q

How many calories are required for a toddler?

A

1000-1400 Kcal/day

56
Q

What can help toddlers meet nutritional needs?

A
Make mealtime pleasant
Offer a variety of simple attractive foods
Do not use food as a reward 
Schedule mealtime 
Avoid routine use of sweet desserts
57
Q

How much liquid does a preschooler require?

A

75 ml of liquid per kilogram of body weight per day 1,500 ml every 24 hours

58
Q

How many calories do school age kids require?

A

1,600- 2,200 Kcal/ day

59
Q

18% of American children between the ages of 6-18 are what?

A

Overweight

60
Q

How much milk should adolescent drink and why?

A

1 quart a day because their peak bone mineralization occurs at 12 for girls and 14 for boys

61
Q

What are common nutrition and self esteem problems among adolescents?

A

Obesity
Anorexia nervosa (refusal to eat)
Bulimia ( binge/ purge)

62
Q

How much iron should young adult females intake?

A

18 mg of iron daily

63
Q

Why would an healthy middle aged adult gain weight?

A

Decreased metabolic activity and decreased physical activity

64
Q

What are some problems associated with nutrition in older adults?

A
Difficulty chewing 
Lowered glucose tolerance 
Deceased social interaction 
Loss of appetite and senses of smell and taste
Limited income 
Difficulty sleeping at night
65
Q

What are nursing diagnosis for nutritional problems?

A

Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirement
Obesity
Overweight
Readiness for enhanced nutrition

66
Q

What are signs of malnutrition?

A

Appearance- apathetic, listless, looks tired, easily fatigued
Weight- overweight/ underweight
Skin- dry flaky or scaly, pale or pigmented presence of petechia or bruises lack of fat or edema
Nails- brittle, pale, ridged or spoon shaped
Hair- dry, dull, sparse, loss of color, brittle
Eyes- pale/ red conjunctiva,dryness, soft cornea, dull cornea, night blindness
Lips- swollen, red cracked at the sides of the mouth, vertical fissures
Tongue- swollen, beefy red or magenta colored, smooth in appearance, decreased in size
Gums- spongy, swollen, inflamed, bleed easily
Muscles- underdeveloped, flaccid, wasted, soft
GI system- anorexia, indigestion, diarrhea, constipation, enlarged liver, protruding abdomen
Nervous system- decreased reflexes, sensory loss, burning and tingling of hands and feet, mental confusion

67
Q

What are the devises used for long term nutritional support?

A

Gastrostomy and jejunostomy

68
Q

How long should a clear liquid diet be used?

A

Short term 24to 36 hours

69
Q

How many meals per day should someone have that is on a full liquid diet to have adequate intake?

A

6 feeding or more

70
Q

What is the difference between a soft diet and a puréed diet?

A

Soft diets are used for clients that have difficulty chewing or swallowing

Puréed diets have liquid added to the food

71
Q

What is the difference between the Levin tube and the Salem sump tube?

A

The levin tube is a single lumen and the Salem sump tube is a double lumen

72
Q

What is the purpose of a nasogastric tube?

A

To deliver medication and food to clients who can not swallow without aspirating and suctioning stomach contents

73
Q

What should you assess before inserting a nasogastric tube?

A
History of nasal surgery 
Deviated septum 
Patency of nares 
Gag reflex is present 
Mental status
74
Q

Why do you use a water soluble lubricant when inserting a nasogastric tube?

A

Because if it is accidentally inserted in to the lungs it will devolve and won’t cause respiratory problems

75
Q

What should you do if the nasogastric tube becomes coiled in the throat?

A

Withdraw it until it is straight and try to insert it again

76
Q

When preparing the nasogastric tube, large bore tube why should you place it in warm water?

A

It allows the tube to become more pliable and flexible

77
Q

What methods can a nurse use to check placement of a nasogastric tube?

A

Aspirate gi secretions
Measures the ph of aspirated fluids
Confirm the length of the tube with the insertion mark

78
Q

What does urinary elimination depend on?

A

Effective functioning of the upper urinary tract kidneys, ureters and the lower urinary tract urinary bladder, urethra and pelvic floor

79
Q

Why is the right kidney lower then the left kidney?

A

Due to the position of the liver

80
Q

What do the kidneys do?

A

They are the primary regulators of fluid and acid base balance in the body

81
Q

What are the functional units of the kidneys?

A

Nephrons, filter the blood and remove metabolic waste

82
Q

How much cardiac output passes through the kidneys of an average adult every min?

