MOCK4 Flashcards

75 Q

1
Q
  1. During the Control Schedule Process, changes to project schedule can result in change requests to:

A.Schedule baseline

B.Components of project plan

C.Activity attributes

D.Schedule baseline and/or components of Project Management Plan

A

Answer: D Explanation: Best answer. Schedule variance analysis along with review of progress reports, results of performance measures and modifications to the project schedule can result in change requests to the schedule baseline and/or to other components of project management plan.

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2
Q
  1. You are the project manager of a $ 20 million project, and you are struggling to manage the needs of all the stakeholders. So, you decide to classify the stakeholders, which will enable you to focus on the relationships necessary to ensure the success of the project. All the following are valid ways to classify stakeholders EXCEPT:

A.According to Interest

B.According to Organization hierarchy

C.According to Involvement

D.According to Influence

A

Answer: B Explanation: (“I” words J. Most projects will have a large number of stakeholders. As the project manager`s time is limited and must be used as efficiently as possible, these stakeholders should be classified according to their interest, influence, and involvement in the project. This enables the project manager to focus on the relationships necessary to ensure the success of the project.

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3
Q
  1. Your company has awarded a contract to a vendor. After some time, you realize that the vendor representative is your old buddy from school. You inform this to your senior management, but they insist that you continue to administer the contra ct. So, to avoid any accusations of bias in this conflict of interest situation, you should:

A.Document all the decisions taken by you on the activities performed by the vendor.

B.Refrain from administering the contract.

C.Resign from the project.

D.Remind your senior management of conflict of interest.

A

Answer: A Explanation: In case of conflict of interest situations, the project manager should inform senior management, and distance oneself from the conflict of interest situation, if possible. However, in this context, as the senior management insists and the project manager has to continue in the current position, appropriate documentation can help in preventing any accusation of bias in conflict of interest situations. Option B and Option D are not relevant - you had already mentioned about the conflict of interest situation to the senior management and got approval to continue with the project. Option C is an extreme step which need not be taken at this time.

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4
Q
  1. You use a hierarchical structure of resources by resource category and resource type to develop resource-limited schedules. This hierarchical structure is also called a:

A.Business Requirements/Business Needs

B.Work Breakdown Structure

C.Resource Breakdown Structure

D.Graphical Statement of Work (SOW)

A

Answer: C Explanation: Resource breakdown structure (RBS) is a hierarchical structure of resources by resource category and resource type used in resource leveling schedules and to develop resource-limited schedules, and which may be used to identify and analyze project human resource assignments.

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5
Q
  1. The Initiating Process Group consists of processes that facilitate the formal authorization to start a new project or a project phase. All the following should be performed during Initiating, except:

A.Develop the Project Charter

B.Adopt a Project Life Cycle

C.Stakeholder Analysis

D.Create the Project Scope Statement

A

Answer: D Explanation: Project Scope Statement is created during the Planning Process Group.

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6
Q
  1. The Project Management Staff are unable to determine the monetary value for risk impacts on your construction project. One of the team members suggests that you just develop a list of risks to watch out for. However, you tell that you still can prioritize the risks by:

A.Performing a Monte Carlo simulation

B.Performing Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.Performing Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.Listing them as Residual Risks

A

Answer: B Explanation: Qualitative Risk Analysis ranks risks subjectively (e.g. on a scale from 1-10).

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7
Q
  1. To resolve conflicts in your project, you can use all the following conflict resolution methods, except:

A.Collaborating

B.Smoothing

C.Avoiding

D.Directing

A

Answer: D Explanation: Directing is not a method for conflict resolution. “Forcing” would be the closest to directing but is not listed as an option.

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8
Q
  1. You have recently taken over a project from another project manager, who left the company. The project has a CPI of .9 and an SPI of .6, but senior management was not informed. What should you do FIRST?

A.Do not continue to manage the project.

B.Update the management with the status of the project.

C.Bring the project on schedule and then inform the management about the status of the project.

D.Do crashing and fast-tracking of the project.

A

Answer: B Explanation: As per the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, a project manager should always provide true account of information in an appropriate manner at appropriate times. Option A: This is an extreme step and should not be taken now. Option B: This is the correct answer; the management should be informed about the project status. Option C: This is unethical - you should not withhold information from appropriate stakeholders. Option D: Crashing would further increase costs and fast-tracking may increase risks: this may adversely impact the project status, and should be done only after informing the management.

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9
Q
  1. You note that the ability to impact/influence the cost of a project effectively is typically:

A.Greatest at the early stages of the project.

B.Greatest at the middle of the project.

C.Greatest at the project closure stage.

D.Constant throughout forming, storming, norming, and performing

A

Answer: A Explanation: The ability to influence cost is greatest at the early stages of the project, making early scope definition critical.

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10
Q
  1. A project team member informs you that a particular task is taking much more time than estimated. You are surprised because you, had not anticipated this delay, and you ask for status reports and forecasts from all project team members. Which Process Group are you in?

A.Initiating

B.Executing

C.Monitoring and Controlling

D.Planning

A

Answer: C Explanation: Control Communications is the process of collecting and distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts, etc.

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following relates to type of power the Project Manager might have:

A.Autocratic, democratic, Laissez Fair

B.Formal, Reward, Penalty, Expert, Referent

C.Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning

D.Planning

A

Answer: B Explanation: Formal, Reward, & Penalty (Formal/legitimate: based on position in organization). Expert, Referent (based on reputation/credibility).

