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EPME Flashcards

1
Q

Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be
sent to?

A

Your local Education Services Officer (ESO)

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2
Q

Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?

A

-Education, Credentialing, and Advisors.

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3
Q

Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?

A

-Coast Guard Voluntary Credentialing Program (VCP), COMDTINST 1540.10

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4
Q

Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?

A

-ETQC

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5
Q

Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT Waiver Request Guide be found?

A

volED Service Page under Course Support & Testing

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6
Q

The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the _____.

A

-Forever GI Bill

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7
Q

Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DoD’s Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an _____ with dependents.

A

E5

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8
Q

The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to _____ months of education benefits

A

36

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9
Q

The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?

A

Schools, Employers, and VET TEC schools

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10
Q

Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & _______ Training programs may use their GI Bill benefits to receive 80% of the applicable Monthly Housing Stipend.

A

Apprenticeship

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11
Q

In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized for?

A

TA is authorized for courses leading to the first certificate, Associate, Bachelor, And Masters degree.

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12
Q

One purpose of the _____ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.

A

-Advanced Education Program

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13
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the Advanced Education program?

A

a. Apply to Advanced Education Program Manager approved educational institution(s) (Note: Only schools with a DoD MOU will be acceptable). b. Gain acceptance to the educational institution and the specific degree program. c. Complete necessary prerequisites and route forms. d. Act as Coast Guard liaison to the institution with regard to their attendance. e. Liaise with the educational institution’s Military Advocate. f. Monitor and comply with fiscal requirements. g. Carry a full credit hour load, year round, at the respective educational institution. h. Maintain academic proficiency throughout the program. i. Complete program of study’s requirements in the allotted time. j. Maintain Military/Coast Guard requirements and standards

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14
Q

Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?

A

-ESO

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15
Q

Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?

A

-Treat all firearms as if they are loaded, Always maintain proper muzzle control, Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot, Know your target and what’s beyond it.

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16
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?

A

Six months in pay grade E-2 or satisfactory completion of Class “A” course

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17
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?

A

Six months in pay grade E-3 & satisfactory completion of Class “A” course

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18
Q

The _____ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery of tests.

A

AFCT (Armed Forces Classification Test)

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19
Q

Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?

A

-6 months

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20
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?

A

Diver

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21
Q

Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?

A

-Enclosure 3 Rating Requirements Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

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22
Q

Where are “A” school rating requirements listed?

A

-Enclosure 3 Performance, Training, and Education Manual, COMDTINST M1500.10 (series)

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23
Q

Which stress management term is defined as “Bad” stress?

A

-Distress

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24
Q

“Good” stress is related to which stress management term?

A

Eustress

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25
Q

Which term is defined as “the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor”?

A

Stress

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26
Q

What are stressors?

A

The causes of stress (transfers, deadlines, etc.)

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27
Q

What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load?

A

Stressmap

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28
Q

Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as

A
  • The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.)
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29
Q

The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.

A
  • CG SUPRT program
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30
Q

Operational Stress Control gives _______ and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands?

A

awareness

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31
Q

How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?

A
  • the Health Promotion Manager on your Regional Work-Life Staff, or need additional assistance beyond the information provided here, please contact the Headquarters Health Promotions Program Manager, Tim Merrell at (202) 475-5146, fax (202) 475-5907, or email at Timothy.M.Merrell@uscg.mil.
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32
Q

Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?

A

-Active Duty members and their dependents,Reservists,Civilian Employees of the Coast Guard

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33
Q

Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.

A

Emotional, Cognitive, Behavioral, Physiological, Spiritual

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34
Q

The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?

A

Keep a journal.

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35
Q

The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?

A

Download an app that provides relaxation exercises (such as deep breathing or visualization) or tips for practicing mindfulness, which is a psychological process of actively paying attention to the present moment.

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36
Q

The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?

A

Exercise, and make sure you are eating healthy, regular meals.

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37
Q

The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?

A

Stick to a sleep routine, and make sure you are getting enough sleep.

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38
Q

The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?

A

Avoid drinking excess caffeine such as soft drinks or coffee.

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39
Q

The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?

A

Identify and challenge your negative and unhelpful thoughts.

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40
Q

The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?

A

Reach out to your friends or family members who help you cope in a positive way.

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41
Q

Which of the following does the National Institute of Mental Health recommend to manage stress?

A

Recognize When You Need More Help?

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42
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A

This guidance provides commands and individuals with substance abuse prevention training and implementation strategies to prevent substance misuse and abuse.

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43
Q

The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that “zero” drinks is the low risk option when _____.

A

one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications

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44
Q

Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?

A

0,1,2,3 model

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45
Q

Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?

