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MK1 > MK1 and Below > Flashcards

MK1 and Below Flashcards

1
Q

What are you looking for on a 45 rbm reversing bucket inspection?

A
  • Check to make sure the bucket does not knock against the steering nozzle when raised or lowered.
  • The distance between the bucket and nozzle should be no less than 3/16 of an inch when down and centered.
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2
Q

45 rbm steering linkages should be snug? torqued? or should flex?

A

The bolts that secure the linkages are held in place with sealing compound. The bolts should NOT be snug up to the linkage joints to allow the joints to flex during linkage movement.

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3
Q

45 rbm propulsion pump shaft bearing l/o capacity?

A

The red gear pump capacity is approximately 2.8 gals.

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4
Q

What draws liquid from the bilge or service tank when processing oily waste? Vacuum feed pump? feed pump?

A

First stage gravity separator operates under a vacuum

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5
Q

A warning in MPC’s come before or after instruction?

A

Before

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6
Q

What are the operating options for the ows?

A

Auto and Manual

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7
Q

WMSL R/O system pressure should not exceed what PSI?

A

1,000 psi or 4.35 gpm product water flow irreversible damage can occur to the membrane assembly.

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8
Q

What indicates high pump oil needs to be replaced or what indicates that RO is dumping?

A

The master control center monitors and records high pressure pump operating hours and will automatically indicate when the pump should have its oil changed. It will illuminate CHECK UNIT light

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9
Q

After a 50 hr oil change in the high pressure pump how long after is the oil changed again?

A

Actual high pressure pump oil replacement frequency is every 500 hours or monthly, whichever comes first.

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10
Q

What size micron membrane filters the RO process?

A

The membrane array consists of one 20 micron and one 5 micron to reduce raw water particulate size to a maximum of 5 microns in diameter.

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11
Q

What is the operating pressure of an R/O?

A

Max operating is 1000 psi.

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12
Q

How often are most gauges in the CG calibrated? 12? 24? 36? 48?

A

Common calibration intervals are 12 and 18 months.

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13
Q

What is the last step when splicing a wire?

A

Wrap it and test for continuity.

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14
Q

To get the most power from two batteries they should be in what type of setup?

A

Batteries in parallel provide a higher current capacity while batteries in series provide a higher voltage.

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15
Q

Most common type of clutches?

A

Multi disc clutches, multi disc pneumatic clutches, synchro-self shifting clutches.

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16
Q

What manual describes management for refuse disposal onboard CGC’s?

A

The Vessel Environmental Manual

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17
Q

Jacket water testing should be done how often?

A

At a minimum jacket water should be tested monthly and whenever jacket water, inhibitors or antifreeze are added.

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18
Q

What hoses are not contained in a hose log?

A
  • Outboard engine hoses and hoses internal to small engines on boats
  • Fire hoses and other detachable water hoses covered in other programs.
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19
Q

How long does a cutter have to use fuel taken onboard?

A

6 month use limit

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20
Q

What is a CAT 2?

A

A deficiency in mission essential equipment that causes a partial degradation in any primary mission, or a major degradation or complete loss of a secondary mission.

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21
Q

Flash point of F-76 or JP5?

A

140 degrees F

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22
Q

What does OMSEP stand for?

A

Occupational Medical Surveillance & Evaluation Program

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23
Q

Double hearing protection devices are required at exposure levels ___ or greater?

A

104 dB

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24
Q

How do you choose the proper ring size used on centrifugal F/O purifier?

A

Fuels Specific Gravity

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25
Q

When flushing aircraft fuel hose, how long and how much?

A

Flush the nozzle for 2 minutes or a minimum of 50 gallons at the full rated flow of the service pump to remove and residual contamination.

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26
Q

Where is the strainer placed when fueling a helicopter?

A

The only strainer is at the fueling nozzle, it provides a final barrier.

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27
Q

Amount of water allowable in hydraulics PPM?

