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3a Mocks > Med School Mock > Flashcards

Med School Mock Flashcards

1
Q

List 2 common causes of acute otitis media in infants age group

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
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2
Q

Anatomically why are young children more prone to otitis media ?

A

Short eustachian tubes

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3
Q

What ABs could be prescribed ?

A
  • Amoxicillin
  • Clarithromycin (if penicillin allergy)
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4
Q

A complication of otitis media is meningitis, name 2 new symptoms you would warn parents to look out for ?

A
  • Headache
  • Photophobia
  • Vomiting
  • Hypotonia
  • Non-blanching or purpuric rash
  • Neck stiffness
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5
Q

What type of hearing loss is glue ear ?

A
  • Conductive
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6
Q

Types of hearing loss

A

Conductive hearing loss.
Sensorineural hearing loss.
Mixed hearing loss.

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7
Q

Complication of otitis media that presents with post-auricular swelling and erythema ?

A
  • Mastoiditis
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8
Q

List signs and symptoms you should enquire about when a pregnancy woman presents with blurring of vision

A
  • Headache
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Upper abdominal or epigastric pain
  • Oedema
  • Reduced urine output
  • Brisk reflexes
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9
Q

High RFs for pre-eclampsia

A
  • Pre-existing HTN
  • PMHx
  • Existing autoimmune condition e.g. SLE
  • DM
  • CKD
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10
Q

Moderate Risk Factors

A
  • Older than 40
  • BMI > 35
  • More than 10 years since previous pregnancy
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • First pregnancy
  • FHx
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11
Q

Conditions under which you would offer aspirin form 12 weeks

A
  • One high risk factor
  • Or more than one moderate risk factor
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12
Q

Medications for PE ?

A
  • Labetalol
  • Nifedipine
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13
Q

What would you expect to see on blood test for PE ?

A
  • HELLP
  • Haemolysis
  • Elevated liver enzymes
  • Low platelets
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14
Q

Triad of Parkinson’s

A
  • Resting tremor
  • Muscle rigidity
  • Bradykinesia
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15
Q

How is Parkinson’s different to benign essential tremor ?

A
  • Essential tremor worsens when holding arms outstretched
  • Essential tremor worsens with activities such as writing whereas Parkinson’s tremor improves with purposeful actions
  • Essential tremor is often symmetrical where PD is often asymmetrical
  • Essential tremors has autosomal dominant trait where PD has no genetic trait
  • Essential tremor improves with alcohol whereas PD tremor has no change
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16
Q

Name 2 side effects of levodopa

A
  • Dry mouth
  • Anorexia
  • Palpitations
  • Postural hypotension
  • Psychosis
  • Dyskinesia
  • Dystonia
  • Chorea
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17
Q

Parkinson’s Medications (not levo-dopa)

A
  • Dopamine agonist e.g. bromocriptine
  • MAO inhibitors e.g. rasagiline or selegiline
  • COMT inhibitors e.g. Entacapone
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18
Q

Define a seizure

A
  • Transient episode of abnormal electrical activity in the brain
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19
Q

Types of seizures

A
  • Generalized tonic-clinic
  • Focal
  • Absence
  • Atonic
  • Myoclonic
  • Juvenile myoclonic seizures
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20
Q

General advice for a child’s parents after a seizure

A
  • Take caution with swimming and heights
  • Shower rather than bath
  • Record any further episodes
  • If seizure lasts for more than 5 mins call ambulance or 2 mins with LOC
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21
Q

RFs for falls

A
  • DM
  • RA
  • > 65
  • Previous falls
  • Polypharmacy
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22
Q

2 recommended tests from NICE to assess patients at risk of falls ?

A
  • Turn 180 test
  • Timed up and go test
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23
Q

Name management options to prevent Lorraine having future falls

A
  • Strength and balance training
  • Home hazard assessment
  • Medication review
  • Vision assessment
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24
Q

After a fall a patient develops dark brown/red urine. What could be the cause ? What blood test would suggest this condition and how would it be managed ?