A

Rethinking Drinking Homepage - NIAAA (nih.gov)

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46
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A
  1. Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues. Help each member and command understand how to approach and handle substance misuse, abuse, and chemical dependence, which are referred to as SUDs.
  2. Encourage, Teach, and Support Low-Risk Guidelines for Alcohol Use. The SAP Program adopted a risk management model for alcohol consumption. NIAAA established low-risk drinking guidelines. Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use as defined by Commandant (CG-1111) include the 0,1,2,3 model. These guidelines suggest:
    a. There are occasions where “zero” drinks is the low-risk option; such as, when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications;

b. Consuming no more than one “standard alcoholic beverage” per hour;
c. Consuming two standard drinks per occasion and never to exceed three; Note: the CG is aware of the complexities, intricacies, and delicate nuances related to education, socio-economic influences, gender, and ethnicity issues as they relate to drinking guidelines both nationally and internationally. Therefore, the CG uses a gender-neutral set of low-risk drinking guidelines: 0,1,2,3. Gender guidelines have been established by the NIAAA because males and females process alcohol differently. Citations are included in this section to clarify the physiological and absorption differences for males and females. For further clarification, please see: https://www.rethinkingdrinking.niaaa.nih.gov/. COMDTINST M6320.5 1-3
d. Check with a Health Care Provider (HCPs) to ensure it is safe to consume alcohol with prescribed medication or diagnosed medical condition; and
e. Avoid any activity requiring strict focus and attention or coordination and balance, such as, cleaning a weapon, climbing a ladder, or operating machinery when consuming any amount of alcohol.
3. Provide Periodic Prevention Training. Provide members, cadets, recruits, and commands with prevention training, early problem identification skills, and resources for screening and treatment.
4. Support Commands. Assist commands by providing the tools and procedures to address irresponsible alcohol use.
5. Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse. Support zero tolerance for the intentional and wrongful use of illegal drugs and the wrongful misuse of prescription medication. This also pertains to the wrongful use of any non-controlled substance used with the intent to induce intoxication, excitement, or impairment of the central nervous system. This will also pertain to “substances” used for the purposes of obtaining a “high,” which includes but is not limited to, herbals, gases, aerosols, and manufactured or yet-to-be manufactured designer drugs, such as, spice, bath salts, etc.
6. Support Mission Readiness. Ensure that members are aware of how SUDs interfere with CG mission readiness and a safe work environment.
7. Align with Other Policy. Administrative concerns are directed to Reference (a).

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47
Q

What is one responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative (CDAR)?

A

Unit members who serve as an advisor to their command in administering the unit’s substance abuse program. CDAR is a collateral duty and is administrative and educational in nature. Each CDAR must:

a. Contact the SAPS within 24 hours of Commanding Officer notification of a potential substance-related issue;
b. Collaborate with the SAPS to provide administrative support to the command regarding prevention strategies and treatment options;
c. Collaborate with the SAPS to prepare the appropriate Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307;
d. Schedule and document required unit substance abuse prevention training, as needed, and in accordance with directions provided by SAPS;
e. Prepare and prominently display prevention awareness materials;
f. Collaborate with the SAPS to initiate substance abuse screenings, referrals, treatment, aftercare, and support plans. NOTE: Never diagnose or infer a diagnosis; failure to comply will result in removal from position and may lead to further administrative action;
g. Ensure that all documentation is complete before arranging treatment or training via the SAPS;
h. Keep the command informed of the status of members undergoing treatment, including expected date of completion and/or return, prognosis, and personal needs (e.g., pay, orders, etc.);
i. Collaborate with the SAPS to develop support and aftercare plans;
j. Monitor mandatory pre-treatment and aftercare plans with the Commanding Officer; COMDTINST M6320.5 2-7
k. Provide updates to the SAPS for all members who are: (1) Assigned an aftercare plan; and (2) Transferred or separated from service while in aftercare.
l. Provide copies of all documentation to the receiving command when members on an aftercare plan are transferring;
m. Complete annual HIPAA training related to substance abuse patient records;
n. Provide Substance Abuse Prevention Training minimally one time per year, especially during “Alcohol Awareness Month;” and
o. Enact and annually review with the unit “Seven Steps to an Effective Command Prevention Program.”

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48
Q

What is Substance Abuse Prime for Life training used for?

A

An evidence-based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misusing alcohol.

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49
Q

One intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program is to _____.

A

a. Provide direction, oversight, and supervision of SAPSs;
b. Advise commands on the availability of education, treatment, rehabilitation resources, and procedures to obtain them;
c. Process all requests—self, command, and incident referrals for alcohol/drug rehabilitation;
d. Approve selection of the medical screening provider;
e. Oversee implementation and maintenance of support and aftercare plans;
f. Liaison with unit commanding officers, other military services, state and federal programs, and local civilian treatment facilities, as appropriate;
g. Establish, track, and maintain Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS) for SAPS;
h. Complete annual Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) training related to substance abuse patient records;
i. Ensure SAPSs complete annual HIPAA training;
j. Participate in Headquarters-sponsored teleconferences, meetings, and workgroups related to the SAP Program;
k. Assign each SAPS an area of responsibility (District) with oversight for CDARs assigned to that area of responsibility (AOR);
l. Supervise field operation of the electronic data collection system as designated by Commandant (CG-1111);
m. Provide quality assurance standards and oversight to the SAPSs to include accurate and timely documentation of cases in the electronic data collection system; COMDTINST M6320.5 2-3
n. Oversee SAPSs compliance with all applicable policies and procedures and related competencies;
o. Establish and maintain collaborative and effective communication pathways with the SAPM, SAPS, and other field components;
p. Inform the SAPM of all issues affecting program implementation and/or effectiveness that require Commandant (CG-1111) visibility, guidance, and/or intervention;
q. Produce reports for Commandant (CG-1111), as directed; and
r. Advocate for the needs of the SAPSs and the SAP Program.