A

0.05 PPM

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28
Q

What is the purpose for sodium filled valves?

A

Heat transfer, the sodium melts and circulates within the hollow stem, carrying away engine heat from the head of the valve, thus away from the chamber.

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29
Q

What should not be introduced to a teflon piston ring on a Oil Free Compressor?

A

Water

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30
Q

How long should the P-100 idle before shutdown?

A

2 minutes

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31
Q

How many dipsticks does a P-100 have?

A

2, 1 on each side of the engine.

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32
Q

Fuel dilution for a Detroit 92 series?

A

2.5% maximum fuel dilution, and max viscosity is 40%

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33
Q

Minimum octane and ethanol content for the Honda 225?

A

86 octane of higher

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34
Q

What causes black or grey smoke?

A
  • Incompletely burned fuel
  • improper grade of fuel
  • high exhaust back pressure
  • restricted air inlet
  • malfunctioning turbocharger
  • improperly timed injectors
  • faulty injectors
  • engine overload
  • low compression
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35
Q

What is the distance between top and bottom teeth on a red gear?

A

Root Clearance or Clearance Root

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36
Q

What controls BF225a fuel cutoff solenoid?

A

Voltage

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37
Q

How far do you put a feeler gauge in a stave bearing?

A

4 to 6 inches

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38
Q

What O-Ring is best resistant for petroleum products?

A

Nitrile

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39
Q

If you have improper exhaust temp readings what could be the cause?

A

Bad Pyrometer

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40
Q

How would you measure bore mis-alignment?

A

Cylinder Bore gauge, or a micrometer

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41
Q

Waster sleeves in the sea chest are responsible for what?

A

To minimize galvanic corrosion of the sea chest

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42
Q

What are the disadvantages of a centrifugal pump?

A

Suction lift

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43
Q

What is used to test the contact area on gear teeth?

A

Red Dykem

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44
Q

What would be considered and expendable on replacing the gear case oil of a honda BF 225?

A

Drain Bolt O-Ring

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45
Q

What controls the idle speed of a honda 225?

A

Idle Air Control Valve (IAC Valve)

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46
Q

Vacuum gauges indicate readings in what measurement?

A

HG (Inches of Mercury)

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47
Q

Which component can be pressure compensated or non pressure compensated?

A

Flow control valve

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48
Q

What does the color of the terminal lug or splice insulation indicate?

A

The size of wire that it can be used on

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49
Q

What is the horsepower of a p-100 pump?

A

10 horsepower

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50
Q

How is the P-100 cooled?

A

Air Cooled

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51
Q

What PSI should a P-100 operate at with a 20 ft suction lift?

A

83 psi

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52
Q

While running a P-100 pump what should the drip rate be at the shaft packing?

A

5-60 drops per minute

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53
Q

What is the size of the discharge hose on a P-100 pump?

A

2 1/2”

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54
Q

What type of oil is used in a P-100?

A

SAE 10W30

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55
Q

How many bags are used to pack a P6?

A

2 bags

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56
Q

At what rate can the P6 discharge water at a 12 ft suction lift?

A

250 gallons per minute

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57
Q

What type of connections are used on the P6 suction and discharge hose?

A

Cam lock fittings

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58
Q

What is the max number of continuation lines for the remarks section of a CASREP?

A

100 total continuation lines

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59
Q

While changing lower unit oil on a honda outboard what do large metal chips indicate?

A

Disassemble and Inspect

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60
Q

How do you adjust the gap on a four stroke engine spark plug?

A

Do not adjust, replace

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61
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage required when testing a battery?

A

12.6 volts

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62
Q

How would you test a 4-20mA sensor?

A

In series

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63
Q

What size are the safety chains on the RBS trailer?

A

1/2 inch galvanized steel

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64
Q

When conducting maintenance in the stern tube you notice chunks of rubber, what is the cause?

