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Special Clinical Micro > MLT 240 Exam 1 > Flashcards

MLT 240 Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Are Fungi Classified as Eukaryotic or Prokaryotic

A

Eukaryotic

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2
Q

What is the structural element that comprises a fungus

A

Hyphae

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3
Q

Which Class of Fungi has non-septate mycelium

A

Zygomycetes

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4
Q

Why are certain fungi classified as “Fungi Imperfecti”?

A

lack a sexual phase, or their sexual phase is unknown.

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5
Q

How does the function of reproductive mycelia differ from that of vegetative mycelia

A

Vegetative mycelia anchors fungus to substrate (grows below), produces digestive enzymes.

Reproductive mycelia project above the surface. Spores are located here.

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6
Q

To which class do most pathogenic Fungi Belong

A

Deutermoycetes

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7
Q

What term best describes the nutritional characteristics of fungi

A

saprophytic

saprotrophic

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8
Q

Are Fungi Aerobic or Anaerobic

A

Aerobic

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9
Q

What is the best single medium for the primary isolation of fungi

A

Sabouraud’s Dextrose agar (SBA)

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10
Q

What is the purpose of corn meal agar

A

Organism is nutritionally deprived –> sporulation will occur. Used to observe chlamydospore formation in C. albicans.

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11
Q

How long should routine fungal cultures be held before being discarded

A

min 4 weeks

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12
Q

what three things does the mounting medium lactophenol cotton blue do

A
  • preserves fungal structure
  • reduce contamination of environment
  • stain fungal structures
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13
Q

When a systemic mycoses has spread to various organs, what term is used to describe it

A

disseminated

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14
Q

What organism is best described as a thick-walled yest cell with buds attached by a broad base

A

Blastomyces dermatiditids

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15
Q

Which systemic fungus is always a yeast ( i.e. is not diphasic)

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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16
Q

How is histoplasmosis acquired

A

inhalation of spores from free-living fungus (growing in environment)

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17
Q

Name the five species of dimorphic (diphasic) fungi

A
  • Blastomyces
  • Coccidioides
  • Histoplasma
  • Paracoccidioides
  • Sporotrichosis (NOT CRYPTOCOCCUS)
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18
Q

Which systemic fungus produces thin-walled yeast cells with multiple buds in tissue

A

Paracoccidioides brazilensis

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19
Q

Which fungus can be observed as a non-budding, think-walled spherule containing endospores in a direct smear from the body

A

Coccidioides imitis

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20
Q

Which fungus produces Spiny, tuberculate macroconidia when cultured, but in the body can be seen as intracellular, yeast-like cells with a large vacuole in the cells of the RE system

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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21
Q

Cryptococcosis is usually seen as a disease of which body system

A

pulmonary

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22
Q

Which systemic fungus is the most fastidious (difficult to grow) in the Lab

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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23
Q

What systemic fungus causes San Jacquain Vally Fever

A

Coccidioides imitis

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24
Q

Which systemic fungus casues South American blastomycoses

A

Paracoccidioides

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25
Q

Which stain is best used to demonstrate Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF

A

India ink

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26
Q

Which systemic fungus is endemic in Piedmont NC and can produce a primary pulmonary saporophytic fungus Geotrichum candidum

A

Blastomyces

Coccidioides

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27
Q

What is the macroscopic appearance of Sporothrix scheneckii at 37 deg.

A

creamy, yeast colony

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28
Q

List several species of dematiaceous fungi

A

Phialophora, Fonsecaea, Cladosporium

NOT ASPERGILLIS, PENICILLIUM, OR CANDIDA!