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12
Q
  1. Frequent heated discussions with your colleague over an issue are creating a hostile environment. Eventually he doesn’t even answer your emails or voice mails. He is exhibiting:

A.Problem solving

B.Avoiding (Withdrawing)

C.Forcing

D.Confronting

A

Answer: B Explanation: Avoid the person; avoid the problem…

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13
Q
  1. Six months into your project, your management lets you know you will receive an incentive of $ 5,000, if you complete the project one month ahead of schedule. When closing the project ahead of schedule, your team informs you the product contains a minor flaw and may not fully satisfy the customer`s needs. However, rectification of the minor flaw will require lot of changes and take 2 more months. In this context, you will:

A.Close out the project.

B.Review the situation with your customer and sponsor.

C.Rectify the flaw and then close out the project.

D.Close the project and then inform the sponsor about the flaw.

A

Answer: B Explanation: Option B: Since this is a “minor flaw,” but rectification of that flaw would take a long time, it is better to discuss with the sponsor and customer and get their inputs. Option A and Option D: This is unethical - the project manager should definitely complete the project as per the specifications before closing the project. Option C: Rectification of a minor flaw can lead to delay of 2 months in the project: so, the project manager should first inform the sponsor and customer before rectification of the flaw.

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is not in the correct sequence?

A.Validate Scope, Close Procurements, Close Project or Phase

B.Kickoff Meeting, Acquire Project Team, Conduct Procurements

C.Quantitative Risk Analysis, Risk Response Planning, Procurement Management Plan, Project Management Plan finalization for approval, Project Management Plan sign off, Kickoff Meeting

D.Cost Estimates, Budget, Cost Management Plan, Quality Management Plan

A

Answer: D Explanation: Cost Management Plan should be first in option D.

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15
Q
  1. You are working in the Project Management Office (PMO) of your organization. Your job responsibility is to:

A.Manage the operational activities in the company .

B.Manage human resource and risk management issues for individual projects .

C.Provide support functions to project managers in the form of training, providing software, standardizing policies, etc.

D.Provide subject matter expertise in the functional areas of the project.

A

Answer: C Explanation: A Project Management Office (PMO) is an organizational body or entity tasked with various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain. The responsibilities of a PMO can range from providing project management support functions to actually being responsible for the direct management of a project.

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16
Q
  1. As a project manager, you are aware that changes are bound to occur during project execution. While you are monitoring and controlling changes, you use the term “project scope creep.” What does the term refer to?

A.Uncontrolled changes

B.Controlled changes

C.Manageable changes

D.Unmanageable changes

A

Answer: A Explanation: Uncontrolled changes are often referred to as project scope creep.

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17
Q
  1. All of the following relate to negotiating skills you should have, except:

A.Deadline, missing man, good guy/bad guy, & fait accompli

B.Negotiate on the merits

C.Joint Problem Solving

D.Don’t dig into your position, improve (or at least not damage) the relationship

A

Answer: A Explanation: These are actually negotiating tactics that may be used against you!

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18
Q
  1. You are documenting project purchasing decisions, specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers. Some tools you can use include all the following, except:

A.Make or buy analysis

B.Bidder conferences

C.Expert judgment

D.Contract types

A

Answer: B Explanation: Option B: This is the correct answer. Documenting project purchasing decisions, specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers are performed as part of the Plan Procurements process. “Bidder conferences” are a technique used in Conduct Procurements process. Make- or buy- analysis, expert judgment, and contract types specified in the options A, C, and D respectively are some of the tools and techniques used in Plan Procurements process.

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19
Q
  1. The following provides information on a particular task in your project:

Early Start (ES): 25 days

Late Start (LS): 30 days

Early Finish (EF): 50 days

Late Finish (LF): 55 days

Based on this information, you can deduce that:

A.The activity is on the critical path.

B.The project may get delayed.

C.The project float is 5 days.

D.The activity is not on the critical path.

A

Answer: D Explanation: Option D: This is the correct option, as the task is not on the critical path. Option A: Since LS - ES = LF - EF = 5 days, the task has a slack of 5 days; hence this task cannot be on the critical path. Option B: There is no information in the question that suggests that the project may get delayed. Option C: The project float is the amount of time a project can be delayed without delaying the externally imposed date. Since the externally imposed date is not mentioned, we cannot determine the project float.

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20
Q
  1. You have just discovered a risk during your project that requires an immediate corrective action. During which Project Risk Management Process is this action performed?

A.Plan Risk Management

B.Risk Reassessment

C.Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.Control Risks

A

Answer: D Explanation: Control Risks is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project.

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21
Q
  1. As a project manager, you use work authorization system to assign and allocate work to your team members in the proper sequence. In this context, the primary purpose of the work authorization system is to:

A.Prevent team members from starting the work without your permission.

B.Prevent scope creep.

C.Prevent unnecessary changes to project scope.

D.Clarify and initiate the work for each work package.

A

Answer: D Explanation: Work authorization system: A subsystem of the overall project management system. It is a collection of formal documented procedures that defines how project work will be authorized (committed) to ensure that the work is done by the identified organization, at the right time, and in the proper sequence. It includes the steps, documents, tracking system, and defined approval levels needed to issue work authorizations.