A

Overheating, when rubber overheats it may break away in chunks from the stave bearing

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65
Q

On a newly installed prop bearing this can happen?

A

Bearing stick slip

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66
Q

Sensitive property must be accounted for what %?

A

100%

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67
Q

Pilferable property must be accounted to what %?

A

97%

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68
Q

On the 87 Sarex 2 GPM OWS has a capacity of how many gallons?

A

8 gallons

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69
Q

The 87 Sarex 2 GPM OWS what acts as the collection surface for separated oil droplets?

A

Inclined absorbtion plates

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70
Q

What is the normal operating temp for the RBS trailer bearing?

A

135-175 degrees

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71
Q

On the 225hp Honda outboard if the fuel overflows from the air vent tube of the vapor separator what should you check?

A

Fuel Line Solenoid cutoff valve and the vapor separator

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72
Q

What is the best hydraulic pump to use when pumping viscous oil?

A

Multiple piston pumps

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73
Q

What % should you hydrostatically pressure test a temporary hose to?

A

110% of the maximum pressure

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74
Q

In a hydraulic system what valve sends fluid to the working site once you achieve needed pressure will be sent back to the tank?

A

Relief Valve

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75
Q

When a pump has a high crankcase pressure it is due to a plugged ____ valve?

A

Unloader Valve, a valve downstream of the pumps discharge used to regulate and maintain the system pressure at a predetermined level.

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76
Q

How many volts do you get when you have a 400 Ma and 20 ohms?

A

8000 volts

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77
Q

How do you measure insulation on a wire?

A

By using a megger (megohmeter)

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78
Q

A loose connection on a electrical system will ____ contact resistance and ___ heat on the wire

A

Increase and Increase

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79
Q

On a shore side shore tie what should be on the label with voltage?

A

Shore tie outlets are labeled with phase, voltage, and capacity

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80
Q

Class II rubber gloves are rated for how many volts?

A

17,500 volts

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81
Q

What is the symbol for watts in an equation?

A

P (Power is measured in watts)

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82
Q

Piping should be limited to reduce what?

A

Bends

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83
Q

When you are charging a lead acid battery it may off gas what?

A

Hydrogen Gas

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84
Q

When salt water and sulfuric acid (battery acid) are mixed together they give off what type of gas?

A

Chlorine Gas which is toxic

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85
Q

What NSTM chapter covers plastisol?

A

NSTM 631 (Preservation of Ships in Service General)

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86
Q

Who do you get authorization from to use Bio Diesel?

A

SFLC

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87
Q

If a casualty occurs from an inadequate PMS what type of CASREP do you create?

A

AMPN

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88
Q

On a standard memo what does the office symbol represent?

A

The persons address you are sending it to

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89
Q

On a piping system when using a T Connection how many are there and at what angle?

A

4 at 45 degrees

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90
Q

In a refrigerant system before starting the compressor you should do what?

A

Line up the cooling water to the condensor

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91
Q

A normally operating HVAC system the refrigerant will always get?

A

It transfers the heat from the substance or space being refrigerated to a colder medium

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92
Q

What is the working clearance to be maintained in front of the electrical distribution panel with voltages 600 or less?

A

a 36 inch emergency access area is maintained in front of all electrical distribution panels with voltages of 600 or less

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93
Q

50 psi on the RBS trailer tire is what kind of discrepancy?

A

Restrictive

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94
Q

In planning and preparing even min or simulated casualties, consideration must be given to the possibility that ____.

A

That the simulation could create an actual hazardous condition, or cause damage if the simulated casualty is handled improperly.

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95
Q

Enthusiasm for realistic casualty drills must not outweigh what?

A

Sound judgement or sound evaluation of the state of crew training

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96
Q

What is the valve called for overboard discharge on an OWS system?

A

Solenoid Operated Water Discharge Valve

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97
Q

What valve is used to control flow?

