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MNT Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Nutrition screening assesses nutritional ____, whereas nutrition assessment determines nutritional ______

A

risk; status

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2
Q

The purpose of nutrition screening

A

to identify patients who are at risk of malnutrition and who require additional assessment

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3
Q

Which of the following are NOT included in a Nutrition-Focused Past Medical History:
A. demographic data
B. cheif complaint
C. PMH (past medical history)
D. all of the above are included in a Nutrition-Focused Past Medical History

A

D

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4
Q

Which of the following is the correct definition for acute-disease or injury-associated malnutrition?
A. inflammation is chronic and of mild-to-moderate degree
B. inflammation is acute and of severe degree
C. starvation without inflammation
D. none of the above

A

B

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5
Q

The screening of patients in a clinical setting is similar to that of a community setting

True or False?

A

False

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6
Q

Which is a “quick and easy” screening tool intended for use during admission to an acute care facility and is based on the following 3 questions:

-Did you lose weight unintentionally?
-Did you experience decreased appetite over the last month?
-Did you use supplemental drinks or tube feeding in the last month?

A. MST (Malnutrition Screening Tool)

B. MUST (Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool)

C. NRS-2002 (Nutritional Risk Screening)

D. SNAQ (Short Nutritional Assessment Questionnaire)

A

D

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7
Q

Nutrition screening tools should include dynamic parameters over static parameters

True or False?

A

True

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8
Q

Which of the following is most frequently used for institutionalized geriatric patients?

A. MNA (Mini-Nutrition Assessment)

B. NRS-2002 (Nutrition Risk Screening)

C. MUST (Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool)

D. SNAQ (Short Nutritional Assessment Questionnaire)

A

A

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9
Q

Which is a screening tool intended for use in the community setting, with the following parameters: unintentional weight loss, body mass index (BMI), and presence of an acute illness that may affect dietary intake?

A. MNA (Mini-Nutrition Assessment)

B. NRS-2002 (Nutrition Risk Screening)

C. MUST (Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool)

D. SNAQ (Short Nutritional Assessment Questionnaire)

A

C

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10
Q

Malnutrition has been shown to worsen clinical outcomes and to increase morbidity, mortality, and complication rates and therefore:

A. decrease costs

B. decrease hospital length of stay

C. increase costs

D. decrease re-admission rates

A

C

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11
Q

Body Mass Index (BMI) is an indicator of acute malnutrition

True or False?

A

False

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of BMI?

A. BMI does not reflect fluid overload/edema

B. BMI does not reflect unintensional weight loss

C. BMI does not reflect food intake

D. All of the above are limitations of BMI

A

D

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a measured component of body composition?

A. Muscle mass

B. Sarcopenic adiposity

C. Fat mass

D. Bone mineral mass

A

B

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14
Q

Which of the following is the gold standard for measuring body composition?

A. BIA (Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis)

B. Anthropometrics

C. DXA (Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry)

D. CHI (Creatine Height Index)

A

C

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15
Q

Which of the following methods for measurements can provide body composition estimates at a low cost?

A. BIA (Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis)

B. Anthropometrics

C. DXA (Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry)

D. CHI (Creatine Height Index)

A

A

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16
Q

Which of the following is a self-reported weight value which is the weight the individual has weighed for the majority of their adult life?

A. DBW (Dry Body Weight)

B. IBW (Ideal Body Weight)

C. UBW (Usual Body Weight)

D. ABW (Actual Body Weight)

A

C

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17
Q

A patient states that their UBW is 152 lbs. Their weight in the clinic is 61 kg. What is the patient’s %UBW and %Weight Change?

A. 40% usual body weight; 60% weight change

B. 88% usual body weight; 12% weight change

C. 60% usual body weight; 40% weight change

D. 12% usual body weight; 88% weight change

A

B

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18
Q

A patient that is 72 inches tall weighs 287 lbs. What is their Adjusted Body Weight?

A. 287 lbs

B. 187 lbs

C. 162 lbs

D. 193 lbs

A

D

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19
Q

A WHR of greater than or equal to ____ in women and ____ in men is associagted with an increased risk of cardio-metabolic complications.