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22
Q
  1. Your project is facing attrition of project resources, and you would like to document processes carefully to ensure business continuity in the future. Certain costs will have to be incurred for this purpose. What type of costs are they?

A.Costs of nonconformance

B.Emotional Intelligence-related costs

C.Failure costs

D.Prevention costs

A

Answer: D Explanation: Proactive is necessary.

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23
Q
  1. You are in the process of obtaining seller responses to select a seller. You conduct a bidder conference, where your primary objective is to:

A.Ensure that sellers have a clear understanding of the proposal.

B.Determine who would be qualified sellers for bidding.

C.Evaluate the interest level of sellers.

D.Use evaluation criteria to select sellers.

A

Answer: A Explanation: Bidder conferences are meetings with all prospective sellers and buyers prior to submittal of a bid or proposal. They are used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement (both technical and contractual requirements), and that no bidders receive preferential treatment.

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24
Q
  1. You would like to use project management best practices to sequence the activities for your road construction project. Which of the following are based on preferred dependencies and/or best practices?

A.Mandatory dependencies

B.Discretionary dependencies

C.Industry norms

D.Best Practice standards for ISO 9001 certification

A

Answer: B Explanation: Discretionary dependencies are established based on the knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences. Discretionary dependencies should be fully documented, since they can create arbitrary total float values and can limit later scheduling options.

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25
Q
  1. During the Plan Risk Management process, you define how to conduct risk management activities for a project because careful and explicit planning enhances the probability of success for the subsequent risk management processes. Which of the following is NOT done during Plan Risk Management?

A.Identify Risks

B.Establish an agreed-upon basis for evaluating risk

C.Ensure that the degree, type, and visibility of risk management are commensurate with both the risks and the importance of the project

D.Provide sufficient resources and time for risk management activities

A

Answer: A Explanation: Planning risk management processes is important to ensure that the degree, type, and visibility of risk management are commensurate with both the risks and the importance of the project to the organization. Planning is also important to provide sufficient resources and time for risk management activities, and to establish an agreed-upon basis for evaluating risks.

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26
Q
  1. The Project Management Plan is the most important planning document produced with inputs from several subsidiary processes. In which of the following Processes is the project management plan NOT used as an Input?

A.Monitor and Control Project Work

B.Develop Project Charter

C.Perform Integrated Change Control

D.Direct and Manage Project Work

A

Answer: B Explanation: Develop Project Management Plan is the process of documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans. The Project Charter is an Input to the Project Management Plan, but not vice versa…..

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27
Q
  1. You are doing a structured review to determine whether product activities comply with organizational and project policies. This is conducted as part of (a) ________________, and is performed during (b) _____________ process.

A.(a) Quality audit (b) Quality Assurance

B.(a) Quality audit (b) Quality Control

C.(a) Process analysis (b) Quality Assurance

D.(a) Process analysis (b) Quality Control

A

Answer: A Explanation: Quality audit is a structured, independent review performed to determine whether product activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures. “Quality audits” is a technique used during the Perform Quality Assurance process.

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28
Q
  1. When you (the buyer) control a contract, you should pay attention to all the following, except:

A.Ensure that contractual obligations are met.

B.Apply appropriate project management processes to the contractual relationship and integrate the outputs from these processes to the overall management of the project.

C.Monitor payments to the seller, as per the contract.

D.Perform regular procurement audits.

A

Answer: D Explanation: A procurement audit is a structured review of the procurement process originating from Plan Procurements process through Control Procurements Process. This is one of the tools and techniques used in Close Procurements process.

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29
Q
  1. You are working on a 12 month assignment to build a website with 4000 pages for $ 1,000,000. You are supposed to spend $ 250,000 every 3 months. After 6 months, you determine that only $ 400,000 of work is completed and cost incurred is $ 800,000. What is the ETC?

A.$ 2,000,000

B.$ 1,500,000

C.$ 1,000,000

D.$ 1,200,000

A

Answer: D Explanation: The default value of EAC (assuming current variances are typical) is calculated as below: EAC = AC + (BAC-EV) / CPI

= $800,000 + ($ 1,000,000 - $ 400,000)/($ 400,000 / $ 800,000)

= $ 800,000 + ($ 600,000/0.5) = $ 2,000,000.

So, ETC = EAC – AC = $ 2,000,000 - $ 800,000 = $ 1,200,000

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30
Q
  1. Your project is complete and you are performing project closure activities. In this context, what should you do LAST?

A.Creating final product, service, or result transition

B.Releasing project resources working on the project

C.Updating organizational process assets

D.Accepting deliverables

A

Answer: B Explanation: Final product, service, or result transition, organizational process assets updates are outputs of the Close Project or Phase and accepted deliverables are its inputs. However, even Close Project will need resources (e.g. people, equipment, etc). Hence, releasing of project resources should happen at the very end of the Close Project or Phase.

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31
Q
  1. While preparing the schedule for the project activities, you find there is very limited information on activity durations, but you may be able to obtain some information from others within you company. Which estimating tool do you use?

A.Three-point estimates

B.Parametric estimating

C.Quantitative estimating

D.Analogous estimating

A

Answer: D Explanation: Analogous estimating may use parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight, and complexity, from a previous, similar project, as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure for a future project. Analogous duration estimating is frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project, for example, in the early phases of a project. Analogous estimating uses historical information and expert judgment.