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50
Q

What is the definition of substance abuse?

A

The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member’s safety at risk.

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51
Q

What is considered substance abuse?

A

the abuse or dependence on alcohol or drugs

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52
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual’s BAC increases, the risk of _____ increases.

A

Injury

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53
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), drinking too much over time can raise your risk for _____, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses

A

High Blood Pressure

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54
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than _____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.

A

95000

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55
Q

Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____

A

AUD Alcohol use disorder

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56
Q

What is considered binge drinking for men

A

5 drinks or more in about 2 hours

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57
Q

What is considered binge drinking for women?

A

4 drinks or more in two hours

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58
Q

Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?

A

.08 or higher

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59
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?

A

.08

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60
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being “sloppy” drunk?

A

.16

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61
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?

A

.30

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62
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?

A

.40

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63
Q

A sign of alcohol poisoning is _____.

A

 Passes out and cannot be awakened  Vomiting while passed out  Has cold, clammy, and/or pale skin  Breathing is slow and irregular

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64
Q

Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience _____.

A

risk, including:  Risk of brain development problems.  More binge-drinking episodes.  Increased risk of sexual assault.

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65
Q

Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?

A

Women have increased susceptibility to short- and long-term alcohol-related consequences, including liver disease, cardiovascular disease, neurotoxicity, and alcohol-related memory blackouts, compared to men. One reason for this is that alcohol resides predominantly in body water, and pound for pound, women have less water in their bodies than men. This means that after a woman and a man of the same weight drink the same amount of alcohol, the woman’s BAC will tend to be higher, putting her at greater risk for harm.

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66
Q

What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?

A

1.5 onces

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67
Q

How many grams of pure alcohol is in a “standard” drink?

A

14 grams

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68
Q

How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?

A

5 ounces

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69
Q

How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?

A

12 ounces

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70
Q

Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 oz. of 40% alcohol over one hour?

A

.09

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71
Q

Across the United States, a recorded Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) test of _____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.

A

.08

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72
Q

A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.

A

AUD

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73
Q

A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment

A

180 days

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74
Q

Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?

A

Initiated by the member to receive appropriate screening and referral treatment if necessary. (1) A request must be made to a Chaplain, Command, CDAR, SAPS, or health care provider. (2) There can be no credible evidence of involvement in an alcohol/drug incident. (3) Members may self-refer for drug abuse; however, self-referral may result in a drug incident determination and administrative actions in accordance with Reference (a). (4) A self-referral for alcohol related issues is not to be punitive.

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75
Q

Which statement reflects Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse?

A

Use of tobacco products is prohibited by law for all members under the age established by the state the member is currently in. b. It is the intent of the Commandant to create and maintain a nicotine-free environment throughout the entire CG workplace. To this end, “tobacco use” is prohibited in the workplace in order to protect the health of all persons, including nicotine users, from contact with tobacco or nicotine products. For purposes of this policy, the term “workplace” includes any area inside a building or facility, over which the CG has custody and control, where work is performed by military personnel, civilian employees, or personnel under contract to the CG

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76
Q

No ______ prescription (within six months) or verified medical use explanation for a drug(s) that would account for the positive urinalysis result would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?

A

current

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77
Q

Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?

A

Prohibit substance abuse and limit use of substances to the lawful use of alcohol or medical provider-prescribed medication. This encompasses, but is not limited to, the inhalation, injection, consumption, or introduction to the body of any mood altering substance or compound, including:

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78
Q

Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?

A

Any of the following conduct constitutes a drug incident as determined by the CO/OIC: 1. Intentional use of drugs for non-medical purposes; 2. Wrongful possession of drugs; 3. Trafficking of drugs–distributing, importing, exporting, or introducing to a military facility; 4. The intentional use of other substances, such as inhalants, glue, cleaning agents, or overthe-counter (OTC), or prescription medications to obtain a “high,” contrary to their intended use; or 5. A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possession, or trafficking of drugs, unless rebutted by other evidence (note the member need not be found guilty at court-martial, in civilian court, or be awarded non-judicial punishment for the conduct to be considered a drug incident). 6. However, if the conduct occurs without the member’s knowledge, awareness, or reasonable suspicion or is medically authorized, it does not constitute a drug incident

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79
Q

Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and_____.

A

scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs.

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80
Q

Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?

