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3a Mocks > Mock 3 > Flashcards

Mock 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are complications of nephrotic syndrome

A
  • Frequent relapses
  • Hypercholesterolemia
  • Hypovolemia
  • Infection
  • Thrombosis
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2
Q

What are common features of Henoch-Schonlein Purpura ?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Arthralgia
  • Fever
  • Glomerulonephritis
  • Rash on buttocks, extensor surface of arms , legs and ankles
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3
Q

What is ranitidine and how does it work ?

A
  • H2 receptor antagonist
  • Suppresses acid production and can reduce the volume of gastric contents
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4
Q

What would a fever pain score of 2 indicate ?

A
  • Consider a delayed prescription for antibiotics
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5
Q

What would a fever pain score of 4 or 5 indicate

A
  • Immediate Phenoxymethylpenicillin prescription
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6
Q

What would indicate hospital admission for a child with tonsilitis ?

A
  • Unable to swallow liquids and solids
  • IV fluid and analgesia
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7
Q

What is Naevus flammeus ?

A
  • Port wine stain
  • Due to the vascular malformation of capillaries in the dermis
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8
Q

How does Hirschsprung’s disease present ?

A
  • Failure to pass meconium within first 24 hours
  • Distended abdomen
  • Bile stained vomiting
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9
Q
  1. How is Hirschsprung’s disease diagnosed ?
A
  • Suction rectal biopsy
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10
Q
  1. What is 1st line for treating faecal impaction in paeds ?
A
  • Macrogol laxatives
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11
Q
  1. How is ITP in paeds managed ?
A
  • Safety net and explain it typically runs a benign course and the majority of cases will have resolved spontaneously after 6-8
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12
Q
  1. How is bilateral acute otitis media managed ?
A
  • 5 day course of amoxicillin
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13
Q
  1. What condition will show the absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus ?
A
  • Hirschsprung’s disease
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14
Q
  1. What is the name of the surgical procedure used to treat Hirschsprung’s disease ?
A
  • Swenson procedure
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15
Q
  1. What is the surgical management for pyloric stenosis ?
A
  • Ramstedt pyloromyotomy
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16
Q
  1. Cyanotic Heart Defects
A
  • Truncus Arteriosus
  • Transposition of the great arteries
  • Tricuspid atresia
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return
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17
Q
  1. Features of Tetralogy of Fallot
A
  • Large VSD
  • Overriding of the aorta
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy
  • Right ventricular outflow obstruction
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18
Q

Heart murmur heard with ventricular septal defects

A
  • Ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the lower-left sternal border
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19
Q
  1. Heart murmur heard with atrial septal defect
A
  • Ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the upper-left sternal edge
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20
Q
  1. Heart murmur heard with Tetralogy of Fallot
A
  • Harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest over the upper-left sternal angle
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21
Q
  1. Which congenital condition is polydactyly associated with ?
A
  • Patau’s
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22
Q
  1. When does peak incidence of delirium tremens occur ?
A
  • 48-72 hours
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23
Q
  1. When is the peak onset of seizures in alcohol withdrawal ?
A
  • 36 hours
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24
Q
  1. Clinical features of pre-eclampsia
A
  • Epigastric pain
  • Facial oedema
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Papilloedema
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25
Q
  1. What is the defining triad of pre-eclampsia
A
  • HTN (>140/90)
  • Proteinuria
  • Oedema
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26
Q
  1. When is the booking visit ?
A
  • 8-12 weeks
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27
Q
  1. What conditions are screened for at the booking visit ?
A
  • Anaemia
  • FBC, blood group
  • Rhesus status
  • Red cell alloantibodies
  • Haemoglobinopathies
  • Hep B, syphilis and HIV
28
Q
  1. Which of these investigations is used to detect feto-maternal haemorrhage in a suspected sensitising event to ensure enough anti-D immunoglobulin has been given to the mother?
A
  • Kleinhauer Test
29
Q
  1. What is a direct coombs test used for ?
A
  • Blood test used to diagnose haemolytic anaemia in a newborn
30
Q

By how much should fetal baseline rate measure on CTG ?

A

110-160

31
Q

What is defined as bradycardia on CTG ?

A

110bpm

32
Q

What is defined as fetal tachycardia on CTG ?

A

160bpm

33
Q

By how much should fetal HR vary ?

A

5-25bpm

34
Q

What counts as an accelerations on CTG ?

A

A rise in HR of at least 15bpm lasting for 15 seconds or more

35
Q

When should accelerations occur on fetal CTG ?