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32
Q
  1. You are a retail company which routinely buys goods from foreign countries. Since currency fluctuation is an important risk, you keep all other factors constant and try to find out how much your project will be impacted if the currency rate fluctuates by 5%, 10%, 20% or 25%. This helps you determine appropriate risk response. This can also be effectively shown using:

A.Beta probability distributions

B.Expected monetary value analysis

C.Tornado diagram

D.Simulation

A

Answer: C Explanation: Sensitivity analysis helps to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. It examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective being examined when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values. One typical display of sensitivity analysis is the tornado diagram, which is useful for comparing relative importance and impact of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty to those that are more stable.

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33
Q
  1. In your project, you are defining and documenting stakeholders needs to meet the project objectives. You know this is very important as the projects success is directly influenced by the care taken during this process. You should be very diligent when you:

A.Identify Stakeholders

B.Collect Requirements

C.Create Project Charter

D.Create Project Management Plan

A

Answer: B Explanation: Collect Requirements is the process of defining and documenting stakeholders needs to meet the project objectives. The stakeholders have already been identified. The projects success is directly influenced by the care taken in capturing and managing project and product requirements. Requirements include the quantified and documented needs and expectations of the sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders.

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34
Q
  1. You need to gather information, but certain people have expressed their opinions in a way that seems to bias objectivity. You might try:

A.Narrowing the number of sponsors

B.The Delphi technique

C.Applying Parkinson’s Law

D.Compromising

A

Answer: B Explanation: Anonymous method for gathering information

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35
Q
  1. A documented direction to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks is called:

A.Corrective action

B.Preventive action

C.Defect repair

D.Risk transference

A

Answer: B Explanation: Preventive action: A documented direction to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks.

36
Q
  1. You are monitoring the technical performance of your website. Past data on the number of users and their experience helps you forecast how your website would perform if the number of users increases in the future. This is an example of:

A.Design of experiments

B.Control chart

C.Organizational process assets

D.Trend analysis

A

Answer: D Explanation: Trend analysis is performed using run charts and involves mathematical techniques to forecast future outcomes based on historical results. Trend analysis is often used to monitor technical performance, i.e, how many errors or defects have been identified, and how many remain uncorrected and cost and schedule performance, i.e., how many activities per period were completed with significant variances.

37
Q
  1. When conducting procurement negotiations, all the following steps should be followed, except

A.Project manager leads negotiating process

B.Subjects covered may include responsibilities, authority to make changes, applicable terms, and governing law.

C.For complex items, contract negotiation may be an independent process with inputs & outputs of their own.

D.Negotiations should clarify the structure, requirements, and other terms of the purchases.

A

Answer: A Explanation: The project manager may not be the lead negotiator on procurements. The project manager and other members of the Project Management Staff may be present during negotiations to provide assistance, and if needed to add clarification on the project’s technical, quality, and management requirements.

38
Q
  1. As a project manager, you are required to produce project performance reports on a regular basis, your project`s Budget at Completion is $750,000, planned value is $100,000, schedule variance is $30,000, and cost variance is $50,000. What is the percentage complete and estimate at completion in your project?

A.18%, $ 500,000

B.17.33%, $ 461,538

C.17.8%, $ 437,500

D.18%, $ 437,500

A

Answer: B Explanation:

SV = EV – PV EV = SV + PV

= 30,000 + 100,000 = 130,000

CV= EV – AC AC = EV- CV

=130,000 – 50,000 = 80,000

Percentage Complete = EV/BAC x 100

= 130,000/750,000x100 = 17.33%

CPI=EV/AC

= 130,000 / 80,000 =1.625

EAC = AC + (BAC-EV) / CPI

= 80,000 + (750,000 – 130,000) / 1.625

= 80,000 + (620,000) / 1.625

= 461,538

39
Q
  1. Which of the following processes occur in the Planning Process Group?

A.Identify Risks

B.Manage Stakeholders Engagement

C.Acquire Project Team

D.Identify Stakeholders

A

Answer: A Explanation: Only Identify Risks occurs during Planning Process Group.

40
Q
  1. You have discovered that a deviation from the schedule baseline has occurred. You want to determine the reason and level of variance relative to the schedule baseline so that corrective action can be taken. Which of the following tools would you use for this purpose?

A.Scheduling tool

B.Performance reviews

C.What-If Scenario analysis

D.Variance analysis

A

Answer: D Explanation:

Variance analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of variance relative to the schedule baseline and decide whether corrective or preventive action is required.

41
Q
  1. When your company buys computers from Dell, you also pay extra for a three-year warranty which ensures that any manufacturing defects will be covered. The risk response strategy used is:

A.Exploit

B.Avoid

C.Mitigate

D.Transfer

A

Answer: D Explanation: Transfer. Risk transfer requires shifting some or all of the negative impact of a threat, along with ownership of the response, to a third party… Transference tools can be quite diverse and include, but are not limited to, the use of insurance, performance bonds, warranties, guarantees, etc.