A

Administrative Action. The command must process the military member for separation by reason of misconduct per Reference (b), Military Separations, COMDTINST M1000.4 (series), as appropriate. Cases requiring Administrative Discharge Boards because of the character of discharge contemplated or because the member has served eight or more total years, must also be processed per Military Separations, COMDTINST M1000.4 (series), as appropriate. b. Disciplinary Action. Military members who commit drug offenses are subject to disciplinary action under the UCMJ in addition to any required administrative discharge action. c. Medical Treatment Eligibility. Military members who are identified as drugdependent or diagnosed with a “drug use disorder-severe,” must be offered treatment prior to discharge. Reference (a), Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual, COMDTINST M6320.5 (series), outlines substance abuse medical referrals, screenings, and action policy. If it is determined that treatment is needed and accepted, the member must be discharged from the Service upon completion. Members who are diagnosed as drug/chemical dependent but refuse treatment are required to sign an Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307, entry acknowledging that they may waive the right to benefits for chemical dependency treatment under the Department of Veterans Affairs

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81
Q

Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?

A

Suicide. Self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die

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82
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?

A

Self-Harm. A self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself (i.e., had no intent to die). Persons engage in self-harm behaviors when they wish to use the appearance of intending to kill themselves in order to attain some other end (e.g., to seek help, to punish others, to receive attention, or to regulate negative mood). Self-harm may result in no injuries or injuries, or death. For reporting purposes Self Harm Level 1 = no injury, Self Harm Level 2 = injury, and Self Harm Level 3 = death.

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83
Q

Suicide Threat is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct _______ ______ component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?

A

self-injurious

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84
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?

A

Suicide Attempt

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85
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.

A

Self-Harm Level 1

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86
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.

A

Self-Harm Level 2

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87
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.

A

Self-Harm Level 3

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88
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.

A

Suicide Attempt Level 2

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89
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.

A

Suicide Attempt Level 1

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90
Q

Suicide Ideations is defined as any self-reported _______ of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?

A

thoughts

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91
Q

Undetermined self harm is defined as a self-inflicted _______ injurious behavior where intent is unknown?

A

potentially

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92
Q

Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.

A

Suicidal Ideations

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93
Q

In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.

A

Suicidal Thinking

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94
Q

Suicide-Related Communications are any ________ acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury.

A

interpersonal

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95
Q

Suicide Plan is a suicide-related communication that is a proposed method of carrying out a ______ that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior.

A

design

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96
Q

Which mnemonic is for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?

A

“Is Path Warm” is the mnemonic
I – Ideation
S - ubstance Abuse

P- Purposelessness
A – Anxiety
T – Trapped
H – Hopelessness

W – Withdrawl
A – Anger
R – Recklessness
M – Mood Changes

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97
Q

ASKing is not an easy thing to do, but it is ______ for suicide prevention.

A

essential

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98
Q

What may be helpful to lead into the question “Are you thinking about killing yourself?”

A

It may be helpful to lead into this question with a statement of your observations:

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99
Q

What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?

A

A.C.E - Ask – Care - Escort

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100
Q

During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?

A

During the ASK part of suicide prevention, the person may joke to deflect the question, hang in there and ask it again.

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101
Q

During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.

A

During the CARE step you should be willing to actively listen.

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102
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?

A

During The CARE step of ACE

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103
Q

During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?

A

During The CARE Step of ACE

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104
Q

In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?

A

During The CARE Step of ACE

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105
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?

A

During The CARE Step of ACE

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106
Q

You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?

A

During The CARE Step of ACE

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107
Q

During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?

A

During The ESCORT Step of ACE

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108
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?

A

During The ESCORT Step of ACE

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109
Q

If you ask a person “Are you thinking about killing yourself?” and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?

A

If the person attempts to make a joke of the question or gives other indications of attempting to deflect the question, hang in there and ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious. Be aware you may be “tested” in this way and that the person may want some indication of your sincerity before opening up. It is as if they want assurances you can handle the truth; that you won’t “feed in” by responding in kind by their effort to change the subject. This is a critical juncture in the conversation.

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110
Q

If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?

A

(a) How? - Does he/she have a plan? Is the plan specific? Does he/she possess the means (pills, gun, etc.)? Are the means lethal? If there is a plan, does the person express or imply an intention to actually go through with it?
(b) Situation? - Is he/she alone (if communication is by phone or e-mail)? Have they been drinking?
(c) History? - Prior attempts? Hospitalizations? Any family history of suicidal behaviors?

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111
Q

Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?

A

Regional Work-Life Office

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112
Q

Which form of birth control is both reversible and can be used as emergency contraception?

A

Copper IUD—Women can have the copper T IUD inserted within five days of unprotected sex

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113
Q

Which form of birth control is included in tier 1 for effectiveness?

A

Implant, Vasectomy, Tubal occlusion, IUD

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114
Q

STDs can be passed from one person to another _____, though this is not very common.

A

Through intimate physical contact like heavy petting

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115
Q

Most people do not have any symptoms when they have which STD?

A

Human Papillomavirus(HPV)

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116
Q

Which is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?

