MNT 2 Quiz Questions Flashcards
If a patient were being assessed for chronic disease related malnutrition, which of the following would meet characteristics of severe malnutrition?
A. weight loss of 4.5% in 1 month
B. weight loss of 9% in 5 months
C. weight loss of 7% in 2 months
D. weight loss of 21% in 1 year
D
A patient with a BMI > 30 can receive a diagnosis of malnutrition.
True or False?
True
There is sufficient criteria and evidence to differentiate between mild and moderate malnutrition.
True or False?
False
Which of the 4 malnutrition assessment tools identifies a patient as either (a) normal nutrition status; (b) at risk of malnutrition; or (c) malnourished?
A. Subjective Global Assessment
B. Mini Nutritional Assessment
C. the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics/American Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition malnutrition consensus characteristics
D. the Global Leadership Initiative on Malnutrition criteria
B
The GLIM criteria was developed as a more thorough way to assess malnutrition and is intended to replace the AND/ASPEN criteria
True or False?
False
Visceral protein status should not be used in the assessment of malnutrition
True or False?
True
Which of the following is not a criteria that overlaps with all 4 malnutrition assessment tools (SGA, MNA, AND/ASPEN, GLIM)?
A. unintended weight loss
B. reduced muscle mass
C. disease etiology
D. inadequate intake
C
A patient with a BMI of 32.6 who has lost 4% body weight in the past month and has consumed ~45% of their estimated energy requirement for 6 days during injury meets the criteria for:
A. mild risk for refeeding syndrome
B. does not meet the criteria for refeeding syndrome since body weight is >18.5 kg/m2
C. significant risk for refeeding syndrome
D. moderate risk for refeeding syndrome
C
Which of the following statements is correct regarding thiamine supplementation to manage refeeding syndrome for patients identified at moderate risk?
A. Thiamine supplementation should be provided (only) for the first three days initiation of nutrition
B. Thiamine supplementation does not need to be provided given that it is included in the recommended MVI supplementation.
C. Thiamine supplementation should be provided before initiation of nutrition and for the first 3 days of nutrition provision
D. Thiamine supplementation should be provided (only) before initiation of nutrition
C
For initiating nutrition for a patient identified as moderate refeeding syndrome risk, enteral feeds should be initiated at ____% for the first 24 hours.
A. 25% of goal rate
B. 33% of goal rate
C. 50% of goal rate
D. 10 ml//hr of goal rate
A
If a patient requres a tube feeding for less than 4 weeks, the preferred type of tube would be…
A. nasogastric
B. oroenteric
C. percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
D. percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy
A
If a patient is at risk for aspiration, the tube placement should be post-pylorus (such as in the small bowel).
True or False?
True
Placing a bedside nasogastric tube requires a chest x-ray or other radiograph image to confirm correct tube placement.
True or False?
False
Bolus (tube) feeds can be provided via gastric or small bowel routes.
True or False?
False
In a close tube feeding system, formula can be hung at room temperature for:
A. 2 to 4 hours
B. 4 to 8 hours
C. 8 to 12 hours
D. 12 to 24 hours
D
An open system product should only be at room temp for 4 to 8 hours
Benefits of gastric feedings include all BUT the following:
A. gastric feedings can be placed more rapidly than other placements
B. takes advantage of normal digestive, hormonal, and bactericidal processes
C. risk for aspiration is decreased
D. maintains functioning of the entire GIT (form the stomach down)
C
A common complication associated with tube feeding that can increase risk for pneumonia is:
A. diarrhea
B. constipation
C. aspiration
D. vomiting
C
A patient for whom early enteral nutrition may be contraindicated could include:
A. a hemodynamically stable patient in the ICU with type 1 diabetes
B. a respiratory-compromised patient
C. a patient who came to the ER after not having eaten in 3 days
D. a patient with acute pancreatitis
B
Typically, continuous feedings in adults are started at which of the following rates:
A. 10-20 mL/hour and advanced 20 mL every 4-6 hours
B. 20-30 mL/hour and advanced 20 mL every 4-6 hours
C. 20-55 mL/hour and advanced 10-25 mL every 4-24 hours
D. 40-50 mL/hour and advanced 10-25 mL every 4-24 hours
C
According to the ‘Enteral Nutrition overview’ article, which of the following feeding tube modalities is preferred in the home setting?
A. continuous
B. intermittent
C. bolus
D. night-time intermittent feeds
C
According to the ‘Choosing Enteral Formulas’ article, which of the following is NOT a key factor in selecting an enteral formula?
A. patient’s nutrition requirements
B. gastrointestinal tract function
C. patient’s organ status
D. patient’s clinical status
E. patient’s risk for refeeding syndrome
E
Since enteral formula products are under the jurisdiction of the FDA, manufacturers must register products and obtain FDA approval before products are placed on the market.
True or False?
False
It is important to educate patients that blenderized formulas can be held safely at room temperature for no more than:
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 4-6 hours
D. 12 hours
B
Blenderized formulas can sufficienty meet the patient’s needs for all of the following except:
A. macronutrients
B. fluids
C. micronutrients
D. essential fatty acids
D. none of the above - blenderized formulas can meet all of the patient’s nutrient needs
B
BTF is approximately 70-75% fluid –> pts will need more fluid
