Mock National Exam 6 Flashcards

1
Q

A physical restraint must be removed

A

every 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

nosocomial infections are associated with

A

institutionalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

required daily nursing hours are determined by

A

The state with federal approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The mots significant aspect of staff providing good resident care is

A

Staff attitude towards the residents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A resident may not be discharged by a facility because teh

A

Residents payor source changed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The social worker may not provide

A

Psychiatric therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The problem most residents experience when facing nursing home placement is

A

anxiety related to the unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A discharge summary may be

A

the last progress note

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Regarding advance directives which is not true

A

A facility must require residents sign an advance directive upon admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a resident is declared mentally incompetent by a court the rights of the resident would be assigned to

A

A court appointed respresentative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A social worker, when dealing with a resident who constantly complains about everything, should

A

resolve the residents complaints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

___ works best with severely demented residents

A

Validation therapy

validation therapy is used when a person is no longer able to communicate with people around them. the last stages of Alzheimers or severely brain damaged patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

All menus must be approved by the

A

Dietician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hot food must leave the kitchen at ___ degrees

A

135

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The percentage of weight loss for a resident who previously weighed 180 pounds and now weighs 171 pounds

A

5.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The maximum allowable hours between the evening meal and breakfast is ___ hours

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Per OBRA an attending physician must see a resident every 30 days for the first ___ days and then every ___ days thereafter

A

90,60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Under OBRA the ___ is not required to attend the quality assessment and improvement committee

A

Administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The main focus of an activities program is

A

Fun and enjoyment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The assessment of a residents condition results in

A

A description of current staus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Medical records belong to the

A

FAcilty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The primary purpose of medical records is

A

Continuity of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Per OBRA a residents medical chart must not contain

A

Medicare and Medicaid documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Oral physician orders cannot be given to the

A

Ward clerk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The drug regimen of each resident must be checked monthly by the

A

Consultant pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

___ may be stored in the medication room

A

Topical medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The physical therapist job is not fully done unless staff

A

is involved in the process of helping the resident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The most effective form of communication is

A

face to face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Written communication is preferred over oral communication when the information

A

Must pass through several levels of management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A resident is restrained without a physicians orders and has not had a bath today
how many resident rights have been violated

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

An employee enters the administrators office visibly upset. The administrator should respond by

A

Listening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

During an applicant interview the interview may ask about

A

Prior work experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Supervisors contribute to positive employee morale most when dealing with employees by

A

Disciplining consistently and failry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When an employee makes an error it is best to correct the employee

A

Immediately and in private

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A garnishment or attachment requires an employer to withhold monies from an employees paycheck and

A

forward it to a creditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The primary purpose of a job description is to

A

outline job responsibilities of each job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The main purpose of the personnel function is

A

Staffing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The best source of new employees is usually

A

Referrals from current employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Relationships between departments and employees and the lines of authority are best shown in the

A

Organizational chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fringe benefits are outlined int eh

A

Personnel policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The goal of the activities program should be focused on

A

Participation and enjoyment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The ___ shows the lines of authority between departments and employees

A

Organizational chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which if the following causes the highest number of resident injuries

A

Flls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Fringe benefits are outlined in the

A

Personnel policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

An employee works 52 hours in a one week work period at a rate of $8.00 per hour. What would be the total gross salary including overtime pay

A

$464

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

___ is required by the fair labor standards act

A

Overtime pay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The primary fire fighting tools in a nursing facility are

A

Smoke barriers, corridor walls and resident doors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

An employees right ot know relates to

A

Hazardous communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The term lockout tag-out refers to

A

Controlling hazardous energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The MSDSmeans

A

Materials Safety Data Sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Emergency generators must be tested

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

___ are covered by both Part A and B of medicare

A

Home health visits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A simple definition of strategic planning is

A

Preparing for future eventualities and uncertanties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Staff must wash their hands for a minimum of ___ seconds under running water

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

___ is not a type of authority

A

Direct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

One of the major mistakes a rookie manager makes is to

A

Over manage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

An administrator must be willing to

A

Be held accountable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The term echelons refer to

A

Levels of management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If the wrong medication is given to a resident the facility would be covered by

A

Malpractice insurance

or professional liability which is also malpractice insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Procedures should be prepared by

A

Supervisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

___ sets forth standards to protect resident medical records

A

HIPAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A statute of limitation specifies

A

The time period in which a lawsuit may be filed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The safe medical devices act requires

A

Reporting any incidents where a medical device injured someone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Subrogation refers to

A

Substituting one person or party for another to a lawful claim or right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Chemical manufacturers must convey information about hazards to workers by means of labels and