A

21 %

83
Q

Each kidney contains how many nephrons?

A

1 million

84
Q

What is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle?

A

Glucose

85
Q

What causes more water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and less urine is excreted?

A

ADH that is released from the posterior pituitary

86
Q

When fluid intake is is high or blood solute concentration is low what is suppressed?

A

ADH

87
Q

How long are adult ureters?

A

25 to 30 cm

88
Q

What is the flap like fold of mucous membranes on the end of the ureter connected to the bladder for?

A

Reflux or back flow of urine

89
Q

What are the four layers of the bladder?

A

An inner mucous layer
A connective tissue layer
Three layers of smooth muscle fibers
An outer serous layer

90
Q

What does the smooth detrusor muscles do?

A

Allows the bladder to expand to fill up with urine and contract to release it

91
Q

What is the trigone?

A

At the base of the bladder is a triangular area marked by the ureter openings at the posterior corners and the opening of the urethra at the anterior inferior corner

92
Q

What is the normal bladder capacity?

A

300 and 600 ml of urine

93
Q

What is the size difference between the male urethra and female urethra?

A

Females is 3-4 cm

Males is 20 cm

94
Q

What passes through the pelvic floor?

A

Virginia, urethra and rectum

95
Q

When is urinary control developed?

A

2-5 years of age

96
Q

What rule should you teach preschool female about urination?

A

To wipe front to back

97
Q

Kidneys do what between the age of 5-10 years?

A

Doubles in size

98
Q

What is enuresis?

A

Involuntary passing of urine when control should be established

99
Q

When should nocturnal enuresis be considered a problem?

A

After the age of 6

100
Q

When do fetal kidneys begin to excrete urine?

A

Between the 11th and 12th week of development

101
Q

Why dose infant urine appear light yellow?

A

Because the ability to concentrate urine is minimal

102
Q

When dose urine concentration begin to appear Amber?

A

When kidneys become mature at the first and second year of life

103
Q

When do kidneys reach their full size?

A

Between 35 and 40 years of age

104
Q

After 50 what happens to the kidneys?

A

They begin to diminish in size and function

105
Q

At the age of 80 what happens to nephrons?

A

30% are lost

106
Q

Why do fluid such as alcohol increase urine out put?

A

Because they inhibit the production of anti diuretic hormones

107
Q

What fluids can change the color of urine?

A

Beets can cause urine to be red and foods containing carotene can cause the urine to appear yellower than usual

108
Q

How do diuretic work?

A

They increase formation by preventing the reabsorption of water and electrolytes from tubules of the kidneys into the bloodstream

109
Q

What disorders effect blood flow to the kidneys?

A

Heart failure
Shock
Hypertension

110
Q

What medication cause urinary retention?

A

Anticholinergic med- atropine, robinul, pro-banthine

Antidepressant/antipsychotic agents- tricyclics, antidepressants and MAO inhibitors

Antihistamine- pseudoephedrine (sudafed)

Anti hypertensive- hydra lazing and methyldopa

Antiparkinsonism drugs

Beta-adrenergic blockers

Opioids

111
Q

What is polyuria?

A

Abnormally large amounts of urine by the kidneys

112
Q

What is polydipsia?

A

Excessive fluid intake which can occur after polyuria

113
Q

What is oliguria?

A

Is low urine out put usually less then 500 ml a day 30 mls an hour for an adult

114
Q

What is anuria?

A

Lack of urine production

115
Q

What are the two most common methods of dialysis?

A

Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis

116
Q

What is the difference between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis?

A

Hemodialysis uses an external machine and with peritoneal dialysis the solution is instilled in the abdominal cavity

117
Q

What is nocturia?

A

Voiding two or more time at night

118
Q

What is urgency?

A

Is the sudden strong desire to void

119
Q

What is dysuria?

A

Voiding is painful of difficult

120
Q

What affect can urinary overdistenion have on the bladder?

A

Causes poor contractility of the detrusor muscles

121
Q

What is the normal ph level of urine?

A

4.5-8

122
Q

What are nursing diagnosis of urinary elimination?

A

Impaired urinary elimination

Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination

123
Q

What can you do to prevent a urinary tract infection?

A
Drink 8, 8 oz glasses of water per day
Void 2-4 hours/ after intercourse 
Avoid harsh soaps in the perineal area
Avoid tight fitting underclothes
Wear Cotton rather then nylon
Wipe front to back
Take shower rather than baths