A

Globe valves, gate valves, needle valves, and plug cocks

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98
Q

What reading in a DEMPS procedure is not relevant?

A 
Intake Manifold Temperature
The 7 readings that are taken are
- cylinder compression pressure
- cylinder exhaust temp
- crankcase vacuum
- Intake manifold pressure
- Exhaust back pressure
- Lube oil consumption
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99
Q

What metal other than copper is non ferrous metal?

A

Nickel

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100
Q

Flooding in the engine room is what chapter in the Casualty Control Manual?

A

NEM Ch. 79

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101
Q

What angle from the crankshaft will be cylinder scoring?

A

Liners will usually wear at the greatest rate in an area 90 degrees to the crankshaft and in the direction of piston thrust

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102
Q

Readings shall be taken on newly installed engine every ___ mins?

A

Every 15 minutes

NSTM ch. 233

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103
Q

Who do you notify when excess property is found on count?

A

Research/Adjustment Analyst (RA) or Physical Inventory Control Officer (PICO)

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104
Q

When do you apply the brake on a F/O purifier?

A

Only in an emergency

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105
Q

If a boat is NMCM and needs a part, the unit or station must change the status in the Asset Status Summary to what?

A

NMCS (Not mission capable supply)

The parts are on supply and need to get from somewhere

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106
Q

What system does a unit use to track the Depot Maintenance, work request?

A

AMMIS

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107
Q

What chapter in a tag out log contains inactive tag out sheets?

A

Enclosure 1

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108
Q

Missing lug nut on a 26’ trailer is what kind of discrepancy?

A

Restrictive

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109
Q

The amplification set is mandatory on a CASREP after any data set containing an entry of ____?

A

Other, technical, None

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110
Q

Who can sign off to place and remove tags?

A

Authorizing Officer

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111
Q

What PSI is considered low pressure air?

A

150 psi and below

112
Q

What PSI is considered medium pressure air?

A

Between 151 psi - 1,000 psi

113
Q

What PSI is considered high pressure air?

A

1,000 PSI or more

114
Q

What percent do you test an air receiver to?

A

135% of the systems designed pressure

115
Q

How do you install a gate valve? Open or Closed?

A

Open

116
Q

R/O dumps overboard at what PPM?

A

500 ppm

117
Q

Two types of pneumatic clutches used in the CG?

A

Witchita/Eaton Disc Type Clutches and Eaton Air Flex Drum type clutches

118
Q

How does a twin disc clutch maintain pressure?

A

Springs, controllled oil or air witchita disc type utilize ship service air to inflate a bladder that pushes the clutch and friction plates together for positive engagement.

119
Q

Indication of unseated rings on a piston?

A

Shiny, dull, dark (insufficently seated rings will have a dull appearance and may have dark spots caused by blow-by)

120
Q

While changing lower unit oil on a honda outboard, what do FINE metal filings on the drain plug indicate?

A

Normal gear wear

121
Q

What risk if any are there to running an engine at full load after new rings or liners are installed?

A

Galling, pistons, scoring liners, or even piston seizure

122
Q

Who submits the property report to the PICO during a property inventory?

A

Research Analyst

123
Q

If you have a bearing failure in a centrifugal pump with excessive vibration, what is the likely cause?

A

Misalignment, bent shaft, foreign matter in the impeller, speed to high, quantity of air, pump cavitation, dirt in bearings, bearing rusted, excessive bearing temp, packing glad too tight, rotor out of balance.

124
Q

What are the 4 parts of a turbine?

A
  • Compressor
  • Combustor
  • Turbine
  • Auxillary
125
Q

What is 1/8” converted to decimals?

A

0.125”

126
Q

Lockout/Tagout plus procedures do not apply to what?

A
  • Work on cord and plug connected machinery equipment, or systems.
  • Minor servicing activities performed during normal operations that are routine, and integral to the use of the machinery.
127
Q

To identify a lock for lockout/tagout you do what with the tag?