A. 40 inches; 34 inches

B. 34 inches; 40 inches

C. 0.85; 0.9

D. 0.9; 0.85

A

C

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20
Q

Which of the following is the most common skin-fold measure used for nutrition assessment?

A. Tricep

B. Subscapular

C. Bicep

D. Suprailiac

A

A

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21
Q

The diet history is useful for providing average macronutrient and micronutrient intakes, as well as a depiction of general variety and eating patterns.
True or False?

A

True

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22
Q

Limitations of a 24-Hour Dietary Recall include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Underestimation of portion sizes

B. Reliance on respondent memory

C. Low respondent burden

D. May not represent a typical day

A

C

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23
Q

A calorie count is associated with a low client burden and increased staff burden in the clinical setting.
True or False?

A

True

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24
Q

Which of the following dietary assessment methods would be appropriate for gathering dietary data for large groups of individuals for observation or surveys?

A. All of the above would be equally appropriate

B. FFQ (Food Frequency Questionnaire)

C. 24-Hour Dietary Recall

D. Food Records Diary

A

B

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25
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in a Food/Nutrition Related History?

A. Food intake

B. Cultural background

C. Physical activity

D. All of the above should be included

A

D

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26
Q

Wearable monitoring devices for dietary intake:

A. Takes photos of food and sends to a dietitian

B. Inserts required data into a web page, smartphone, or app

C. Cannot provide information on food quality

D. None of the above related to wearable monitoring devices

A

C

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27
Q

Novel technologies (apps, wearable devices, computer-aided assessment, etc) for dietary assessment appear valid at the individual level rather than the population level.

True or False?

A

False

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28
Q

An important limitation that may skew dietary assessment results when monitoring athletes intake through diet tracking/self monitoring is:

A. Athletes may be too busy to track their foods

B. Athletes may not be able to recall all the foods they ate in a day

C. Athletes may improve or alter their food choices when tracking food

D. Results may over-estimate how much the athlete actually eats

A

C

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29
Q

Which of the following is a prospective method for measuring dietary intake?

A. FFQ (Food Frequency Questionnair)

B. 24-Hour Dietary Recall

C. Diet History

D. Food Diary

A

D

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30
Q

When completing food diaries, about ____% of respondents under-report true intake and energy intake is underreported by ____%

A. 10%; 50%

B. 15%; 30%

C. 50%; 10%

D. 30%; 15%

A

D

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31
Q

Electrolyte imbalances in the body are most commonly caused by changes/shifts in fluid balance (i.e. over hydration, dehydration, excessive fluid losses).

True of False?

A

True

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32
Q

Which three laboratory measures are most important to monitor and will be low during refeeding syndrome?

A. Potassium, Chloride, Magnesium

B. Potassium, Calcium, Phosphorous

C. Magnesium, Phosphorous, Potassium

D. Chloride, Sodium, Phosphorous

A

C

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33
Q

Which of the following fasting glucose levels would indicate a possible diabetes diagnosis?

A. 130 mg/dL

B. 70 mg/dL

C. 95 mg/dL

D. 105 mg/dL

A

A

>126 mg/dL

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34
Q

HgA1C (Hemoglobin A1C) represents the patient’s average glucose levels over the past 30 days.

True or False?

A

False

HgA1C represents the patient’s average glucose levels over the past 3 mo

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35
Q

If an individual’s urinary nitrogen excretion is higher than nitrogen intake, this individual is in:

A. Negative nitrogen balance

B. Nitrogen balance

C. Positive nitrogen balance

A

A

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36
Q

One would expect to see ____ increase during inflammation and ____ decrease during inflammation.

A. pre-albumin; CRP

B. CRP; pre-albumin

C. pre-albumin; albumin

D. albumin; pre-albumin

A

B

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37
Q

The enzyems ALT, AST, and ASP will all be found to be ____ in liver dysfunction

A. normal

B. depressed

C. elevated

D. none of the above

A

C

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38
Q

____ represents RBC (red blood cell) size and can help differentiate between normocytic, megaloblastic, and microcytic anemia.

A. MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume)

B. Hct (Hematocrit)

C. RBC Cound (Red Blood Cell Count)

D. MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration)

A

A

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39
Q

B12 and B9 can mask iron deficiency anemia.

True or False?

A

True

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40
Q

Albumin, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and electrolytes may all be elevated during times of dehydration.

True or False?

A

True

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41
Q

High serum levels may decrease the risk of multiple sclerosis (MS) and risk of relapse and legions; thus, status of this nutrient should be checked regularly

A. Vitamin B12

B. Vitamin B6

C. Essential fatty acids, including Omega 3 fatty acids

D. Vitamin D

A

D

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42
Q

Using the IDDSI complete framework, which level would describe a food that can be eaten with a fork or spoon, with no separate thin liquid, and may have small lumps visible within the food?

A. Level 4 Pureed

B. Level 5 Minced & Moist

C. Level 6 Soft & Bite-Sized

D. Level 7 Regular, Easy to Chew

A

B

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43
Q

A patient who only sees half of her plate could have a diagnosis of (=has blindness for one half of the field of vision):

A. Hemiparesis

B. Hemianopsia

C. Neglect

D. Otorrhea

A

B

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44
Q

What is the most likely cause of weight loss in a patient with amytrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?

A. Environmental toxins that result in malabsorption and malnutrition

B. The loss of spinal motor neurons causing progressive denervation of skeletal muscles, resulting in decreased physical activity

C. Chewing difficulties and dysphagia resulting in decreased oral intake as well as a hypermetbaolic status and increased resting energy expenditure

D. The selective death of motor neurons resulting in progressive muscle weakness

A

C

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45
Q

Who an prescribe a National Dysphagia Diet/IDDSI level for a patient?

A. Physical therapist

B. Registered Dietitian

C. Speech pathologist

D. B & C

E. All of the above

A

C

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46
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for stroke?

A. Coronary Heart Disease

B. Diabetes

C. Hypertension

D. Advancing age

A

D

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47
Q

During which phase of swallowing is gagging, choking, and nasopharyngeal regurgitation most likely?

A. Oral phase

B. Pharyngeal phase

C. Esophageal phase

D. None of the above

A

B

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48
Q

Which dietary pattern has been shown to be effective at reducing cardiovascular events including stroke:

A. The Atkins Diet

B. The Ketogenic Diet

C. The Mediterranean Diet

D. The Choose My Plate guidelines published by the USDA

A

C

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49
Q

A patient with Parkinson’s Disease who is taking L-dopa medication therapy needs to be aware of potential drug-nutrient interactions with which of the following nurients?

A. Fiber

B. Niacin

C. Protein

D. Vitamin B12

A

C

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50
Q

A commercial thickener containing ____ is a good option for adjusting liquid consistencies because it does not contribute additional energy and is esentially tasteless.

A. Dry milk powder

B. Infant cereals

C. Corn startch

D. Xanthan gum

A

D

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51
Q

All of the following are true regarding functional medicine except:

A. It is practiced by medical doctors, naturopathic doctors, nurse practitioners, and dietitians

B. It uses an Integrative and Functional Medical Nutrition Therapy (IFMNT) approach instead of the standard Nutrition Care Process model

C. It shifts the focus from disease management to a patient-centered, individualized approach

D. It involves assessing dietary intake, hormones and neurotransmitters, markers of oxidative stress, environmental exposures, immune function, and psychological and spiritual health

A

B

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52
Q

According to the FDA, dietary supplements:

A. Can contain unapproved ingredients such as cortisol, estroge, or thyroid hormone

B. Can contain phytochemicals, probiotics, macronutrients, and vitamins and minerals

C. Can be taken intranasally, transdermally, or as a suppository

D. Are intended to replace the nutritional value received from diet

A

B

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53
Q

Which population(s) may be more likely to need Vitamin D supplementation? Select all that apply

A. Those with alcoholism

B. Older adults

C. People with dark pigmented skin

D. Adolescent females

A

B & C

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54
Q

Megadoses of which of the following may cause adverse effects:

A. Retinol (Vitamin A)

B. Niacin

C. Pyridoxine

D. A & C

E. All of the above

A

E

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55
Q

According to the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994, dietary supplements are considered drugs.

