Mock 3 Flashcards
What are complications of nephrotic syndrome
- Frequent relapses
- Hypercholesterolemia
- Hypovolemia
- Infection
- Thrombosis
What are common features of Henoch-Schonlein Purpura ?
- Abdominal pain
- Arthralgia
- Fever
- Glomerulonephritis
- Rash on buttocks, extensor surface of arms , legs and ankles
What is ranitidine and how does it work ?
- H2 receptor antagonist
- Suppresses acid production and can reduce the volume of gastric contents
What would a fever pain score of 2 indicate ?
- Consider a delayed prescription for antibiotics
What would a fever pain score of 4 or 5 indicate
- Immediate Phenoxymethylpenicillin prescription
What would indicate hospital admission for a child with tonsilitis ?
- Unable to swallow liquids and solids
- IV fluid and analgesia
What is Naevus flammeus ?
- Port wine stain
- Due to the vascular malformation of capillaries in the dermis
How does Hirschsprung’s disease present ?
- Failure to pass meconium within first 24 hours
- Distended abdomen
- Bile stained vomiting
- How is Hirschsprung’s disease diagnosed ?
- Suction rectal biopsy
- What is 1st line for treating faecal impaction in paeds ?
- Macrogol laxatives
- How is ITP in paeds managed ?
- Safety net and explain it typically runs a benign course and the majority of cases will have resolved spontaneously after 6-8
- How is bilateral acute otitis media managed ?
- 5 day course of amoxicillin
- What condition will show the absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus ?
- Hirschsprung’s disease
- What is the name of the surgical procedure used to treat Hirschsprung’s disease ?
- Swenson procedure
- What is the surgical management for pyloric stenosis ?
- Ramstedt pyloromyotomy
- Cyanotic Heart Defects
- Truncus Arteriosus
- Transposition of the great arteries
- Tricuspid atresia
- Tetralogy of Fallot
- Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return
- Features of Tetralogy of Fallot
- Large VSD
- Overriding of the aorta
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
- Right ventricular outflow obstruction
Heart murmur heard with ventricular septal defects
- Ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the lower-left sternal border
- Heart murmur heard with atrial septal defect
- Ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the upper-left sternal edge
- Heart murmur heard with Tetralogy of Fallot
- Harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest over the upper-left sternal angle
- Which congenital condition is polydactyly associated with ?
- Patau’s
- When does peak incidence of delirium tremens occur ?
- 48-72 hours
- When is the peak onset of seizures in alcohol withdrawal ?
- 36 hours
- Clinical features of pre-eclampsia
- Epigastric pain
- Facial oedema
- Hypertension
- Hyperreflexia
- Papilloedema
- What is the defining triad of pre-eclampsia
- HTN (>140/90)
- Proteinuria
- Oedema
- When is the booking visit ?
- 8-12 weeks
- What conditions are screened for at the booking visit ?
- Anaemia
- FBC, blood group
- Rhesus status
- Red cell alloantibodies
- Haemoglobinopathies
- Hep B, syphilis and HIV
- Which of these investigations is used to detect feto-maternal haemorrhage in a suspected sensitising event to ensure enough anti-D immunoglobulin has been given to the mother?
- Kleinhauer Test
- What is a direct coombs test used for ?
- Blood test used to diagnose haemolytic anaemia in a newborn
By how much should fetal baseline rate measure on CTG ?
110-160
What is defined as bradycardia on CTG ?
110bpm
What is defined as fetal tachycardia on CTG ?
160bpm
By how much should fetal HR vary ?
5-25bpm
What counts as an accelerations on CTG ?
A rise in HR of at least 15bpm lasting for 15 seconds or more
When should accelerations occur on fetal CTG ?
- 2 accelerations every 15 mins
- Typically occur with contractions
What is a deceleration on fetal CTG ?
- A reduction in fetal heart rate by 15 beats or more for the at least 15 seconds
- Generally abnormal
- What is first line for a women with pre-eclampsia ?
- Labetalol
- What is first line for a women with pre-eclampsia with asthma ?
- Nifedipine
- What is the most common type of breast cancer ?
- Invasive ductal carcinoma in situ
- Risk Factors of Pre-Eclampsia
- High BMI
- Maternal antiphospholipid syndrome
- Multiple pregnancy
- Previous MHx of PE
- Long birth interval (>10 years)
- What is 1st line management for heavy menstrual bleeding
- Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
- Risk factors for obstetric cholestasis
- Hep C
- Multiple pregnancy
- Obstetric cholestasis in previous pregnancy
- Gallstones
What should a patient on ramipril be switched to during pregnancy ?
- Nifedipine
- Risk factors for placenta accreta
- IVF
- Maternal Age >35
- Previous C-section
- Previous uterine surgery
- 1st line management of obstetric cholestasis
- Ursodeoxycholic acid
- Risk Factors for abnormal foetal lie
- Multiple pregnancy
- Placenta previa
- Prematurity
- Uterine leiomyoma (fibroids)
- How long does a section 5(4) last ?
- 6 hours
- Who can use section 5(4)
- Nurses
- A 19-year-old woman attends the termination of pregnancy clinic asking to have an abortion. Her pregnancy is subsequently terminated at 9 weeks gestation. When is the administration of anti-D prophylaxis indicated in women undergoing a TOP?
- Rhesus negative and after 10 weeks
- What is an error of inherited thinking ?
- When a working diagnosis is handed over and accepted without pause for consideration and determining whether it has been substantially proven or whether it matches the overall clinical picture
- What is an error due to failure to consider alternatives ?
- When one abnormality is found that fits a particular diagnosis and so you stop searching for other potential clues that may change your differentials
- What is error of overattachment ?
- Conducting tests to confirm what we expect or want to see and not ruling out other causes
- What is error of bravado ?
- Typically working above competence in a show of over confidence that is not safe
- What is error of ignorance ?
- Defined as unconscious incompetence
- How long does a section 136 last ?
- 72 hours and the pt should be seen by a doctor or AMHP
- What is a section 135 ?
- When a person can be sectioned within their own home and removed to a place of safety
- What symptoms would a lesion of the left 7th cranial nerve LMN cause ?
- Left sided facial weakness including the forehead and eyelid with normal pupillary response and retained sensation
- Why do upper motor neuron facial palsy need immediate management ?
- Palsy is likely due to a stroke
- Why can a patient with a UMN lesion still move their forehead on the affected side ?
- Upper motor neuron innervation is by both sides of the brain
- The forehead has only LMN innervation from one side of the brain
- What is Bell’s Palsy ?
- An idiopathic condition which presents with unilateral lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy
- Symptoms include inability to move forehead on affected side as well as drooping of the eyelid exposing the eye and loss of nasolabial fold
- Wernicke’s Encephalopathy Triad
- Encephalopathy
- Ophthalmoplegia
- Ataxia
- Korsakoff Syndrome
- Retrograde amnesia
- Anterograde amnesia
- Confabulation
- What does myopia mean ?
- Short sightedness
- What does hypermetropia mean ?
- Long sightedness
- (Associated with squints)
- Indications for Heparin prescription
- Angina
- PE
- DVT
- Peripheral artery occlusion
- Causes of finger clubbing
- Endocarditis
- IBD
- CF
- Bronchial carcinoma
- IDF