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29
Q

Which subcutaneous infection produces yeast-like brown cells in clusters in the body

A

Chromomycoses

Divides in all 4 planes; brown, sclerotic bodies

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30
Q

What is the most common cauase of maduromycosis

A

petriellidum voydii

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31
Q

What color are the granules that are frequently found in the pus of maduromycosis

A

yellow/whitish

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32
Q

What fungus produces tear-shaped conidia arranged in rosettes art 25 deg and yeast cells when grown at 37 deg and causes a disease common among gardeners which is referred to as “rose fever”

A

Sporothrix schneckeii

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33
Q

Name several species that can be responsible for chromomycosis

A

Phialophora, Fonsecaea, Cladosporium

NOT ASPERGILLIS, PENICILLIUM, OR CANDIDA!

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34
Q

Which organism can cause mycetomas (fungal tumors)

A

Actinomyces
Madurella
* Petriellidieum

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35
Q

An organism which produces brown, branching septate hyphae would be classified as what type of fungus

A

Dematiaceous

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36
Q

What are Dermatophytes

A

organism that only invades (non-living) keratinized areas

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37
Q

What device can be used as an aid to select hairs infected with ringworm

A

Fluorescent light

38
Q

What typeion of hair infection is characterized by empty areas of tunnels where the hyphae have degenerated visible throughout the entire length of the hair

A

favic

39
Q

What Combination of fungal media would be best to use to culture the dermatophytes

A

Sabouraud’s/mycosel

40
Q

Which three genera of fungi all cause ringworm of the skin

A

Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton

41
Q

What fungus appears velvety white on the front and mahogany on the reverse and will not grow on sterile unfortified rice grains

A

Microsporum audouinii

42
Q

What fungus is the most common cause of ringworm in dogs and cats and is characterized by a canary yellow reverse and spiny, spindle-shaped macroconidia?

A

Microsporum canis

43
Q

What fungus is most frequently isolated from human ringworm infections and has a deep red reverse pigmentation

A

Trichophyton rubrum

44
Q

What structures are frequently observed in Trichophyton cultures?

A

spiraled/coiled hyphae, nodular bodies, racket hyphae

45
Q

As a rule, which dermatophyte does not infect nails?

A

Microsporum (audouinii)

46
Q

Which dermatophyte is the most common cause of epidemic scalp ringworm in American school children?

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

47
Q

What fungus causes tinea versicolor

A

Pityrosporon (malassezia) furfur

48
Q

What fungus is the most common causative agent of tinea cruris?

A

Epidermophyton

49
Q

What term is used to refer to ringworm of the skin?

A

Tinea corpus

50
Q

What dermatophyte gives a positive in vitro hair test?

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

51
Q

Which dermatophyte produces sterile, antler-like hyphae referred to as favic chandliers and causes a severe type of ringworm of the scalp called favus?

A

Trichophyton schoenleinii

52
Q

Which dermatophyte does not invade hair and produces oval, smooth-walled club-shaped macroconidia and no microconidia

A

Epidermophyton floccosum

53
Q

Which dermatophyte is the most common cause of ringworm of cattle and requires both inositol and thiamine to grow well

A

verrucosum

54
Q

How is Candida albicans identified?

A

germ tube and chlamydospore agar

55
Q

Which fungus is the most common and troublesome laboratory contaminant and is the most pathogenic of the opportunistic fungi?

A

Aspergillus

56
Q

If an autopsy revealed systemic infection by fungus with broad, branching non-septate hyhae, which species of fungus could be a likely cause of death

A

Mucor/Rhizopus pg87

57
Q

Which fungus commonly produces oval budding cells with pseudohyphae and will produce chlamydospores on cornmeal agar

A

Candida albicans

58
Q

Brown gritty deposits in a sputum specimen are indicative of what genus

A

Aspergillus

59
Q

What clinical conditions can be caused by Candida albicans

A

Yeast infection, thrush, etc.

DOES NOT CAUSE RINGWORM

60
Q

Which species of opportunistic fungi can be causative agents of eye infections?

A

Altenaria, Curvularia, Fusarium

61
Q

Which fungus is most frequently isolated in the clinical laboratory?

A

Candida albicans

62
Q

Which species of Rickettsia causes epidemic typhus?