True or False?

A

False

they are considered food

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56
Q

Which of the following would be a structure function claim allowed on a dietary supplement label?

A. Prevents heart disease

B. Lowers blood sugar

C. Causes substantial weight loss

D. Supports strong bones

A

D

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57
Q

The NIH State of Science Panel and U.S. Preventive Services Task Force have found that the use of multivitamins and minerals (MVM) reduces chronic disease in general, and prevents early death.

True or False?

A

False

58
Q

What information would you want to include when providing education on taking dietary supplements to a patient?

A. Potential interactions with foods, drugs, or other supplements

B. The scientific evidence of its benefit and effectiveness

C. Appropriate storage of the supplement

D. A & B

E. All of the above

A

E

59
Q

Which of the following is true regarding folic acid/folate dietary supplementation?

A. Excess folic acid can potentially cause and mask B12 deficiency

B. Folate in foods has greater bioavailability than supplemental sources

C. The IOM recommends adutls limit their intake from supplements and fortification to 1500 mg/d

D. People with a MTHFR variant may need a lower dose of folate than individuals without this variant

A

A

60
Q

Which of the following mineral supplements can increase risk of kidney stones, cardiovascular disease, and constipation?

A. Calcium

B. Zinc

C. Magnesium

D. Iron

A

A

61
Q

Which of the following best represents what components are likely to be included in BMR calculations:

A. Age, weight, height, sex

B. Physical activity, activities of daily living, height, weight, sex, age

C. Activites of daily living, weight, height

D. Physical activity, diet-induced thermogenesis, age, sex

A

A

62
Q

A marathon runner who runs about 30-50 miles a week would likely have a PAL of:

A. 1.2-1.3

B. 1.0-1.1

C. 1.9-2.49

D. 1.0

A

C

63
Q

During critical illness, the use of DRI (Dietary Reference Intake) for estimates of TEE (total energy expenditure) is recommended.

True or False?

A

False

64
Q

Which equation is best used in critically ill, mechanically ventilated patients?

A. WHO (World Health Organization)

B. Harris-Benedict

C. Mifflin St Jeor

D. Penn State Equation

A

D

65
Q

Indirect calorimetry is a measure of respiratory gas exchange to determine the volume of oxygen consumed and the volume of carbon dioxide produced.

True or False?

A

True

66
Q

Which of the following is the gold standard for measuring energy expenditure in free-living individuals?

A. Indirect Calorimetry

B. Estimated Energy Equations

C. Doubly Labeled Water

D. DXA

A

C

67
Q

If a patient’s energy expenditure is measured in the fed state, one would expect the patient’s measured expenditure to be ________.

A. Increased

B. Decreased

C. Unaffected

A

A

68
Q

Which of the following is a validated nutritional marker, correlates well with nutritional status, and is a good predictor of surgical outcome?

A. Albumin levels

B. Hand grip dynamometry

C. Respiratory rate

D. None of the above

A

B

69
Q

What are the potential domains in an assessment of quality of life that may potentially have an effect on eating?

A. All of these answers

B. Only symptoms (pain)

C. Only physical (mobility, strength)

D. Only psychological (anxiety, depression), and social (isolation)

A

A

70
Q

Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry utilizes a three compartment model of body composition.

True or False?

A

True

71
Q

Which of the following is not considered a protective factor of the gastroduodenal mucosa?

A. Mucosal secretions

B. Prostaglandins

C. Bacteria

D. Pepsin

A

C

72
Q

Noninvasive tests for H. pylori include all but the following:

A. Endoscopy

B. H. pylori antibody blood test

C. Tool antigen test

D. Urea breath test

A

A

73
Q

Which of the following is not a nutrition care guideline for reducing GERD and esophagitis?