42
Q
  1. You are performing several actions to execute the project management plan and to complete the work defined in the Project Scope Statement. You are:

A.Taking corrective or preventive action to control the project performance

B.Settling or closing any contract agreement established for the project

C.Creating a document that will formally authorize the project

D.Collecting work performance information about the completion status of the deliverables and what has been accomplished

A

Answer: D Explanation: Option D: You are in Executing. Work performance information, about the completion status of the deliverables and what has been accomplished, is collected as part of project execution and is fed into the performance reporting process. Option A: This is done as part of the Monitor and Control Project Work—not during the project execution phase. Option B: This is done as part of the Close Procurements, which is part of the project closure activities.

43
Q
  1. Your quality process did not meet the four sigma requirements desired by your customer. So, some of your products were rejected and there is a possibility that you would not receive repeat business from the customer. From a quality perspective, the costs associated with the rejected products can also be categorized as:

A.Cost of conformance

B.Customer retention costs

C.Failure costs

D.Performance costs

A

Answer: C Explanation: Failure costs (cost of non-conformance) include costs to rework products, components, or processes that are non-compliant; costs of warranty work and waste; and costs due to loss of reputation.

44
Q
  1. In which Process Group will approved changes be implemented?

A.Planning Process Group

B.Executing Process Group

C.Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

D.Closing Process Group

A

Answer: B Explanation: The Executing Process Group consists of those processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications, and includes implementing changes approved by the Change Control Board.

45
Q
  1. What is the to-complete performance index (TCPI) based on the given data:

Budget at completion of the project = 700,000

Cost variance of the project = 25,000

Earned value of the project = 200,000

Estimate to Complete has now been revised to 425,000

A.0.9

B.1.176

C.1.5

D.-1.5

A

Answer: B Explanation: CV = EV - AC, AC = EV - CV

200,000 - 25,000 =175,000

EAC = AC + ETC

EAC = 175000 + 425000

EAC = 600,000

TCP I = BAC – EV / EAC - AC

= (700,000 - 200,000) / (600,000 - 175,000)

= 500,000 / 425000 = 1.176

46
Q
  1. You have just completed the project. While reviewing the costs, you observed that most of the project`s budget was utilized for activities performed in processes relating to one particular process group. The Process Group where most project expenditures are typically made is:

A.Planning Process Group

B.Executing Process Group

C.Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

D.Closing Process Group

A

Answer: B Explanation: A large portion of the project`s budget will be expended in performing the Executing Process Group processes.

47
Q
  1. The concepts of “Zero Defects” and “Do It Right First Time” were formulated by:

A.Ouichi

B.Deming

C.Crosby

D.Juran

A

Answer: C Explanation: Philip Crosby defined quality as “Zero Defects” and “Right First Time”.

48
Q
  1. A new project manager in your organization, is ready to enter into a contract, but is unsure of the type of contract she should select. Which type of contract represents the highest risk to the seller?

A.Cost reimbursable plus incentive

B.Fixed price

C.Fixed price plus incentive

D.Cost- reimbursable

A

Answer: B Explanation: Notice it says “Seller.” Be careful! J.

Fixed price contracts involve setting a fixed total price for a defined product or service to be provided. Sellers are under highest risk as fixed-price contracts are legally obligated to complete such contracts, with possible financial damages, if they do not.

49
Q
  1. A red, yellow, green graph, that can be used to graphically illustrate the risks 9threats and opportunities) on the project, qualitatively is called the:

A.Risk Contingency Plan

B.Risk Breakdown Structure

C.Risk Register

D.P – I Matrix

A

Answer: D Explanation: P-I Matrix (Probability – Impact Matrix.

50
Q
  1. You are involved in manufacturing ball bearings using lathe machines. The ball bearings should have a diameter of 5.0 cms - allowable control limits are 4.95 cms to 5.05 cms. Measurements made after the end of the process for the bearings produced are: 4.96, 4.98, 5.01, 5.03, 5.02, 5.01, 5.03, 5.04, 5.02, 4.96, 4.98, and 5.00. What is your conclusion about the process?

A.Process is out of control and needs to be investigated

B.Process is in control and adjustments are not required

C.The tool needs to be changed or re-calibrated

D.Process should be further measured using a run chart

A

Answer: A Explanation: A process is considered out of control when a data point exceeds a control limit or if seven consecutive points (i.e. 5.01 or higher) are above or below the mean.

51
Q
  1. Your customer has decided to terminate your software project as the need for the product does not exist anymore. As a project manager, what step would you take first?

A.Call a meeting with the customer to see if they will reconsider

B.Verify the request against the procurement documents

C.Enter Close Procurements process

D.Seek project sponsors advice

A

Answer: C Explanation: Close Procurements is the process of completing each project procurement. Early termination of a contract is a special case of procurement closure that can result from a mutual agreement of both parties, from the default of one party, or for convenience of the buyer, if provided for in the contract. As per the termination clause, the buyer may have to compensate the seller for seller’s preparations and for any completed and accepted work related to the terminated part of the contract.

52
Q
  1. You are working in the “vendor management” group in your company. During Plan Procurements, you are involved with documenting the products, services, and results requirements and identifying potential sellers. You will be requiring all the following inputs during Plan Procurements, except:

A.Procurement statements of work

B.Requirements documentation

C.Organizational process assets

D.Project schedule

A

Answer: A Explanation: Procurement statements of work is the output of Plan Procurements process. All the remaining are inputs required for Plan Procurements.

53
Q
  1. You have created a WBS and are ready to move on to the next process which is:

A.Develop Project Scope Statement

B.Create WBS Dictionary

C.Plan Schedule Management

D.Project Network Diagram

A

Answer: C Explanation: Sequence matters on the exam. Know it well!