A

Materials safety data sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The guidelines and requirements of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act are issued by

A

EEOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Before a resident is eligible for inpatient care in a skilled nursing facility under title XVIII the resident must have a ___ night stay in a hospital

A

Three

68
Q

Per OBRA all contaminated sharps must be

A

Discarded immediately after use

69
Q

The ombudsman was established by

A

Older Americans Act

70
Q

Per Title XIX of the Social Security Act menus for food actually served residents must be retained for ___ days

A

30

71
Q

The major payment source for most long term nursing home residents is

A

Medicaid

72
Q

Each state is required to license all nursing home facilities and to inspect

  • facilities licensed by the state
  • medicaid certified facilities
  • Medicare certified facilities
A

All of the above

73
Q

The primary purpose of a safety program is

A

Accident prevention

74
Q

Resident rights have ben categorized by

A

OBRA

75
Q

Management by walking around is a concept developed by

A

Peters

76
Q

___ is the most effective method to increase occupancy

A

Word of mouth

77
Q

___ is not part of the ‘planning’ function

A

Staffing

78
Q

Making objectives operational by making them specific to each department is called

A

management by objectives

79
Q

MBWA is a

A

management style

80
Q

Organizing is basically

A

grouping people and activities

81
Q

When comparing leadership with management management is

A

Focused much more on systems

82
Q

Delegation of administrative authority is widely encouraged because it ___

A

Leads to greater efficiency by allocating specific duties to individuas

83
Q

Strategies are plans of action and are part of the ___ function

A

Planning

84
Q

Demographic information relates to

A

Statistics about population

85
Q

One of the best examples of he resident group dynamic is the

A

Resident council

86
Q

___ drugs are for external use only

A

Topical

87
Q

Training staff in assisting residents with their activities of daily living is the responsibility of the

A

Occupational therapist

88
Q

After a comprehensive assessment has been done the comprehensive care plan is due within ___ days

A

7

89
Q

Per OBRA a residents physician is not required to

A

Review all consultant reports

90
Q

the policies and procedures for activities programs should include

A

Volunteers

91
Q

An evaluation of the activity program should be aimed at

A

Whether the activities meet the needs and desires of all resisents

92
Q

Surveyors are less concerned with how often information is gathered then

A

Whether sufficient progress is recorded in the chart

93
Q

The ___ have most contact with residents and need training most in effective comunication

A

Certified nursing assistants

94
Q

A physiatrist

A

Works with physical and occupational therapists

95
Q

Flexion, rotation, abduction and ROM are all terms referring to

A

exercies

96
Q

Heath and hydrotherapy are mostly used by

A

Occupational therapists

97
Q

___ is not productive when counseling an employee

A

Getting personally involved

98
Q

If a nursing assistant has a grievance the final step in the grievance process is the

A

Administrator

99
Q

The primary purpose of the skilled rehabilitation program is to

A

Help residents improve and be able to handle their activities of daily living

100
Q

Every new employee must complete a Form I-9 within__ _days of hiring

A

3

101
Q

During a performance appraisal, the supervisor should

A

State well defined job expectations

102
Q

To ensure work is completed on tie the administrator should

A

Schedule the work and observe the progress

103
Q

Coordinating deals primarily with

A

Unifying the efforts of people

104
Q

The use of labor pools or agency personnel can

A

Decrease continuity of care

105
Q

Approving a facility’s annual budget is the responsibility of the

A

Governing body

106
Q

The primary value of financial management is to allow the administrator to

A

Make decisions

107
Q

___ is a non cash expense

A

Depreciation

108
Q

___ is not a revenue center

A

Social services

109
Q

___ is an operating expense

A

Weekend overtime wages

110
Q

Labor cost in a nursing home as percentage of all expenses generally averages ___ percent of all costs

A

50 to 60

111
Q

___ is a payroll tax

A

Social security tax

112
Q

The primary purpose of an operating budget is to

A

Provide a method for ongoing study and control

113
Q

Financial statements are necessary to determine if a business is

A

Solvent and profitable

114
Q

The terms FIFO and LIFO refer to

A

Inventory valuing methods

115
Q

A facility is required to provide 3.0 hours of nursing care per day per resident. The facility has a capacity of 180 residents with a current occupancy of 90%. How many fulltime employees would be required if each nurse worked 8 hours per shift

A

71

The answer is 71 because the answers are usually given in a range or approx and 2 is the closest to 60

116
Q

When preparing the budget the administrator should involved department heads by asking department heads to

A

Review supplies used last year and calculate needed supplies for the next eyar

117
Q

A facility purchased a piece of equipment for $40,000 that is expected to reduce costs by $7,000 per year. how long is the payback period