A. Eat a low fiber diet

B. Choose smaller, more frequent meals rather than three larger meals/day

C. Avoid alcohol

D. Avoid mint

A

A

74
Q

For someone looking to prevent the onset of peptic ulcer, they should avoid:

A. Coca cola

B. Coffee

C. Orange juice

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

A

E

75
Q

Decreased salivation, increased esophageal sensitivity, and delayed gastric emptying are most likely to be contributing factors for which condition?

A. Barrett’s esophagus

B. Functional dyspepsia

C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

D. Hiatal hernia

A

C

76
Q

In order for reflux to occur, the pressure in the esophagus must be less than proximal intraabdominal pressure.

True or False?

A

True

77
Q

The most likely cause for a complete esophagectomy is:

A. H. pylori infecton

B. Hiatal hernia

C. Severe, chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease

D. Barrett’s esophagus

A

D

78
Q

Which nutrient is least likely to impact gastroparesis symptoms?

A. Carbohydrate

B. Protein

C. Fat

D. Fiber

A

B

79
Q

A patient most susceptible to a Bezoar formation would be:

A. A female chronic dieter on a lowfat dietary plan

B. A male athlete that drinks excessive water and fails to replace electrolytes

C. A teenager who frequently consumes processsed, low nutrient-density foods

D. An elderly female with dentures and related tooth pain when chewing

A

D

80
Q

For a patient with atrophic gastritis, they may have compromised levels of all but the following nutrients:

A. Calcium

B. Iron

C. Vitamin B6

D. Vitamin B12

A

C

81
Q

Probiotics are an effective treatment for lower GI disorders and should uniformly be prescribed in the hospital setting.

True or False?

A

False

82
Q

The BRAT diet (bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast) is an evidencse-based recommendation for acute diarrheal illness.

True or False?

A

False

83
Q

Which of the following is most appropriate for someone experiencing lactose intolerance

A. Avoid all lactose-containing products

B. Consume 2 cups of milk daily to increase lactase production

C. Consume up to 12 grams of lactose daily, such as with 1 cup of milk

D. Restrict consumption of dairy foods to yogurt only

A

C

84
Q

The most commonly diagnosed GI disorder is:

A. Constipation

B. Diarrhea

C. Inflammatory Bowel Disease

D. Irritable Bowel Syndrome

A

D

85
Q

It is believed that the subtype of IBS (constipation-dominant or diarrhea-dominant) is most likely related to:

A. Dietary fiber intake

B. Levels of serotonin present

C. Timing of meals and snacks

D. Types of carbohydrates consumed

A

B

86
Q

You are working with a patient with diverticulitis. Your best recommendation would be for:

A. A low fiber diet

B. Avoidance of seeds and popcorn

C. Metamucil supplements

D. A high fiber diet

A

A

87
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Celiac testing is true:

A. the tTG IgA test is highly sensitive and specific and correlates well with intestinal biopsy

B. the tTG IgG test is highly sensitive and specific and correlates well with intestinal biopsy

C. Antigliadin IgG has good sensitivity and specificity and is an effective screening test for Celiac Disase

D. Antigliadin IgA has good sensitivity and specificity and is an effective screening tool for Celiac Disease

A

A

88
Q

Symptoms of fat malabsorption, carbohydrate malabsorption, and vitamin B12 deficiency would best describe:

A. C. difficile

B. Duodenal resection

C. Small intestine bacterial overgrowth

D. Polyps

A

C

89
Q

The #1 cause of hospital-acquired diarrhea in the U.S. is:

A. Clostridium difficile (C. difficile)

B. Escherichia coli (E. coli)

C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

D. Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus)

A

A

90
Q

A patient comes to you complaining of symptoms of constipation. You assess his intake and discern he is consuming ~20 grams of fiber/day. Your first-line approach is to:

A. Recommend a stimulant medication such as Senna to provide some relief

B. Recommend he consume 52 grams of fiber/day as consistent with a high-fiber regimen

C. Recommend he increase his fiber intake to 42 grams by the following day including consumption of fiber supplements

D. Recommend he gradually increase his fiber intake to 38 grams/day focusing on high-fiber foods

A

D

91
Q

A tyramine intolerance may develop in individuals taking the medication monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). In these individuals, which food may need to be limited?