A

The most reliable way to avoid infection is to not have sex (i.e., anal, vaginal or oral).

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117
Q

Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?

A

All active members and Reservists, including members on Inactive Ready Reserve (IRR) and Active Status List (ASL), that are drilling for points or on active duty orders 31 days or more, must follow the above policy for AD members in Paragraph

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118
Q

Who do your submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?

A

must be submitted to their supervisors in the months of April and October; the most current form must be kept on file or electronically saved by the member and supervisor. In addition, commanding officers/officer-in-charge must provide all AD personnel and reservist on active duty the opportunity to participate in fitness enhancing activities

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119
Q

When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?

A

In the months of April and October

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120
Q

The most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by _____.

A

The most current form must be kept on file or electronically saved by the member and supervisor.

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121
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?

A

Two hours and 30 minutes (150 minutes) of moderate-intensity aerobic activity (e.g., brisk walking) every week.

122
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?

A

Muscle-strengthening activities on two or more days a week that work all major muscle groups (e.g., legs, hips, back, abdomen, chest, shoulders, and arms).

123
Q

All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____ per week.

A

180 minutes per week.

124
Q

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.

A

150 minutes of cardiorespiratory activity

125
Q

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training.

A

30 minutes of strength training

126
Q

Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _____ minutes, in order to be beneficial.

A

10 minutes

127
Q

In general, physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?

A

three days per week

128
Q

Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _____ level of intensity.

A

a medium to vigorous level

129
Q

According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?

A

moderate-intensity aerobic activity

130
Q

What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?

A

CG-6049

131
Q

Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve _____.

A

Risk

132
Q

What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?

A

mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, and assertiveness

133
Q

Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.

A

Increases mission success.

134
Q

The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____.

A

Expected risk exposure.

135
Q

What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?

A

The RM process.

136
Q

What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?

A

GAR 2.0.

137
Q

When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?

A

When hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure.

138
Q

Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _____.

A

Continuous and adaptive.

139
Q

Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?

A

In “Risk Management Fundamentals”.

140
Q

What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?

A

Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM). Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series), Risk Management Fundamentals

141
Q

What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?

A

Crew endurance.

142
Q

Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _____.

A

Address unique operational realities.

143
Q

Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?

A

PEACE and STAAR models.

144
Q

The standard GHS format for a safety data sheet includes _____ sections, in a specified order.

A

16 sections

145
Q

GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of _____.

A

Hazard Information

146
Q

The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of _____, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.

A

New Orleans

147
Q

The _____ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.

A

Coast Guard Stripe

148
Q

What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?

A

15 days

149
Q

Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?

A

1) Two crewmembers going to an occasional movie, dinner, concert, or other social event.
(2) Members jogging or participating in wellness or recreational activities together.

150
Q

What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?

A

Items (not cash) with a total value of $10 or less per occasion.

151
Q

The service stripe is placed at a ______ angle on the SDB jacket.

A

The stripe is placed diagonally at a 45-degree angle with the lower edge of the lowest stripe 2 inches from the cuff

152
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E-7?

A

GOLD

153
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E4?

A

The color of the service stripes for E-4 through E-6 is scarlet for all jackets

154
Q

What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?

A

The Double Windsor tie knot is the only authorized knot. A tie tack or tie clasp may be worn

155
Q

When wearing the women’s overblouse with the Service Dress Blue (SDB), the bottom of the overblouse shall _____.

A

When wearing with the SDB, the bottom of the overblouse shall not be visible under the SDB Coat

156
Q

What does the women’s long sleeve light blue shirt have?

A

Women The short and long sleeve shirt has a fly front covering the button closure (right over left), a soft stand-up collar with stays, two button cuff closure (on long sleeve shirt), shoulder epaulets, a pleated patch pocket with button flap closure on each front panel.

157
Q

What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt?

A

ALTERATIONS: Sleeve of the long sleeve shirt may be shortened. Both the long and short-sleeved versions of the light blue shirt may be altered to provide a better or more athletic fit. No other Alternations are authorized.

158
Q

Commands may prohibit the wear of which type of blue crew neck t-shirt in spaces subject to intense heat or fire?

A

Wicking Polyester versions are prohibited in high heat/fire prone spaces as directed by local commands or other directives.

159
Q

What is required for wear with all uniforms?

A

Undergarments must be worn to preserve the dignity and appearance of the uniform. All personnel will wear undergarments of such color and style as to minimize showing through outer clothing. Undershirts with quarter length sleeves are required for wear with all uniforms. White V-neck undershirt is required for all open-collar uniforms except the Operational Dress Uniform. Blue Crew Neck T-Shirts are required with the ODU. Women must wear an undershirt over the required brassiere.

160
Q

What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform?

A

Women may wear women’s shirt, Overblouse, or men’s shirt.)

161
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform, men are required to wear _____.

A

Short sleeve (Men wear men’s shirt

162
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS), what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks?

A

Oxfords, pumps, or flats are worn with the slacks

163
Q

What head gear is authorized for wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?