A

5.71

118
Q

A cash flow projection is only valid

A

For a specific time period

119
Q

The fire rating of building materials is established by

A

The life safety code

120
Q

The food and Drug Administration enforces

A

SMDA

121
Q

The ultimate mission of a nursing home is to

A

provide quality care

122
Q

Managing a nursing home begins with

A

Leadership

123
Q

Long range goals are to be attained within

A

3 years or more

124
Q

By-laws do not specify

A

Staffing for each department

125
Q

Medicaid would not cover

A

Individuals temporarily disabled

126
Q

The consultant pharmacist is responsible to

A

Check all drug records

127
Q

A set of books that lists each transaction in the facility is called

A

The books

128
Q

An owner who takes cash out of the cash register for his personal use has violate the ___ principle

A

Entity

129
Q

When a facility records assets at a market value but does not record bad betts it cannot collect it violates the ___ principle

A

Good faith

130
Q

The main purpose of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles is to

A

Maximize comparability of financial statements between companies

131
Q

When a facility records expenditures and receipts as they occur this is called the ___ system of accounting

A

Accrual

132
Q

Per GAAP pieces of paper indicating money owed to the facility including bank statements checks and invoices are called

A

Source documents

133
Q

Destroying paper records of purchases made by the facility would violate which principle

A

Objective evidence

134
Q

Changing a company’s fiscal year from January 1 to June 30 is an example of violating the ___ principle

A

Time period

135
Q

When a facility does not record wages paid to workers it is violating the ___ principle

A

Disclosure

136
Q

If the administrator wants to see the journals the administrator wants to see

A

The orgiinal entries

137
Q

If the administrator wanted a listing of every account in the facility the accountant would produce the

A

Chart of accounts

138
Q

A summary of a facility well being is reflected in the

A

Balance sheet

139
Q

Money invested in a facility is called

A

Capital

140
Q

Things which are owed by the facility to others are called

A

Liabiltiies

141
Q

Things which are owned by the facility are called

A

Assets

142
Q

The ability to match revenues to expenses in a given time period ins the advantage of the ___ system of accounting

A

Accrual

143
Q

It is difficult to recognize depreciation and prepaid expenses in the ___ accounting system

A

Cash

144
Q

Making a debit and a credit for each financial transaction is known as the ___ bookkeeping system

A

Double entry

145
Q

Under the accrual accounting system, the purchase of six months of malpractice insurance would be recorded in the

A

General journal

146
Q

In the double entry bookkeeping system, if the bookkeeper records a $500 transaction on the debit side of the journal, the bookkeeper would then

A

Make an entry on the credit side of the journal for $500

147
Q

When errors are discovered in the other journals they can be corrected in the

A

General journal

148
Q

Per GAAP the ___ does not need to be distributed to investors

A

Chart of accounts

149
Q

The income or profit and loss statement shows whether ___ was sufficient to cover expenses

A

Revenues

150
Q

If the administrator deducted total expenses from total revenues, the administrator would be calculating the

A

Net income or loss

151
Q

A financial statement where the assets must equal the liabilities and capital accounts is called the

A

Balance sheet

152
Q

The ___ would show the ending balance of the revenue and expense accounts

A

Income statement

153
Q

An asset which can be turned into cash within 12 months is called a

A

Current asset

154
Q

Funds put into the facility by the owners or investors are included in the calculation of a facility’s

A

Net worth

155
Q

Invoices for food supplies and nursing supplies are classified as

A

Current liabilities

156
Q

Depreciation is an expense associated with the use of

A

An asset

157
Q

Subtracting current liabilities from current assets would tell you the facilities

A

Working capital

158
Q

Comparing the relationship of the same financial measurements over a period of time is called

A

Ratio analysis

159
Q

If an administrator wanted a statement of the financial condition of the facility at year’s end the administrator would consult the

A

Balance sheet

While administrators must review the profit and loss statement each month, we do not see the balance sheet. The balance sheet is prepared at the end of the year

160
Q

A facility has current assets of $420,000 and current liabilities of $350,000. The facility’s current ratio is

A

1.2

161
Q

Ratios should be

A

Compared to industry averages over time

162
Q

A facility with 200 residents needs to staff 2 hours of nursing care per resident. A nurse works 8 hours per shift. How many nurses do you need to staff that day

A

50

163
Q

A facility with long term debt of $4,000,000 and total equity of $3,000,000 has a debt to equity ratio of

A

1.33

164
Q

Laws passed by a state are called

A

Statutes

165
Q

A form that summarized the facility’s admission, discharges, and transfers is called a

A

Daily census form