A. Fresh strawberries

B. Parmesan cheese & aged cheeses

C. Egg whites

D. Wheat bread

A

B

92
Q

A(n) ____ is any molecule that elicit’s an immunological response

A. Antibody

B. Antigen

C. Epitope

D. Hapten

A

B

93
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding FODMAPs intolerance?

A. FODMAPs intolerance appears to be more common in people who have an underlying GI disorder, like IBS

B. FODMAPs intolerance involves maldigestion and malabsorption of fructo-, oligo-, di-, and monosaccharides

C. Most humans have the hydrolase enzymes necessary to break down fructose polymer chains, so eating a large quantity of FODMAPs is not a problem for the majority of people

D. FODMAPs intolerance symptoms can include diarrhea and cramping

A

C

94
Q

A positive skin-prick test in an individual older than 2 years is diagnostic of an IgE-mediated food allergy.

True or False?

A

False

Only indicates sensitivity to the specific food

95
Q

How long are foods suspected of causing an adverse food reaction typically removed from the diet during an eliminateion diet before beginning reintroduced?

A. 3-5 days

B. 1-2 weeks

C. 2-8 weeks

D. 6 months

A

C

96
Q

The gold standard for food allergy testing is the:

A. Double-blind, placebo controlled food challenge

B. Single-blind food challenge

C. Open oral food challenge

D. Food allergen-specific serum IgE-testing

A

A

97
Q

The concept of a food particle being ‘foreign but safe’ applies to what physiological process?

A. Food intolerance

B. Food sensitivity

C. Leaky gut

D. Oral tolerance

A

D

98
Q

In a case of pollen-food allergy syndrome, sensitization would be to which of the following:

A. Cooked vegetables

B. Grass pollens

C. Strawberries

D. Poached fruit

A

B

99
Q

Which of the following is the least relevant in the assessment of an adverse food reaction?

A. Breastfeeding vs formula feeding

B. Dietary supplement use

C. Hydration status

D. Method of birth (Cesarean vs vaginal)

A

C

100
Q

According to the Reading ‘Role of the Registered Dietitian Nutritionist in the Diagnosis and Management of Food Allergies,’ which of the following is not recommended to be included as a diagnostic test for food allergy diagnosis?

A. The endoscopic allergen provocation test

B. Serum IgE tests

C. Skin-prick tests

D. The detailed food allergy-focused diet history tool

A

A

The endoscopic allergen provocation test is a NON evidence-based test

101
Q

________prevention would most appropriately be targeted towards someone diagnosed with prediabetes in efforts to prevent the progression to diabetes.

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Tertiary

D. Holistic

A

B

102
Q

Disease and impaired function are inevitable parts of aging.

True or False?

A

False

103
Q

________describes age-related muscle loss in an individual with excess adipose tissue

A. Sarcopenia

B. Sarcopenic obesity

C. Sedentary death syndrome

D. Senescence

A

B

104
Q

An elderly individual experiencing achlorhydria would be at greater risk for ________deficiency

A. Vitamin B12

B. Vitamin B6

C. Iron

D. Calcium

A

A

105
Q

The 2019 International Clinical Practice Guideline for the Prevention and Treatment of Pressure Injuries (CPG) recommend specific levels of energy (30-35 kcal/kg) and protein (1.25-1.5 g/kg) for individuals with existing pressure injuries.

True or False?

A

True

106
Q

Which of the following is not one of the 4 syndromes associated with geriatric failure to thrive?

A. Cardiovascular disease

B. Cognitive impairment

C. Depression

D. Malnutrition

A

A

107
Q

An older individual needing physical therapy treatment would want to make sure they are enrolled in Medicare Part ____to receive PT-related benefits

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

A

B

108
Q

As discussed in the AND Position Paper on Food & Nutrition Programs for Community-Residing Older adults, far more older adults are underweight than older adults who are obese

True or False?