A

Combination cap or Garrison cap

164
Q

What is not authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?

A

Ribbons Not Authorized.

165
Q

Oxfords are not authorized _____.

A

Oxfords are NOT authorized when the skirt is worn

166
Q

The women’s shirt and women’s slacks align with the belt so that the _____.

A

so that the tab edge touches the wearer’s RIGHT side of the buckle. Align the left side of the buckle with the opening of the shirt and opening of the fly, forming a straight line.

167
Q

In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the _____.

A

fly

168
Q

Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?

A

Trousers/slacks.

169
Q

What is an authorized color for sunglasses frames?

A

Sunglass frames must be conservative (unadorned black or navy blue material; gold or silver wire)

170
Q

You can wear a maximum of _____ ring(s) per hand.

A

One

171
Q

Which of the following is a prohibited watch color?

A

Prohibited examples include diamond covered, neon, white, and bright colors.

172
Q

Engagement/wedding ring sets or _____ are counted as one ring.

A

Class/wedding ring sets.

173
Q

According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are _____.

A

Watches

174
Q

COMDTINST 1020.6K stipulates that _____ rings are not authorized.

A

thumb

175
Q

Which is correct for the insignia on the garrison cover when worn by an enlisted member?

A

Cap devices are worn on the wearer’s left as follows:
For E-1 through E-3 a miniature version of the Coast Guard medallion, approximately 1 inch in size.
For E-4 through E-6 appropriate collars rate/pay grade insignia.
For E-7 through E-9 and MCPOCG, the garrison cap anchor is approximately 1-3/8 inches high.

176
Q

What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover?

A

For E-7 through E-9 and MCPOCG, the garrison cap anchor is approximately 1-3/8 inches high.

177
Q

While wearing the Light blue shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges & _____.

A

center of device is one (1) inch and parallel from the leading edge.

178
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s left pocket.

A

The “U.S. COAST GUARD” nametape

179
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s right pocket.

A

the wearer’s name

180
Q

While conducting a personnel inspection you notice a member is wearing their ribbons out of order. What reference can you advise them to consult to properly align their awards?

A

Coast Guard Military Medals and Awards Manual COMDTINST M1650.25 (series)

181
Q

Which award has the highest precedence?

A

Medal of Honor

182
Q

Which of the following awards would be excluded if you wanted to wear the highest three?

A 
- Humanitarian Service Medal Ribbon
•Coast Guard Arctic Service Medal Ribbon
•Sea Service Ribbon
•National Defense Service Medal
•Commandant’s Letter of Commendation Ribbon
183
Q

How do you access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)?

A

Access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI) System: http://cgbi.osc.uscg.mil

184
Q

What level of compliance does a yellow color indicator within CGBI indicate?

A

Compliant, approaching limits of standard.

185
Q

What level of compliance does an orange color indicator within CGBI indicate?

A

Non-compliant, corrective action required.

186
Q

What level of compliance does a green color indicator within CGBI indicate?

A

Compliant within standard.

187
Q

_____ are just one of the tools to assure compliance with 29 C.F.R. § 1960, and to keep the workplace free of serious recognized hazards.

A

Unit/Workplace safety and health inspections

188
Q

How do you submit a Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form?

A

The Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form, CG-4903 and instructions are located at http://www.dcms.uscg.mil/Our-Organization/AssistantCommandant-for-C4IT-CG-6/The-Office-of-Information-Management-CG61/Forms-Management/CG-Forms/smdpage4081/7/smdsort4081

189
Q

How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?

A

The reports are retained on file until the deficiencies have been corrected and for at least five years following the end of the calendar year to which they relate.

190
Q

What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all work spaces?

A

conducted at least annually for all workspaces or more frequently at the discretion of the Commanding Officer (CO) or Officer-in-Charge (OIC)

191
Q

The purpose of form CG-4903 is to _____.

A

Report Employee Hazard.

192
Q

A member has requested to be removed voluntarily from the advancement list. Which CG-3307 template would you use?

A

Advancement and Reduction (AR)

193
Q

You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use?

A

Performance, Discipline (PD), and General Counseling.

194
Q

Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?

A

Performance, Discipline (PD), and General Counseling.

195
Q

If a member is not available for signature on a CG-3307, you should _____.

A

If a member is not available for signature, so state, and include the reason(s).

196
Q

What should you do if a member refuses to sign a CG-3307?

A

If a member refuses to acknowledge an entry, refer the matter to the member’s commanding officer.

197
Q

Where are copies of all form CG-3307 sent for electronic imaging into the IPDR?

A

The original is filed in the SPO PDR, and the copy is mailed to Commander, Personnel Service Center (psd-mr) for electronic imaging into the IPDR

198
Q

What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?

A

Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person

199
Q

How many stages are there in conflict?

A

7

200
Q

How many major categories of performance are there in the EES?

A

4 :military, performance, professional qualities, and leadership

201
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?

A

April & October

202
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?

A

March & September

203
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-3 is the last day of which months?

A

February & August

204
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-2 is the last day of which months?