A
  • 2 accelerations every 15 mins
  • Typically occur with contractions
36
Q

What is a deceleration on fetal CTG ?

A
  • A reduction in fetal heart rate by 15 beats or more for the at least 15 seconds
  • Generally abnormal
37
Q
  1. What is first line for a women with pre-eclampsia ?
A
  • Labetalol
38
Q
  1. What is first line for a women with pre-eclampsia with asthma ?
A
  • Nifedipine
39
Q
  1. What is the most common type of breast cancer ?
A
  • Invasive ductal carcinoma in situ
40
Q
  1. Risk Factors of Pre-Eclampsia
A
  • High BMI
  • Maternal antiphospholipid syndrome
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Previous MHx of PE
  • Long birth interval (>10 years)
41
Q
  1. What is 1st line management for heavy menstrual bleeding
A
  • Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
42
Q
  1. Risk factors for obstetric cholestasis
A
  • Hep C
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Obstetric cholestasis in previous pregnancy
  • Gallstones
43
Q

What should a patient on ramipril be switched to during pregnancy ?

A
  • Nifedipine
44
Q
  1. Risk factors for placenta accreta
A
  • IVF
  • Maternal Age >35
  • Previous C-section
  • Previous uterine surgery
45
Q
  1. 1st line management of obstetric cholestasis
A
  • Ursodeoxycholic acid
46
Q
  1. Risk Factors for abnormal foetal lie
A
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Placenta previa
  • Prematurity
  • Uterine leiomyoma (fibroids)
47
Q
  1. How long does a section 5(4) last ?
A
  • 6 hours
48
Q
  1. Who can use section 5(4)
A
  • Nurses
49
Q
  1. A 19-year-old woman attends the termination of pregnancy clinic asking to have an abortion. Her pregnancy is subsequently terminated at 9 weeks gestation. When is the administration of anti-D prophylaxis indicated in women undergoing a TOP?
A
  • Rhesus negative and after 10 weeks
50
Q
  1. What is an error of inherited thinking ?
A
  • When a working diagnosis is handed over and accepted without pause for consideration and determining whether it has been substantially proven or whether it matches the overall clinical picture
51
Q
  1. What is an error due to failure to consider alternatives ?
A
  • When one abnormality is found that fits a particular diagnosis and so you stop searching for other potential clues that may change your differentials
52
Q
  1. What is error of overattachment ?
A
  • Conducting tests to confirm what we expect or want to see and not ruling out other causes
53
Q
  1. What is error of bravado ?
A
  • Typically working above competence in a show of over confidence that is not safe
54
Q
  1. What is error of ignorance ?
A
  • Defined as unconscious incompetence
55
Q
  1. How long does a section 136 last ?
A
  • 72 hours and the pt should be seen by a doctor or AMHP
56
Q
  1. What is a section 135 ?
A
  • When a person can be sectioned within their own home and removed to a place of safety
57
Q
  1. What symptoms would a lesion of the left 7th cranial nerve LMN cause ?
A
  • Left sided facial weakness including the forehead and eyelid with normal pupillary response and retained sensation
58
Q
  1. Why do upper motor neuron facial palsy need immediate management ?
A
  • Palsy is likely due to a stroke
59
Q
  1. Why can a patient with a UMN lesion still move their forehead on the affected side ?
A
  • Upper motor neuron innervation is by both sides of the brain
  • The forehead has only LMN innervation from one side of the brain
60
Q
  1. What is Bell’s Palsy ?
A
  • An idiopathic condition which presents with unilateral lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy
  • Symptoms include inability to move forehead on affected side as well as drooping of the eyelid exposing the eye and loss of nasolabial fold
61
Q
  1. Wernicke’s Encephalopathy Triad
A
  • Encephalopathy
  • Ophthalmoplegia
  • Ataxia
62
Q
  1. Korsakoff Syndrome
A
  • Retrograde amnesia
  • Anterograde amnesia
  • Confabulation
63
Q
  1. What does myopia mean ?
A
  • Short sightedness
64
Q
  1. What does hypermetropia mean ?
A
  • Long sightedness
  • (Associated with squints)
65
Q
  1. Indications for Heparin prescription
A
  • Angina
  • PE
  • DVT
  • Peripheral artery occlusion
66
Q
  1. Causes of finger clubbing
A
  • Endocarditis
  • IBD
  • CF
  • Bronchial carcinoma
  • IDF

3a Mocks (6 decks)

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