54
Q
  1. Which of the following will you undertake in the Monitoring and Controlling process of your project?

A.Confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project assignments .

B.Influencing the factors that could circumvent integrated change control so that only approved changes are implemented .

C.Making relevant information available to project stakeholders as planned.

D.Auditing the quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used .

A

Answer: B Explanation: Monitoring and Controlling process group includes… influencing the factors that could circumvent integrated change control so only approved changes are implemented.

55
Q
  1. In PDM, which precedence relationship type is most commonly used?

A.FS (Finish to Start)

B.FF (Finish to Finish)

C.SS (Start to Start)

D.SF (Start to Finish)

A

Answer: A Explanation: In PDM, finish-to-start (FS) is the most commonly used type of precedence relationship.

56
Q
  1. If there is a fire, the risk response plan developed is to use a fire extinguisher. If the fire extinguisher cannot take care of the fire, you call the fire department. Calling the fire department is an example of:

A.Secondary risk

B.Residual risk

C.Fallback Plan

D.Work around

A

Answer: C Explanation: Several risk response strategies are available… A fallback plan can be developed for implementation if the selected strategy turns out not to be fully effective, or if an accepted risk occurs.

57
Q
  1. A project manager wants to update a project management plan. For performance measurement purposes, you suggest the updated project management plan include:

A.Performance reports and enterprise environmental factors.

B.Expert judgment and change control meetings.

C.Final product, service, or result transition and organizational process assets updates.

D.Scope, quality management plan, cost, and schedule baselines.

A

Answer: D Explanation: Option D: Best answer. Project management plan elements that may be updated include, but are not limited to, schedule management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, scope baseline, schedule baseline, and cost performance baseline.

58
Q
  1. According to the 80/20 rule, 80 percent of the problems are because of 20 percent of the causes. To identify the most probable defects and to evaluate nonconformities, you do a rank ordering of the defects using:

A.Statistical sampling

B.Control chart

C.Pareto diagrams

D.Inspection

A

Answer: C Explanation: A Pareto chart (also referred to as a Pareto diagram) is a specific type of histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence. It shows how many defects are generated by type or category of identified cause. Rank ordering is used to focus on corrective action.

59
Q
  1. You create several project documents which will help your team manage the project. Which of the following is NOT an example of a project document?

A.Schedule baseline

B.Assumption log

C.Roles and responsibilities matrix (RACI RAM)

D.Risk register

A

Answer: A Explanation: Schedule Baseline is part of project management plan (and not included as part of project documents). All the others are included as part of project documents.

60
Q
  1. You have asked your programmer to give you an estimate of how long she will take to complete a software program. She mentions that she would most probably get the job finished in 2 hours. But if she runs into some issues doing unit-testing for the program, it could take her as long as 7 hours. On the other hand, she may be able use with to pick up a similar program from the organization process assets, in which case it will take her only 1 hour. What is the standard deviation?

A.2 hours

B.1 hour

C.3 hours

D.Cannot be determined from the provided information

A

Answer: B Explanation:

Standard Deviation = (Pessimistic – Optimistic )/ 6 = (7 - A) / 6 = 1

61
Q
  1. Refer to the diagram above. Which of the following situations could this diagram most likely represent?

Activity X -> 7 day -> Activity Z

A.Activity X (gathering requirements), and Activity Z (writing code) should be done in parallel.

B.Activity Z (unit testing the code) should begin 7 days after finishing Activity X (writing the code).

C.Activity X and Activity Z together have 7 days of slack.

D.Activity Z (plastering the floor) should begin 7 days after beginning Activity X (pouring concrete).

A

Answer: B Explanation: This is used to depict a finish-to-start relationship where 7 days represents lag or, “waiting time.” Only Option B talks about a lag where, after completing Activity X, we must wait for 7 days before starting work on Activity Z. Note: Option A shows parallel relationship between the activities and not a lag. Option C shows slack and does not describe lag. Option D shows start-to-start relationship with a lag.

62
Q
  1. Matrix organizations exhibit features of both projectized and functional organizations. In a weak matrix organization, the role of a project manager may be that of a:

A.Project coordinator

B.Manager with considerable authority

C.Support person

D.Functional manager

A

Answer: A Explanation: Weak matrices maintain many of the characteristics of a functional organization, and the role of a project manager is more of a coordinator or expediter than that of a true project manager.

63
Q
  1. A team member suggested the addition of a functionality, which he thinks, will improve customer satisfaction. This feature was listed as out of scope in the Project Charter. Your approach should be to:

A.Allow for the functionality, because satisfying the customer is your objective.

B.Disallow the new requirement, because it changes the project scope, and the Project Charter explicitly states this requirement is not to be included in the project.

C.Make changes to the project plan to accommodate the new requirement.

D.Ask the customer for additional funding to implement the requirement .

A

Answer: B Explanation: This is a team member—not a customer or sponsor. Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. Managing the project scope is primarily concerned with defining and controlling what is and what is not included in the project.

64
Q
  1. To get the work done, a supervisor threatens punishment and strictly supervises the work themselves. The supervisor is advocating:

A.Theory Y (McGregor)

B.Theory X (McGregor)

C.Maslow`s hierarchy of needs

D.Theory Y (Ouichi)

A

Answer: B Explanation: Douglas McGregor advocates that most workers can be categorized according to two theories:

Theory X: This assumes that the workers are inherently lazy and require supervision. Theory Y: The average worker finds physical and mental effort on the job satisfying.