A

January & July

205
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-1 is the last day of which months?

A

January & July

206
Q

Leadership is the ability to influence others to obtain their obedience, respect, _____________, and loyal cooperation.

A

confidence

207
Q

The Coast Guard Leadership Development Framework consists of how many components?

A

Three components.

208
Q

What dependent information in the payslip is important for eligibility to receive benefits?

A

Birth Certificate

209
Q

What information can be found in the tax data section of they payslip?

A

Marital Status
Allowances
Additional Percent

210
Q

You will not render a salute if the person to be saluted does not approach within _____ paces.

A

30 Paces

211
Q

Onboard ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?

A

Except for those rendered the commanding officer, and officers senior to the commanding officer, to visiting officers, to officers making inspections, and to officers when addressinh or being addressed by them.

212
Q

You must render salutes to Officers of the armed forces of the United States, _______ Agents, the Public Health Service and foreign armed services.

A

NOAA

213
Q

If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem and conditions permit, the senior person should _____.

A

Get out and salute.

214
Q

If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem, the driver shall _____.

A

Come to a complete stop

215
Q

When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles?

A

Persons operating a motor vehicle should not render or return salutes. Passengers will render and return salutes.

216
Q

When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall _____.

A

salute when the flag comes within six paces of you and hold the salute until the flag passes six paces beyond you.

217
Q

When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall _____.

A

come to attention, remove your hat (if you’re wearing one), and place your right hand over your heart when the flag is six paces before you; hold until the flag is six paces past you.

218
Q

The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____ articles.

A

7 articles

219
Q

All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in the Code of Conduct _____.

A

While in combat or captivity.

220
Q

Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?

A

BRAVO

221
Q

Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?

A

BRAVO

222
Q

Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?

A

NORMAL

223
Q

Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?

A

ALPHA

224
Q

Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?

A

CHARLIE

225
Q

Boat characteristics include which two types of frames?

A

Transverse and Longitudinal

226
Q

Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?

A

PFB waivers are permanent and do not require renewal upon transfer. If waiver approved, members will not shave any facial hair. Facial hair will be trimmed so as not to exceed 1/4 inch in length.

227
Q

Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?

A

If worn, a moustache must be neatly groomed. • For the purpose of uniformity, Ceremonial Honor Guard members, Coast Guard Academy Cadets, Officer Candidates, and Coast Guard Training Center Cape May recruits will be clean-shaven. • Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth

228
Q

Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosed with Pseudofolliculitis Barbae (PFB)?

A

Commanding officers or Officers-InCharge will grant permanent shaving waivers for personnel who have received a confirmed diagnosis of Pseudo folliculitis barbae (PFB) by a medical doctor providing health care for unit personnel.

229
Q

The USCG celebrates its birthday on _____ of each year.

A

We trace our history to the Revenue Marine and the Revenue Cutter Service and celebrate our birthday on 04 August 1790.

230
Q

The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.

A

10 cutters at a cost of $1,000 each

231
Q

In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?

A

State governments tried to regulate the steam engine but the explosions still occurred. In 1838, Congress created laws to regulate these ships and their crews. This was the birth of the Steamboat Inspection Service. The duties of the Steamboat Inspection Service were to enforce laws pertaining to: crew licensing, vessel documentation, hazardous cargo handling, port and harbor safety, and protection of the marine environment

232
Q

The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _____ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.

A

1831, the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast in search of people in danger. This marked the first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger

233
Q

The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?

A

28 January 1915. This was a very important merger. Congress ordered the Revenue Cutter Service and the Life-Saving Service to become one service. This single service was renamed the United States Coast Guard.

234
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?

A

April 1967

235
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?

A

01 March 2003

236
Q

Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first _____.

A

At the age of 32, George Washington appointed Alexander Hamilton the first Secretary of the Treasury.

237
Q

Who was the Coast Guard’s first aviator?

A

LT Elmer Stone also pioneered Coast Guard aviation search and rescue during World War I.

238
Q

Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?

A

1915, he became the first Commandant of the CG. Bertholf retired as Commandant of the Coast Guard on June 30, 1919 and became a vice-president of the American Bureau of Shipping

239
Q

On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____.

A

On June 19, 1911, Bertholf was named the Captain Commandant of the United States Revenue Cutter Service.

240
Q

Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?

A

For his bravery, SM1 Douglas Munro was posthumously awarded the Medal of Honor. In his memory, a recruit barracks was named after him at USCG TRACEN Cape May

241
Q

Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?

A

Point Cruz, Guadalcanal during WWII

242
Q

What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?

A

USRC HARRIET LANE The US Revenue Cutter HARRIET LANE has three claims to fame: • It was the first successful side-wheel steam cutter. •
In April 1861, it fired the first naval shot of the Civil War while defending Fort Sumpter. • It is the only cutter to fight for both sides of the same war. It started the war fighting for the North, but was captured when her captain was killed in action. It then fought for the South until the end of the War.

243
Q

The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____ during World War I.