A

Attach a danger tag to the lock

128
Q

Energy-isolating device without built in locking provisions can be effectively locked using what?

A

Hardware such as chains, cans for valves, or immobilizing clips for switch and circuit breaker handles

129
Q

If an energy isolating device cannot be used, use what?

A

use a tags-plus system to prevent energization

130
Q

What is an energy isolating device?

A

a mechanical device that physically prevents the transmission or release of energy.

131
Q

A tags-plus system consists of two main components, which are?

A
  • At least one energy isolating device at each source of energy with a danger tag attached to it.
  • at least one additional safety measure at each source of energy
132
Q

Who is the primary authorized employee?

A

The employee responsible for overall coordination of servicing or maintenance operations.

133
Q

Who is the authorizing officer?

A

The person who supervises the lockout/tagout and is granted authority to issue or remove locks or tags. Authorized by OIC

134
Q

When is double barrier protection needed?

A
  • Sea connected systems, when waterborne
  • Systems with normal operating pressure over 1,000 psig
  • Systems with normal operating temps above 200 degrees (aux steam)
  • Systems containing fluid with a flash point below 200 degrees (typically diesel)
  • Systems where valve seat tightness is know or suspected to be poor. (throttling valves)
135
Q

On double barrier protection for lockout/tagout whose authorization must you have before

A

The officer in ch

136
Q

On double barrier protection for lockout/tagout whose authorization must you have before

A

The officer in charge

137
Q

Who attaches each lock so it holds the device in a safe or off position?

A

The Authorized Employee

138
Q

If a tag cannot be placed directly on the device where do you place a tag?

A

As close to the device as possible in a safe and immediately obvious position

139
Q

What can significantly reduce the number of locks and danger tags required to completely isolate machinery?

A

Careful Planning

140
Q

Tagout/Lockout before performing service or maintenance the authorized employee should do what?

A
  • Ensure equipment is actually de-energized

- all energy sources are isolated

141
Q

When removing lockout/tagout plus system the authorized employee should do what?

A

Ensure each lock or tags plus system is removed by the authorized employee who initially applied it.

142
Q

What is section 1 of the lockout/tagout log?

A

TTP Lockout Tagout Plus Tactics and any amplifying instruction for administering the process

143
Q

What is section 2 of the lockout/tagout

A

Copy of Authorizing Officer Memorandums of designation

144
Q

What is section 3 of the lockout/tagout?

A

Lockout/tagout index and record of audit sheets

145
Q

What is section 4 of the lockout/tagout?

A

Active lockout/tag out sheets

146
Q

What is section 5 of the lockout/tagout?

A

Cleared lockout/tagout sheets

147
Q

What is section 6 of the lockout/tagout?

A

Spare Index and record sheets

148
Q

How many sections are there in the lockout/tagout plus log?

A

6 Sections

149
Q

When is an audit done on lockout/tagout to be conducted?

A

Every 2 weeks

150
Q

How long are you required to maintain index and record of all audit sheets?

A

For a full fiscal year, after that they can be destroyed

151
Q

For PMS/Lockout tags what must you do to them?

A
  • laminate them
  • mark tags PMS ONLY
  • Serialize each tag by dept
  • Complete system/component id block
  • Complete position or condition of tag
152
Q

What kind of locks can be used with lockout/tagout?

A

Either key or Combo type lock

153
Q

What is the description of the danger tags?

A

U.S. Navy type replacing the string with 5/32 inch wide nylon string

154
Q

What should you use a caution tag for?

A

provide temporary special instructions or to indicate an unusual action needed to operate equipment.

155
Q

What should you have on a caution tag?

A

State specific reasons the tag is installed.

156
Q

What training is needed for lockout/tagout and should be recorded?

A

At a minimum record the service members name, date of training, and subject of training in training record.

