missed stuff round 2 Flashcards
where in the skin does vitamin D synthesis occur
stratum basale
which mechanoreceptor is prone to damage due to second degree burns
meissner’s corpuscles
which prostaglandin induces fever
PGE2
which drug blocks transcription of COX-2
sodium salicylate
which gout drug treats acute gout and prevents microtubule polymerization
colchicine
stevens-johnson syndrome is associated with…
allopurinol
between allopurinol and febuxostat, which has higher mortality
febuxostat
DNA damage increases which tumor suppressing pathway
p53 > p21; this can occur at G1>S to S>G2!!
label each part of the graph
2n: G1
2n-4n: S
4n: G2/M
what is the normal function of BRCA1/2
they’re part of the recombinatorial repair machinery for DNA strand breaks
MAP kinase increases cyclin __
D
what do proteins E6 and E7 do in HPV
E6: recruits ubiquitin ligase to tag p53 for degradation
E7: promotes degradation of Rb
Based on family history, the parents of a 8-year-old female patient are concerned that their daughter is genetically predisposed to developing cancer even though she has been healthy her entire life. DNA sequence analysis confirms that the daughter has a germline mutation in one copy of a tumor suppressor gene. Why is this patient more likely to develop cancer at an early age?
according to the two-hit hypothesis, she is more likely because a somatic mutation in the normal copy of the gene can initiate an oncogenic transformation due to the pre-existing mutated copy.
where in the cell cycle would we see MLH1
S phase! it is involved in mismatch repair
which two things does ATM phosphorylate in response to double strand breaks?
p53 and CHK2
___ phosphorylates CHK1, while ___ phosphorylates CHK2
ATR; ATM
CHK1 primarily acts on __, while CHK2 acts on ___
G2/M; G1/S or G2/M
Mature atherosclerotic plaque is distinguished from a fatty streak by inclusion of which of the following features
a necrotic core
A 61-year-old woman with a history of overactive bladder is prescribed oxybutynin for symptom management. Which of the following adverse effects would this patient most likely experience
a) hypokalemia
b) bradycardia
c) constipation
d) hypertension
constipation; it is a muscarinic antagonist
what medication can cause acute liver failure
acetaminophen
what can lead to reduced fungal recovery of dermatophytes
fine maceration
what fungi is most likely to cause fungemia in immunocompromised patients
candida
what are common symptoms of toxic shock
cold and damp skin, fever, tachypnea, tachycardia, low BP
what is mecA
it encodes an altered PBP that confers resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics
what is bla
encodes for beta lactamase
In the picture below, a CD8+ effector T-cell (CTL) is killing a much larger virus infected cell above it. Which of the following must have been displayed on the virus-infected cell’s surface in order for this to occur?
MHC displaying viral peptide
what is PVL
a virulence factor of staph aureus that attract neutrophils just to murder them. it is associated with MRSA
A baby is born with a genetic mutation that prevents signal transduction by the B-cell receptor. T-cell receptor signaling is not affected. What will the immune phenotype be?
few or no mature naive B cells, no effector B cells
what do IgG and IgM tell you about an infection?
IgM indicates a recent or current infection, while IgG indicates prior infection. someone with only IgM is probably having the infection for the first time, someone with only IgG has been infected before but is not currently infected, and someone with both has been infected previously and has the infection again.
which B cell processes rely on AID
somatic hypermutation and class switching
A 59-year-old woman with lung cancer receives adoptive
CD8+T-cell therapy to fight her tumor. The T-cells kill her
tumor cells in vitro, and tracers show they enter the
tumor in high numbers, but their effector mechanisms
are inhibited in vivo. What molecule could the tumor be
expressing that is inhibiting the CTL-response
PDL-1; highly associated with tumors!
which NSAID is associated with stevens-johnson syndrome?
allopurinol
what are the main treatments for chronic gout
allopurinol and fexubostat
what two things do quorum factors do
increase biofilm production and virulence genes
how do quorum factors get across bacterial membranes?
they diffuse freely! no active transport needed
What benefit do hemolytic exotoxins provide to pathogenic bacteria that utilize them?
they’ll increase the availability of iron by lysing the RBC
you see an increase in DBP. what is the receptor action
stimulating alpha-1
you see a decrease in SBP. what is the receptor action?
blocking beta-1
you see a decrease in DBP. what is the receptor action
blocking alpha-1
you see an increase in SBP. what is the receptor action?
stimulating beta-1
which receptors can lower MAP
b2 and a2
which receptors can increase MAP
b1 and a1
which anti-histamine is super anticholinergic and contraindicated in glaucoma
diphenhydramine
what does meloxicam treat
chronic arthritis pain
24-48 hours after infection onset, which cells are predominant?
neutrophils
when do we see macrophages in inflammation?
day 4-7
An obese patient reports they are not prepared to take action at present to make necessary dietary changes but says they will in the next 2 months. Which of the following stages of change is the patient currently in
contemplation
at what point in a medical interview do we ask about associated symptoms?
in the ROS
if you haven’t already, what do you do at the start of the physical exam
vitals
where is HEV found?
paracortex of the lymph node
epithelial reticular cells are involved in what process
positive selection and negative selection
where are hassalls corpuscles found
the medulla of the thymus
what is thrombocytopenia
platelet deficiency
what is vWF
produced by endothelial cells to help platelets adhere