65
Q
  1. Your Project Sponsor wants to know what measures you have taken to ensure quality on your project. You tell her you will use most of the “Seven Basic Quality Tools,” which include all of the following, except:

A.Pareto charts and histograms

B.Requirements traceability matrix (RTM) and project management software

C.Checksheets, flowcharts, and scatter diagrams

D.Fishbone (Ishikawa) diagrams, and quality control charts

A

Answer: B. Although helpful for tracking requirements over the course of the project, RTM is not one of the 7 basic quality tools. Likewise, project management software is helpful mostly for scope, schedule, and budget—not quality.

66
Q
  1. A Business Analyst is assisting you in developing a business case with senior management. This relates best to:

A.Product requirements

B.Product specifications

C.Business requirements

D.Collaboration with the customer

A

Answer: C. Business requirements are determined as part of the business need, and documented as the business case. The customer may not care much if their desires match the company’s needs/requirements (i.e. Customer requirements).

67
Q
  1. Your company is constantly looking for ways to reduce/eliminate waste on all projects. This relates best to:

A.80/20 rule

B.Halo effect

C.Parkinson’s law

D.LEAN

A

Answer: D. LEAN relates to best to Just in Time (JIT) and possibly Kanban visual charts. 80/20 often relates to Pareto charts. Halo effect relates to assuming people will be good at another assignment, simply because they are good at another job. Work expands so as to fill the time/money available relates to Parkinson’s law.

68
Q
  1. A Business Analyst will assist you on the project you have just been assigned to. She tells you she will use the following project document to track requirements:

A.Requirements traceability matrix

B.Business requirements grid

C.Customer and stakeholder RACI-RAMs

D.Resource tracking table

A

Answer: A. The requirements traceability matrix is a key tool for tracking requirements. The rest are made up terms for project documentation.

69
Q
  1. You are observing that people on your team believe that stakeholders should behave as “robots,’ to decrease the “drama” during the project lifecycle. But you understand the people should recognize their own and other stakeholder’s emotions, and to use this information to guide thinking and behavior. This relates best to which of the following.

A.Emotional intelligence (EI)

B.Emotional wisdom (EW)

C.Emotional discernment (ED)

D.Emotional qualification (EQ)

A

Answer: A. Emotional intelligence (EI) relates to observing people’s feelings as they are NOT robots. This information can help with communications, negotiations, motivation, etc. The rest are made up answers.

70
Q
  1. You’re being assigned to an important software development project that must be completed within three weeks. Most of your past experience has been with predictive lifecycles, but this project will require you to be more adaptive to frequent modifications. You will need to work closely with stakeholders over five, main, iteration, milestone events. This relates best to:

A.Just-in-time (JIT)

B.Kanban

C.LEAN

D.Agile

A

Answer: D. Agile relates to adaptive lifecycles—mainly iterative and incremental lifecycles in a fast-paced, change-driven, evolutionary environment. LEAN relates to JIT, and Kanban.

71
Q
  1. Formalized acceptance relates best to which processes?

A.Continuous Process Improvement Plan and Quality Assurance

B.Monitoring and Controlling

C.Perform Quality Control and Validate Scope

D.Plan Quality and Control Scope

A

Answer: C. Quality Control (verify), and Validate Scope (accept deliverables) best relate to acceptance (formalized acceptance). Note that you verify quality, and then validate scope to yield “accepted deliverables.”

72
Q
  1. You are developing a RACI-RAM. What does RACI stand for?

A.Responsible, Accountable, Console, Inform

B.Reliable, Accountable, Consult, Intellectual

C.Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform

D.Responsible, Accountable, Conforming, Informing

A

Answer: C. The rest are made up.

73
Q
  1. Which of the following would be best for ensuring the project aligns with business requirements?

A.Quality Control

B.Contracts

C.Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

D.Stakeholder Engagement

A

Answer: C. KPIs are a type of performance measurement used to evaluate the success of the overall project. (E.g. zero defects, meets business requirements, customer satisfaction.)

74
Q
  1. Which of the following would best relate to Tuckman’s team phases (sequentially) teams often go through:

A.Exploring, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning

B.Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Conforming

C.Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning

D.Forming, Storming, Performing, Norming, and Adjourning

A

Answer: C. The rest are made up, or not in the correct sequence.

75
Q
  1. A quality management and control tool, also useful for risk contingency planning is:

A.Histograms

B.Pareto Charts

C.Benchmarking

D.Process Decision Program Charts (PDPC)

A

Answer: D. Process Decision Program Charts (PDPC) may be used for this purpose. NOTE: PDPC is NOT one of the seven basic quality tools are as the others here are. For the exam, link Pareto charts to the “vital few,” and the 80/20 rule.

76
Q
  1. Which of the following relates best to to Total Quality Management (TQM), Edwards Deming, iterative/incremental/adaptive lifecycles, Agile, and possibly rolling wave/progressive elaboration?

A.OPM3 and CMMI

B.Encoder, medium, communication blockers, decoder, and feedback

C.Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning

D.Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA)

A

Answer: D. This is a key TQM concept for continuous improvement (i.e. iteration). A Organizational Process Maturity Model Methodology (OPM3) and Capability Maturity Model Integrated (CMMI) relate to rating the organizations repeatable/consistency in performing project-related processes. B relates the communication model. C relates to Tuckman’s team stages.