  • Scrub typhus?
  • Q fever?
  • Rickettsial pox?
  • RMSF?
A
  • Rickettsia prowazekii
    (Vector: Body louse)
  • Rickettsia tsuts- ugamuschi
    (Vector: Larval mite)
  • Coxiella burnetti
    (No vector listed)
  • Rickettsia akari
    (Vector: mite)
  • Rickettsia rickettsi
    (Vector: Wood tick)
63
Q

How do Rickettsia and Chlamydia differ?

A

Rickettsia = require arthropod vectors

Chlamydia = not dependant on arthropod vectors (transmitted human-to-human)

64
Q

What clinical conditions can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

A

most common cause of NGU (non-gonococcal urethritis)

most common cause of blindness inclusion conjunctivitis

65
Q

How is Chlamydia psittacosis spread to humans

A

aerosol inhalation (same thing)

66
Q

How are Rickettsial infections diagnosed in the laboratory

A

Cell culture –> Embryonated eggs

67
Q

What causes the rash that is frequently observed in Rickettsial infections?

A

invasion of endothelial cells of blood vessels

68
Q

What are the characteristics of viruses

A

have DNA or RNA (not both)
don’t respond to antibiotics
obligate intracellular parasite

69
Q

What term is used to refer to the viral nucleic acid core together with its protein coat

A

nucleocapsid

70
Q

What is the order of events in the process of viral infection

A

Absorption (attach to cell), Penetration (viropexis), Replicate, Assemble, Release

71
Q

What is interferon?

A

prevents virus replication

72
Q

Which virus produces an acute respiratory infection and is commonly found in increased incidence in military camps

A

adenovirus

73
Q

Which virus is the causative agent of the common cold

A

Rhinovirus

74
Q

Which type of virus is referred to as “virus in search of a disease

A

ECHO virus (Enteric Cytopathogenic Human Orphan)

75
Q

Negri bodies are characteristic of which virus

A

Rhabdovirus

76
Q

Which virus causes chicken pox

A

Varicella

77
Q

With what clinical conditions is Epstein-Barr virus associated

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma//Infectious Mononucleosis

transforms lymphocytes to lymphoblastoid cells

78
Q

Which virus produces large, red intranuclear inclusions

A

CMV

79
Q

How is Hepatitis A transmitted

A

fecal-oral

80
Q

Herpes-Zoster occurs in patients who have a history of what other viral infection

A

only in people with a history of chicken pox (varicella)

81
Q

What are the characteristics of Hepatitis B?

A

transmitted by blood (serum hepatitis), drug addicts (blood contact)

82
Q

How many serotypes of polio virus are there?

A

3

83
Q

Which vaccines have been developed against polio

A

Salk vaccine, Sabin vaccine

84
Q

Which virus has been associated with cancer of the cervix and causes genital lesions in humans

A

HSV

Type 2

85
Q

. The ______ test is a serological test used in the identification of Rickettsia that employs three antigens of the bacteria ________ that cross-react with rickettsial antigens

A
  • Wiel-Felix test

- Proteus vulgaris

86
Q

What virus is associated with severe congenital abnormalities in the fetus if the mother becomes infected during her first trimester

A

Rubella (German Measles)

87
Q

An “emerging pathogen” is one that seems to be on the rise in the last several years. What viral pathogen that causes an upper respiratory tract infection in infants and young children would fall into this category

A

RSV (respiratory syncytical virus)

88
Q

To what group of viruses does HIV belong

A

retrovirus

89
Q

These viruses have no DNA and possess an enzyme called __________ that
is capable of converting RNA to DNA.

A

reverse transcriptase

90
Q

Name two diseases processes that are common in HIV patients that are rarely seen in “normal” individuals

A 
PCP pneumonia
toxoplasmosis
CMV
Kaposi's sarcoma
Cryptococciosis
MAI tuberculosis

Special Clinical Micro (5 decks)

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