157
Q

Incident investigation on lockout/tagout requirements

A
  • Initiate the incident investigation no later than 24 hours following the incident
  • notify each person who was or could reasonably have been affected by the incident
158
Q

Where do you report any mishap when it happens with a lockout/tagout?

A

E-MisReps the Coast Guard Electronic Mishap Reporting Sytem

159
Q

How long do you have after the incident investigation and written report are completed and all corrective actions implemented?

A

Within 30 days following the incident

160
Q

In the R/O process, the process fluid passes over the membrane, what % passes directly through it?

A

20%-30%

161
Q

A pressure of ____ is required to obtain an acceptable flow of water through the membrane

A

700-1000 psi

162
Q

What are the two main types of membranes elements?

A
  • Hollow Fiber

- Spiral Wound

163
Q

What is the standard membrane material?

A

Polymide

164
Q

What are the two primary performance characteristics of RO membranes?

A
  • Salt Rejection

- Water Flux

165
Q

A temperature rise in an RO of 2 degrees will increase product rate by approx ____?

A

3%

166
Q

The osomotic pressure in an RO of seawater is approximately what?

A

350 psi

167
Q

The effective driving force of a system operated at 800 psi would be what?

A

450 psi

168
Q

The percentage of feed recovered as product is?

A

Recovery Ratio

169
Q

A new RO membrane normally rejects how many of the dissolved solids?

A

99%

170
Q

In the RO unit, the seawater is first cleansed of the larger and heavier suspended particles by what?

A

Cyclone Separator

171
Q

In the RO unit the cyclone separator removes most particles larger than what?

A

75 microns

172
Q

In the RO system, control by the brine restor valve is what?

A

Manual

173
Q

In an RO system a thermostatically controlled heater maintains a feed temperature above what?

A

35 degrees

174
Q

In an RO, after the heater, the feed next enters the what?

A

Centrifugal Separator

175
Q

In an RO from the centrifugal separator the feed then flows through the what?

A

Three way feed selector valve

176
Q

After the selector valve in an RO system, the feed enters the cartridge filters of what?

A

20 & 3 microns

177
Q

in an RO the cleaned feed then enters the what which increases the pressure to approximately what?

A
  • High Pressure Pump

- 800 psi

178
Q

After passing through the RO modules over the membranes, it becomes more concentrated as a portion of it permeates through the membranes as what?

A

Fresh Water

179
Q

After the remaining brine is discharged from the RO module, it flows through the parrallel path of the what?

A

Brine Restrictor Valve

180
Q

Finally the brine flows through the what to the overboard discharge?

A

Brine Flowmeter

181
Q

The permeate passes by the conductivity cell which measures what in an RO system?

A

Salinity

182
Q

In an RO the permeate flows through the permeate flowmeter and to the what?

A

Three way dump valve

183
Q

Permeate that is what is automatically dumped to the bilge?

A

Greater than 1,000 microns

184
Q

Acceptable permeate in an RO is diverted to the what to register production?

A

Totalizing flowmeter

185
Q

In an RO the centrifugal separator is designed to remove what percentage of separable solids ___ and larger?

A

98% and 200 mesh ( 70 Microns)

186
Q

In an RO usually a centrifugal pump rated for the design flow at a pressure of what will meet the need for a feed booster pump.

A

50 psi

187
Q

The High pressure pump will increase the pressure to what in an RO?

A

700 to 1,000 psi

188
Q

What pumps are ideal for RO service?

A

Positive Displacement

189
Q

What monitors both the brine and the permeate leaving the RO module?

A

The flow meter

190
Q

In an RO improper operation in the pressure relief valve can be detected by what?

A
  • Temp change in the ro discharge piping

- Flow noise or vibration

191
Q

Capacity of the RO unit and product purity or total dissolved solids, are affected by what?

A
  • Salt Concentration
  • Seawater Temp
  • Feed Pressure
192
Q

Permeate production changes at the rate of what for each degree fahrenheit?