A

False

109
Q

According to the AND Position Paper on Food & Nutrition Programs for Community-Residing Older adults, frailty is identified as having reduced strength, endurance, and ____________in older adults

A. Dental hygiene

B. Oral intake

C. Physiological function

D. Social support

A

C

110
Q

According to the AND Position Paper on Food & Nutrition Programs for Community-Residing Older adults, emerging evidence indicates that congregate meals (CM) ____________nutritional status and health in older adults

A. Improve

B. Maintain

C. Worsen

D. Do not affect

A

A

111
Q

Genes determine approximately ____% of one’s predisposition to obesity.

A. 20-30%

B. 30-50%

C. 60-80%

D. 50-70%

A

D

112
Q

Which of the following is true regarding low-carbohydrate, high-fat diets?

A. They result in greater body fat loss in the long-term compared to other restricted calorie diets

B. They result in greater body water loss in the short-term, contributing to initial decrease in body weight

C. They promote greater satiety compared with other restricted calorie diets

D. They are generally nutritionally adequate diets

A

B

113
Q

What is the primary mechanism, identified in the chapter, by which the microbiome might influence one’s weight?

A. A nutrient poor diet low in indigestible polysacharides decreases microbiome health and may stimulate appetite and energy absorption

B. A nutrient rich diet high in indigestible polysaccharides decreases microbiome health and may stimulate appetite and energy absorption

C. The microbiome in obese individuals is more diverse that likely increases hunger in the individual

D. The microbiome in lean individuals is more diverse thus blunting hunger and appetite

A

A

114
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters/hormones is most likely to increase food consumption?

A. Peptite YY/PYY

B. Glucagon-like peptide-1/GLP-1

C. Neuropeptide Y (NPY)

D. Cholecystokinin/CCK

A

C

115
Q

Which surgical procedure for weight is associated with greater complications but also demonstrates greater remission rates of comorbidities?

A. Biliopancreatic diverson (BPD)

B. Gastric band (LAGB)

C. Intragastric balloon

D. Sleeve gastrectomy (SG)

A

D

116
Q

For an individual with a BMI of 32, a recommended rate of weight loss would be:

A. 0.25-0.5 lbs per week

B. 0.5-1.0 lbs per week

C. 1-2 lbs per week

D. 1-3 lbs per week

A

B

117
Q

In order to see clinically significant improvements, an adult with obesity and comobidity/ies needs to lose ~____ of their body weight.

A. 2 to 4%

B. 5 to 10%

C. 10 to 20%

D. at least 20%

A

B

118
Q

The AND Practice Guidelines on Weight Management recommend using the Mifflin St. Jeor predictive equation to estimate energy needs for patients with obesity.

True or False?

A

True

119
Q

In the AND Practice Guidelines on Weight Management, the paper concludes that telehealth interventions:

A. Are equally as effective as in-person visits to support successful weight management goals

B. Should not be considered given that not all clients will have access to a stable internet connection

C. Are effective for counseling patients with obesity, though occasional in-person visits should also occur when possible

D. Should only be conducted if video conferencing is available; standard telephone (audio) calls are insufficient

A

C

120
Q

Which of the following counseling techniques was not listed as an effective tool RDNs can use for supporting weight management goals, according to the AND Practice Guidelines on Weight Management:

A. Motivational interviewing

B. Collaborative goal setting

C. Dialectial behavioral therapy/DBT

D. Meal planning

A

C

121
Q

A child is considered overweight if their BMI percentile is ______________

A. Between the 80th to 90th percentile

B. Between the 85th to 95th percentile

C. Greater than the 85th percentile

D. Greter than the 95th percentile

A

B

122
Q

What has shown to be a good predictor of pediatric metabolic syndrome?

A. BMI

B. Elevated LDL cholesterol

C. Waist circumference

D. Weight percentile

A

C

123
Q

Screening for prediabetes is universally performed in the pediatric population

True or False?

A

False

124
Q

The gold standard for assessing insulin resistance in the pediatric population is:

A. Fasting blood glucose test

B. Hemoglobin A1c

C. Hyperglycemic-euglycemic clamp

D. Postprandial blood glucose test

A

C

125
Q

While considered the 2 most significant health concerns worldwide among the pediatric population, asthma and obesity are considered to be independent conditions

True or False?