A
  • Myoglobinuria secondary to rhabdomyolysis
  • Would be suggested by high levels of creatinine kinase and would be treated by IV fluids
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25
Q

Name 2 differentials for 4 day history of SOB, productive cough and generalized fatigue. PMH of COPD, HTN and previous MI

A
  • Pneumonia
  • PE
  • Pleural effusion
  • Pneumothorax
  • Heart failure
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26
Q

Symptoms of COPD exacerbations

A
  • SOB, productive cough and generalized fatigue
  • Wheeze, fever, cyanosis, peripheral oedema, confusion
  • Yellow-green phlegm
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27
Q

Name appropriate AB for COPD exacerbation in penicillin allergy

A
  • Doxycycline, clarithromycin or azithromycin
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28
Q

What are the stages of the Transtheoretical model of health behaviour ?

A
  • Pre-contemplation
  • Contemplation
  • Preparation
  • Action
  • Maintenance
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29
Q

List 4 criteria for a life-threatening asthma attack

A
  • PEFR less than 33% predicted
  • Altered consciousness
  • Cardiac arrhythmia
  • Hypotension
  • Cyanosis
  • Poor respiratory effort
  • Silent chest
  • Confusion
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30
Q

1st line acute asthma treatment in hospital

A
  • Nebulized salbutamol
  • Followed by nebulized ipratropium bromide
  • Followed by IV hydrocortisone if no impact
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31
Q

What would you monitor in a patient with acute asthma ?

A
  • Oxygen sats
  • PEF
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32
Q

What is the MOA for salbutamol ?

A
  • Short acting beta-2 agonist
33
Q

First rank symptoms of schizophrenia

A
  • Auditory hallucinations
  • Thought disorder
  • Passivity phenomena
  • Delusional perceptions
34
Q

Poor prognostic indicators for schizophrenia

A
  • Negative symptoms
  • Low IQ
  • Low socioeconomic status
  • Social isolation
  • FHx
35
Q

Name atypical antipsychotics

A
  • Aripiprazole
  • Olanzapine
  • Paliperidone
  • Quetiapine
  • Risperidone
36
Q

Side effects of APs

A
  • Weight gain
  • Dyslipidemia
  • Hyperprolactinaemia
  • Impaired glucose tolerance
37
Q

Possible side effects of the copper intrauterine device

A
  • Spotting or cramping after insertion
  • Period of heavier and more painful periods post insertion
  • Infection
  • Can fall out
38
Q

What condition presents with watery, slightly grey discharge that smells fishy ? and how would you treat it ?

A
  • Bacterial vaginosis
  • Metronidazole
39
Q

How does syphilis present ?

A
  • Chancre/genital ulcer
40
Q

How does chlamydia present ?

A
  • Post-coital or intermenstrual bleeding
  • Increased or purulent vaginal discharge/cervical discharge/deep dyspareunia/ dysuria/ pelvic pain/ pelvic tenderness
41
Q

How would chlamydia present specifically on a male?

A
  • Dysuria
  • Urethral discharge
  • Urethral discomfort
  • Testicular pain
  • Epididymo-orchitis
42
Q

What is the causative organism of syphilis ?

A
  • Treponema Pallidum
43
Q

Name NICE recommended screening tools for depression ?

A
  • PHQ-9
  • HADS
  • BDI-II
44
Q

How long would you review a patient starting on SSRIs ?

A
  • 1 week
45
Q

RFs for endometrial cancer

A
  • Increased age
  • Early menarche
  • Late menopause
  • Nulliparity
  • T2DM
46
Q

Protective factors for endometrial cancer

A
  • COCP
  • Mirena coil
  • Increased pregnancy
  • Smoko
47
Q

MC complication of measles

A
  • Otis media
48
Q

Who should be notified for a notifiable disease ?

A
  • Local public health team
49
Q

Name 4 beliefs indivisibles must have if they are to change their behaviour according to the Health Belief Model

A
  • Belief that they are susceptible to the condition
  • Believe in serious consequences
  • Believe taking action reduces susceptibility
  • Believe that benefits of actions outweigh costs
50
Q

Theories of behaviour change

A
  • Theory of planned behaviour
  • Stages of change
  • Transtheoretical model
  • Social norms theory
  • Motivational interviewing
51
Q

First rank features of schizophrenia

A
  • Auditory hallucinations
  • Thought disorder
  • Delusional perceptions
  • Passivity phenomena
52
Q

Explain the type of auditory hallucinations that would indicate schizophrenia

A
  • Auditory third person hallucinations
  • Running commentary not command
  • Hearing her own thoughts spoken aloud
53
Q