A

The USCGC TAMPA was on escort duty between Gibraltar and Britain on September 26, 1918, when a torpedo from a German U-boat hit it. All lives were lost, and only a small amount of wreckage was ever found.

244
Q

An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____ duties for the United States Coast Guard.

A

Captain of the Port: These duties were created during WWI when a major vessel accident occurred in Nova Scotia.

245
Q

Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?

A

These duties were created during WWI

246
Q

Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?

A

These duties were created during WWI

247
Q

During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?

A

only six Coast Guard cutters that actually went overseas during WWI. These cutters performed escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain. It was while on this type of duty that the CGC TAMPA was sunk with loss of all hands.

248
Q

During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?

A

Captain Quentin R. Walsh received the Navy Cross for his heroic action during WWII. LCDR Walsh personally led a 16-member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal, adjacent to a waterfront on the western side of Port of Cherbourg, France.

249
Q

Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day.

A

Captain Quentin R. Walsh received the Navy Cross for his heroic action during WWII. LCDR Walsh personally led a 16-member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal, adjacent to a waterfront on the western side of Port of Cherbourg, France.

250
Q

During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.

A

Operation Market Time: This was the operation in which these patrol boats would patrol the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong. Aids to Navigation (ATON): ATON was a major mission during Vietnam. There were many shallow, inland waterways that did not have reliable aids to navigation. The Coast Guard sent several sea going buoy tenders to establish aids to navigation in support of U.S. forces in the area. These aids included buoys, channel markers, and LORAN stations.

251
Q

During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?

A

26 Point Class patrol boats to Vietnam

252
Q

Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991.

A

Desert Storm The latest Coast Guard involvement in a major conflict was during Desert Shield /Desert Storm, which started on August 1, 1990; when Iraq invaded Kuwait.

253
Q

The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on _____

A

Sept 11 2001

254
Q

n which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina

A

2006

255
Q

The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following

A

9/11/01

256
Q

In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for

A

87 days

257
Q

DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?

A

purple heart

258
Q

Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?

A

DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal

259
Q

How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?

A

26

260
Q

The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.

A

13

261
Q

The _____ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

262
Q

The _____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

263
Q

On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the _____.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

264
Q

During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____.

A

Battle Streamers

265
Q

The design of the _____ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.

A

Coast Guard Standard

266
Q

The _____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.

A

Coast Guard Standard

267
Q

This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.

A

Coast Guard Standard

268
Q

What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?

A

Battle Streamers

269
Q

Battle streamers are attached to the _____, replacing cords and tassels.

A

Coast Guard standard

270
Q

Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned.

A

Battle Streamers

271
Q

Only _____ may display a complete set of battle streamers.

A

Only major headquarters commands

272
Q

The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____.

A

U.S. Marine Corps.

273
Q

The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____ battle streamers.

A

43

274
Q

The _____ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.

A

union jack

275
Q

The _____ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.

A

Union Jack

276
Q

The _____ is the canton of the United States Flag.

A

Union Jack

277
Q

The presence of the _____ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.

A

Commissioning Pennant

278
Q

The _____ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.

A

CG Seal

279
Q

The _____ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.

A

CG Seal

280
Q

The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in _____.

A

1927

281
Q

The Coast Guard _____ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.

A

CG Seal and Emblem

282
Q

The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.

A

CG Shield

283
Q

The _____ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.

A

The Coast Guard Stripe

284
Q

The _____ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.

A

CG Stripe

285
Q

Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning: _____.

A

Always Ready or Ever Ready

286
Q

When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?

A

Sometime between October 1896 – May 1897

287
Q

The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of _____, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.

A

New Orleans

288
Q

What language did Semper Paratus originate from?

A

Latin

289
Q

The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____.

A

Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck wrote the words in the cabin of the cutter Yamacraw in Savannah GA , in 1922.

290
Q

What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

A

Safety data sheets (SDS) document, in detail, various aspects of a HAZMAT. Manufacturers, importers, and distributors need to develop and distribute SDS.

291
Q

What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?

A

15 calendar days

292
Q

What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their marks?

A

45 calendar days

293
Q

A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?

A

Until 365 days have elapsed since their last contact with a recruiter.

294
Q

What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?

A

Items (not cash) with a total value of $10 or less per occasion.

295
Q

What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?

A

CG-5357

296
Q

A first term enlisted member’s Individual Development Plan (IDP) must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within _____ days of reporting to the unit.

A

30

297
Q

In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model can be used?

A

PEACE model.

298
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?

A

Risk is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.

299
Q

Within the Risk Management (RM) process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?

A

REDUCE.

300
Q

What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

The STAAR mnemonic (Spread out, Transfer, Avoid, Accept, and Reduce) provides a simple and convenient aid to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk.

301
Q

What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?

A
  1. DEFINE Conflict. 2. IDENTIFY when parties are in conflict. 3. IDENTIFY stages of conflict. 4. DETERMINE appropriate conflict style for given situation. 5. EMPLOY communication model. 6. FACILITATE a resolution

MK1 (11 decks)

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