A

1%

193
Q

In an RO the product rate is directly proportional to the what?

A

Pressure drop across the membrane

194
Q

Normal Membrane Life in an RO is what?

A

3 years

195
Q

In an RO saline solution with a concentration of dissolved solids exceeding that of seawater (35,000 ppm)

A

Brine

196
Q

In an RO a PH of 07 represents what?

A

Relative Acidity

197
Q

In an RO a PH of 7 means what?

A

Neutral

198
Q

In an RO system a PH of 7 - 14 means what?

A

Relative Alkalinity

199
Q

In an RO water having more than 1000 ppm dissolved salts is what?

A

Saline Water

200
Q

A thrust bearing provides support for what type of movement?

A

Axial (Longitudinal)

201
Q

What types of gears are used in reduction gears?

A

Helical

202
Q

When changing the water pump on a honda 225, where is triple guard grease applied?

A
  • Flat area of the drive shaft
  • drive shaft splines
  • outer surface of exhaust housing seal
203
Q

If you have a bearing failure in a centrifugal pump with excessive vibration what is likely the cause?

A

Alignment issues

204
Q

Where do you take measurements when using plastigage?

A

In the center and the widest area

205
Q

What causes black or grey smoke?

A

Overloading or insufficient burned fuel

206
Q

If you have jacket water in your lube oil what could be a cause?

A

Worn cylinder liner O-rings

207
Q

On a Honda what RPM does the engine reduce to in the event of loss of lube oil pressure?

A

1800 rpm

208
Q

What is the flashpoint of F-76?

A

140 degrees

209
Q

What coolant is used in a keel cooler and all boats great than or equal to 65 feet in length?

A

Antifreeze

210
Q

What type of O-Ring should you use in a petroleum system?

A

Nitrile

211
Q

What is a common cause of vibration and shaft/bearing damage?

A

Misalignment

212
Q

Can you rotate the shaft with an inflatable seal?

A

No, cannot rotate

213
Q

How far do you rotate the shaft when using plastigage?

A

Do not rotate the shaft

214
Q

What causes lube oil fog to enter an engine room from a reduction gear?

A

Precipitator not working

215
Q

On a honda 225/150 at what rpm does the vtec switch from the low speed cam to the high speed cam?

A

4300 rpm

216
Q

All equipment with defined oil changes of ____ hours shall not be required to undergo routine sampling.

A

750 hours

217
Q

On a honda 225/150 what does the vtec control?

A

Intake

218
Q

On a honda 225/150 what rpm does the vtec DISENGAGE?

A

4100 rpm

219
Q

What condition must a cutter be in for final shaft adjustments?

A

In the water, normal loading conditions

220
Q

What is the best and modern method for aligning shafts?

A

Laser/optical

221
Q

What does DEMPS stand for?

A

Diesel Engine Maintenance Program

222
Q

What is used to keep hydraulic equipment cooled when no load is present?

A

Heat Exchanger

223
Q

When you double the diameter of a hydraulic hose what happens to the cross section?

A

Quadruples

224
Q

What does Beta 5-10 mean for a filter?

A

90% of particles that are 5 microns or larger will be stopped by the filter

225
Q

With regards to flange shielding on a lube oil or hydraulic system, what is considered a hot surface?

A

The hot surface is 650 degrees

226
Q

How long should a tank of gas on a P-6 last?

A

4-5 hours

227
Q

Disadvantages of a centrifugal pump?

A
  • Poor suction lift

- must be primed

228
Q

Rated output and lift of a P-6?

A

250 gpm at 12 ft suction lift

229
Q

Service life of hoses?

A

8 years

230
Q

SHELF life of hoses?

A

10 years

231
Q

How should you test hoses in the CG?

A

Test it TWICE the rated working pressure for 5 mins

232
Q

Rated suction lift for a P-100?

A

20 ft.

233
Q

How is the P-100 cooled?