Explain the thought disorders that would present in schizophrenia

A
  • Thought insertion
  • Thought broadcast
  • Thought withdrawal
54
Q

Explain passivity phenomena in schizophrenia

A
  • Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
  • Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the individual or influenced by others
55
Q

Explain delusional perceptions in the context of schizophrenia

A
  • A two stage process where first a normal object is perceived then secondly there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the objects meaning for the patient
  • E.g. The traffic light is green therefore I am king
56
Q

Second rank features of schizophrenia

A
  • Impaired insight
  • Negative symptoms
  • Incongruity/blunting of affect
  • Anhedonia
  • Alogia
  • Avolition
  • Social withdrawal
  • Neologisms – made up words
  • Catatonia
57
Q

What features of a mental state exam would make you think mania ?

A
  • Appearance – over or under dressed. Flamboyant/unusual dress
  • Behaviour – agitation or overactivity
  • Speech – pressure of speech
  • Thought disorders – flight of ideas – grandiose delusions
  • Elevated mood
  • Disinhibition
58
Q

Psychological treatments for psychosis ?

A
  • CBT
  • Hearing voices group
  • Psychoeducation
  • Psychoanalytical therapy
59
Q

Annual checks for patients on APs

A
  • Blood tests – U&Es, LFTs, TFTs
  • BMI
  • ECG
  • Blood pressure
60
Q

Components of a MSE

A
  • Appearance and behaviour
  • Speech
  • Emotion
  • Perceptions
  • Thoughts
  • Insight
  • Cognition
61
Q

RFs for IUGR

A
  • HTN
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Social Hx of smoking or drug use
  • Previous Hx of IUGR
62
Q

Methods for assessing the fetus at 30 weeks gestation

A
  • Cardiotocography (CTG)
  • US measurement of fetal growth
  • US measurement of amniotic fluid volume
63
Q

Name members of an MDT who should be involved in a pregnancy at risk of preterm

A
  • Obstetrician
  • Anesthetist
  • Pediatrician/Neonatologist
  • Midwife
64
Q

Most common cell origin of ovarian cancers

A
  • Epithelial
  • Around 90%
65
Q

Most common type of ovarian cancer

A
  • Serous carcinoma
66
Q

Presenting features of ovarian cancer

A
  • Abdominal distension and bloating
  • Abdominal and pelvic pain
  • Urinary symptoms e.g. Urgency
  • Early satiety
  • Diarrhoea
67
Q

Treatments for life-threatening asthma

A
  • Oxygen
  • Nebulized salbutamol
  • Nebulized ipratropium
  • Corticosteroids oral or IV
68
Q

IV treatments you would give to a patient not responding to nebulized treatments in severe or life threatening asthma

A
  • Salbutamol
  • Aminophylline
  • Magnesium
  • Hydrocortisone
69
Q

When determining who well asthma is controlled what features of the condition would you ask about

A
  • Pattern of medication use – pattern of salbutamol use
  • Persistence of symptoms e.g. Wheeze or cough on exertion
  • Involvement of secondary care e.g. previous hospital attendances
70
Q

Findings of a LP in a patient with GBS

A
  • Raised protein
  • Normal white cell count
  • Raised opening pressure
  • Normal glucose
71
Q

What investigation will confirm a diagnosis of GBS

A
  • Nerve conduction studies
72
Q
  1. Name generalised demyelinating peripheral neuropathies
A
  • GBS
  • Charcot Marie Tooth
  • Mitochondrial disorders
73
Q

Infective triggers of GBS

A
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • EBV
  • HEP A,B,C,E
74
Q
  1. Management of GBS
A
  • Intravenous immunoglobulin
  • Prophylactic anti-coagulation
  • Physiotherapy
  • Ventilator Support
75
Q

In which situations can rhabdomyolysis present ?

A

Seizure
Collapse e.g. elderly fall and found hours later
Ecstasy
Crush Injury
Drugs e.g. statins + clarithromycin

76
Q

Features of rhabdomyolysis

A

AKI
Elevated CK
Myoglobinurina: dark or redish-brown colour
Hypocalcaemia
Hyperkalaemia
Metabolic acidosis

77
Q

Management of rhabdomyolysis

A

IV Fluids

78
Q

C. First line investigation for post-menopausal bleeding and what is the next step if there is endometrial thickening ?

A
  • Transvaginal US
  • Pipelle biopsy

3a Mocks (6 decks)

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