77
Q
  1. Your project has an SPI of .9, and a CPI of 1.2. Which of the following could be the reason for this?

A.You are .9% ahead of schedule, but 1.2% behind of schedule.

B.The work is not being done according to your schedule, and you have yet to pay the sellers.

C.You are more behind on budget than schedule.

D.The work is being done according to schedule, but you are behind on budget.

A

Answer: B. You are only progressing at 90% of the rate originally planned, but are 20% under budget. Eventually, you will have to pay the vendors, and at that time, you may find that you are also over budget. Often, when you are behind schedule, it’s just a matter of time before you go over budget as well.

78
Q
  1. Your company has been working with a particular contractor for many years, and has been happy with their performance. You have just been assigned to take over a very large project, that will require the services of a competent contractor. A program manager advises you to just use the “standard” generic company contract. Which of the following would be the best course of action for you to take before hiring the seller?

A.Use the generic contract and make changes, if needed.

B.Set up a meeting to discuss your concerns with the legal and procurement departments to ensure you protect all stakeholders for this potential transaction.

C.Ask the contractor for a copy of their generic contract, and sign it.

D.It’s more important to synchronize the objectives of the buyer/seller by adding award/incentive fees as early as possible.

A

Answer: B. Note how it’s best to seek “expert” advice. In the case of contracts, the legal and/or the procurement departments are better than the other stakeholders mentioned in the other answers. The other answers still do not address the fact the contract needs to reflect the work, schedule, cost, etc are appropriate. For the exam, get everything in writing.

79
Q
  1. You are performing the Develop Project Team Process. Which of the following tools/techniques would you most likely be performing?

A.Compromising

B.Pre-assignment

C.Training/mentoring

D.Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A

Answer: C. Training (informal/formal/mentoring/coaching) is the only tool and technique that relates to this process. A Compromising may relate to conflict resolution. B Pre-assignment may be done during Acquire Project Team. D This is a motivation theory.

80
Q
  1. You are submitting time/cost reports, reviewing disbursements, linking to code of accounts, and reviewing contract provisions for your software development project. You are most likely using:

A.Financial control procedures

B.Project scheduling tools

C.Administrative closure tools

D.Quality metrics and checklists

A

Answer: A. Note how this relates best to project financial, budget, & cost procedures. ($) B is more for schedule, not cost-related. C is too general. D is quality, not cost-related.

81
Q
  1. A Senior Project Manager that does not believe in PMI best practices, and never took the PMP exam, has recently retired. You have been assigned his project which is now only 50% done. After assessing the project with the Project Sponsor, you realize the project is significantly behind schedule, and significantly over budget. During your discussion, the Project Sponsor realizes the project has now become a “huge money pit,” because the project/product scope was poorly defined. The most likely reason this has occurred relates to all of the following, except:

A.No lifecycle was determined.

B.Key stakeholders were not identified.

C.Project management software was likely not used.

D.A Project Charter was not developed.

A

Answer: C. Note how this does not relate to what’s most vital during the early phases of the project. While helpful, this tool will not help if a good foundation is not first determined.) All the rest, relate to solid PMI best practices.

82
Q
  1. You are making up a hammock portion of the project schedule network diagram. Activity A can start immediately, and takes 10 days. Activity B can start immediately, and takes 11 days. Activity C can start after Activity A and B are complete and takes 20 days. Activity D can start after activity B is complete, and takes 30 days. Activity E can start after Activity D is complete, and takes 5 days. Activity F is the last Activity in the diagram, can start after Activity D and E are complete, and takes 10 days. Which is true?

A.This example refers to crashing and fast-tracking.

B.Activities A and B should be crashed immediately.

C.Activity F is on the critical path.

D.A backward pass is required to provide more information.

A

Answer: C. Activity F is on the critical path, as it will always have 0 float/slack as all other activities are predecessors. This will be true even if there are changes in other activity durations.

83
Q
  1. You are closing out your project, and there will be a modest cost overrun which you will “share” with a seller. The sharing ratio documented in the contract is 60/40. The cost overrun is $10,000. How much of the cost overrun is the seller responsible for?

A.Not enough information to calculate

B.$400

C.$6,000

D.$4,000

A

Answer: D. Sharing ratio is in Buyer/Seller (B/S) order. .40 x $10,000 = $4,000

84
Q
  1. The late finish for Activity D was 20 days, and the early finish is 21 days. Based on this information you know:

A.Activity D will take 41 days to complete.

B.The project will definitely finish late.

C.Activity D is ahead of schedule by 1 day.

D.Activity D is late by 1 day.

A

Answer: D. Activity D is not only on the critical path, it is one day late. Late Finish – Early Finish = Float. 20 – 21 = -1 (NOTE: Just because one activity is late, does not necessarily mean the project will be late.)

85
Q
  1. You and key stakeholders are determining the scope for the project. It’s important to have an accurate scope baseline. Which of the following processes produces the scope baseline?

A.Create WBS

B.Plan Requirements Management

C.Define Scope

D.Collect Requirements

A

Answer: A B is close, but A is better. C produces the Project Scope Statement. D collects/elicits requirements. All relate to the Scope Baseline.