A

False

126
Q

The best treatment approach for nonalcoholic fatty liver disease in children is:

A. Healthy eating

B. Medications

C. Weight loss

D. A & C only

E. All of the above

A

D

127
Q

Of the available bariatric procedures that are available, the procedure that seems to have the best outcomes and is associated with the fewest complications, (and has the additional benefit of being reversible), is which procedure:

A. Adjustable gastric banding

B. Roux en Y bypass

C. Sleeve gastrectomy

D. Vertical banded gastroplasty

A

A

128
Q

According to the Academy’s Position Paper on the Treatment of Pediatric Overweight and Obesity, structured pediatric obesity interventions decrease risk for disordered eating.

True or False?

A

True

129
Q

Which of the following statements, according to the Academy’s Position Paper on the Treatment of Pediatric Overweight and Obesity, most accurately summarizes RDN-lead interventions for pediatric patients with obesity?

A. Nutrition interventions in of themselves have been found to be effective in decreasing a patient’s BMI percentile

B. Nutrition interventions are most effective when combined with mental health interventions to decrease a patient’s BMI z-score

C. Nutrition interventions are most effective when combined with physical activity interventions to decrease a patient’s BMI z-score

D. Nutrition interventions are most effective when combined with physical activity and mental health interventions to decrease a patient’s BMI z-score

A

D

130
Q

Which of the following would not be a considered intervention (based on the dietitian’s knowledge and expertise) for a pediatric patient with obesity according to the Academy’s Position Paper on the Treatment of Pediatric Overweight and Obesity?

A. Intermittent fasting

B. Meal replacement shakes

C. The ketogenic diet

D. The red/yellow/green light food system

A

D

131
Q

Someone with a fasting blood glucose level of 128 mg/dL would most appropriately be diagnosed with having:

A. Imparied fasting glucose (IFG)

B. Impaired glucose intolerance (IGT)

C. Prediabetes

D. Type 2 diabetes

A

D

132
Q

A 9-week pregnant woman who is found to have a fasting blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL is most likely to be diagnosed with:

A. Gestational diabetes

B. Type 2 diabetes

C. Prediabetes

D. Type 1 diabetes

A

B

133
Q

What medications is most appropriate for someone diagnosed with prediabetes?

A. Actos (Pioglitazone)

B. Byetta (Exenatide)

C. Glucophage (Metformin)

D. Precose (Acarbose)

A

C

134
Q

For someone diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, it is recommended they maintain a hemoglobin A1C < ________%

A. 5.7

B. 6.4

C. 7.0

D. 6.5

A

C

135
Q

It is the total amount of carbohydrate consumed at a meal that matters more for managing blood glucose levels than does focusing on reducing starch and sucrose forms of carbohydrate

True or False?

A

True

136
Q

Maintaining the pleasure of eating is a key goal for MNT with individuals with diabetes

True or False?

A

True

137
Q

For someone newly diagnosed with diabetes, they should be educated on how to comply with which of the following meal patterns:

A. A low carbohydrate diet

B. A mediterranean dietary approach

C. A vegetarian/vegan dietary approach

D. An individualized approach that may encourage consumption of dietary fiber from fruit and vegetabes, whole grains, and legumes

A

D

138
Q

If someone with diabetes is initiating exercised with blood glucose levels < ____ mg/dL, they should consume additional carbohydrate

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 125

A

B

139
Q

Which of the following is a rapid acting insulin?

A. Lispro (Humalog)

B. Glargine (Lantus)

C. Metformin

D. Pramlintide

A

A

140
Q

Which of the following is a contributer to the Somogyi effect?

A. Consumption of insufficient carbohydrate, resulting in hypoglycemia and consequently rebound hyperglycemia

B. Insufficient insulin availability resulting in a hyperglycemic state

C. Insufficient hepatic glucose production resulting in hypoglycemia

D. Excessive exogenous insulin use, ultimately resulting in rebound hyperglycemia

A

D

141
Q
A

MNT (4 decks)

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