A

Air Cooled

234
Q

P-100 hose size?

A

3inch 20 ft long

235
Q

Discharge rate and pressure of P-100?

A

100 gpm @ 83 psi

236
Q

Fuel type for P-100?

A

F-76 (diesel) or JP5

237
Q

How many minutes before you shut off the P-100 pump if it is not priming?

A

2 minutes

238
Q

Drip rate of the P-100?

A

5-60 drips per minute

239
Q

P-100 fuel tank size and how long can it run for?

A

1.45 gallons, 2.75 hours of operation

240
Q

Wet weight of p-100?

A

164 lbs

241
Q

Dry weight of P-100?

A

106.9 lbs

242
Q

What is the P-100 high lift situations rating? GPM for What PSI?

A

68 gpm @ 45 psi with 39ft lift

243
Q

P-100 engine make and description

A
  • Yanmar,
  • air cooled
  • single cylinder
  • four cycle
  • rated at 10hp
244
Q

P-100 oil capacity

A

1.65 lube oil capacity

245
Q

What are the two type of gate valves?

A

Rising stem and non rising stem

246
Q

When testing a pyrometer you read 0 ohms, what does that tell?

A

The sensor is good/closed

247
Q

What is a disadvantage of a centrifugal pump?

A

Suction lift

248
Q

At a modernized unit, where is your boat inspection report recorded?

A

the EAL (electronic asset logbook)

249
Q

How many chapters are in the casualty control manual?

A

4 Chapters

250
Q

What does SWBS 100 refer to?

A

Hull Structure

251
Q

What is the serial # of the 3rd casrep in 2009?

A

2009003

252
Q

How often do you audit a tag out log?

A

Every 2 weeks

253
Q

What is considered Bi Level maintenace?

A

Organizational and Depot Maintenance

254
Q

How many numbers are in a NIIN?

A

9

255
Q

How many numbers in an NSN?

A

13

256
Q

Remarks section has how many lines?

A

100 lines

257
Q

The hose log database includes hoses as well as ____?

A

Expansion Joints

258
Q

3 levels of tri level maintenance?

A
  • Organizational
  • Intermediate
  • Depot
259
Q

How many hours to submit a CASREP?

A

24 hours

260
Q

Cutter engineering report is due when?

A

31st December NLT 31st Jan

261
Q

Chapter 1 of Casualty Control Manual?

A

Chapter 1 - Machinery Readiness

262
Q

What is Chapter 2 of the Casualty Control Manual?

A

Ch. 2 - Engineering Casualties

263
Q

What is Chapter 3 in the Casualty Control Manual?

A

Ch. 3 General Emergencies

264
Q

What is Chapter 4 of the Casualty Control Manual?

A

Ch. 4 - Damage Control

265
Q

SWBS Ch. 200?

A

Machinery

266
Q

SWBS Ch. 300

A

Electrical

267
Q

SWBS Ch. 505?

A

Piping

268
Q

SWBS Ch. 530?

A

Potable Water

269
Q

SWBS Ch. 540?

A

Gasoline Stowage

270
Q

SWBS ch. 555?

A

Firefighting

271
Q

SWBS Ch. 556

A

Hydraulics

272
Q

Tech pub for Navy Oil Analysis Program (NOAP)

A

OPNAVINST 4731.1 and NAVAIR 17-15-50

273
Q

CASREP Tech Pub?

A

COMDINST M3501.F

274
Q

NEM Tech Pub?

A

COMDINST M9000.6F

275
Q

What code should you use on a SSMR for a shore station maintenance project that is to be accomplished as part of a normal back log?

A

Priority 3

276
Q

What NSTM Ch. Covers Jacket Water?

A

NSTM Ch. 233 (ICE)

277
Q

What manual/NSTM gives the address to NOAP to send oil samples?

A

NEM COMDTINST M9000.6F

MK1 (11 decks)

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