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Block Two > missed stuff round 2 > Flashcards

missed stuff round 2 Flashcards

1
Q

where in the skin does vitamin D synthesis occur

A

stratum basale

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2
Q

which mechanoreceptor is prone to damage due to second degree burns

A

meissner’s corpuscles

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3
Q

which prostaglandin induces fever

A

PGE2

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4
Q

which drug blocks transcription of COX-2

A

sodium salicylate

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5
Q

which gout drug treats acute gout and prevents microtubule polymerization

A

colchicine

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6
Q

stevens-johnson syndrome is associated with…

A

allopurinol

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7
Q

between allopurinol and febuxostat, which has higher mortality

A

febuxostat

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8
Q

DNA damage increases which tumor suppressing pathway

A

p53 > p21; this can occur at G1>S to S>G2!!

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9
Q

label each part of the graph

A

2n: G1
2n-4n: S
4n: G2/M

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10
Q

what is the normal function of BRCA1/2

A

they’re part of the recombinatorial repair machinery for DNA strand breaks

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10
Q

MAP kinase increases cyclin __

A

D

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11
Q

what do proteins E6 and E7 do in HPV

A

E6: recruits ubiquitin ligase to tag p53 for degradation

E7: promotes degradation of Rb

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12
Q

Based on family history, the parents of a 8-year-old female patient are concerned that their daughter is genetically predisposed to developing cancer even though she has been healthy her entire life. DNA sequence analysis confirms that the daughter has a germline mutation in one copy of a tumor suppressor gene. Why is this patient more likely to develop cancer at an early age?

A

according to the two-hit hypothesis, she is more likely because a somatic mutation in the normal copy of the gene can initiate an oncogenic transformation due to the pre-existing mutated copy.

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13
Q

where in the cell cycle would we see MLH1

A

S phase! it is involved in mismatch repair

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14
Q

which two things does ATM phosphorylate in response to double strand breaks?

A

p53 and CHK2

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15
Q

___ phosphorylates CHK1, while ___ phosphorylates CHK2

A

ATR; ATM

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16
Q

CHK1 primarily acts on __, while CHK2 acts on ___

A

G2/M; G1/S or G2/M

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17
Q

Mature atherosclerotic plaque is distinguished from a fatty streak by inclusion of which of the following features

A

a necrotic core

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18
Q

A 61-year-old woman with a history of overactive bladder is prescribed oxybutynin for symptom management. Which of the following adverse effects would this patient most likely experience

a) hypokalemia
b) bradycardia
c) constipation
d) hypertension

A

constipation; it is a muscarinic antagonist

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19
Q

what medication can cause acute liver failure

A

acetaminophen

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20
Q

what can lead to reduced fungal recovery of dermatophytes

A

fine maceration

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21
Q

what fungi is most likely to cause fungemia in immunocompromised patients

A

candida

22
Q

what are common symptoms of toxic shock

A

cold and damp skin, fever, tachypnea, tachycardia, low BP

23
Q

what is mecA

A

it encodes an altered PBP that confers resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics

24
Q

what is bla

A

encodes for beta lactamase

25
Q

In the picture below, a CD8+ effector T-cell (CTL) is killing a much larger virus infected cell above it. Which of the following must have been displayed on the virus-infected cell’s surface in order for this to occur?

A

MHC displaying viral peptide

26
Q

what is PVL

A

a virulence factor of staph aureus that attract neutrophils just to murder them. it is associated with MRSA

27
Q

A baby is born with a genetic mutation that prevents signal transduction by the B-cell receptor. T-cell receptor signaling is not affected. What will the immune phenotype be?

A

few or no mature naive B cells, no effector B cells

28
Q

what do IgG and IgM tell you about an infection?

A

IgM indicates a recent or current infection, while IgG indicates prior infection. someone with only IgM is probably having the infection for the first time, someone with only IgG has been infected before but is not currently infected, and someone with both has been infected previously and has the infection again.

29
Q

which B cell processes rely on AID

A

somatic hypermutation and class switching

30
Q

A 59-year-old woman with lung cancer receives adoptive
CD8+T-cell therapy to fight her tumor. The T-cells kill her
tumor cells in vitro, and tracers show they enter the
tumor in high numbers, but their effector mechanisms
are inhibited in vivo. What molecule could the tumor be
expressing that is inhibiting the CTL-response

A

PDL-1; highly associated with tumors!

31
Q

which NSAID is associated with stevens-johnson syndrome?

A

allopurinol

32
Q

what are the main treatments for chronic gout

A

allopurinol and fexubostat

33
Q

what two things do quorum factors do

A

increase biofilm production and virulence genes

34
Q

how do quorum factors get across bacterial membranes?

A

they diffuse freely! no active transport needed

35
Q

What benefit do hemolytic exotoxins provide to pathogenic bacteria that utilize them?

A

they’ll increase the availability of iron by lysing the RBC

36
Q

you see an increase in DBP. what is the receptor action

A

stimulating alpha-1

37
Q

you see a decrease in SBP. what is the receptor action?

A

blocking beta-1

38
Q

you see a decrease in DBP. what is the receptor action

A

blocking alpha-1

39
Q

you see an increase in SBP. what is the receptor action?

A

stimulating beta-1

40
Q

which receptors can lower MAP

A

b2 and a2

41
Q

which receptors can increase MAP

A

b1 and a1

42
Q

which anti-histamine is super anticholinergic and contraindicated in glaucoma

A

diphenhydramine

43
Q

what does meloxicam treat

A

chronic arthritis pain

44
Q

24-48 hours after infection onset, which cells are predominant?

A

neutrophils

45
Q

when do we see macrophages in inflammation?

A

day 4-7

46
Q

An obese patient reports they are not prepared to take action at present to make necessary dietary changes but says they will in the next 2 months. Which of the following stages of change is the patient currently in

A

contemplation

47
Q

at what point in a medical interview do we ask about associated symptoms?

A

in the ROS

48
Q

if you haven’t already, what do you do at the start of the physical exam

A

vitals

49
Q

where is HEV found?

A

paracortex of the lymph node

50
Q

epithelial reticular cells are involved in what process

A

positive selection and negative selection

51
Q

where are hassalls corpuscles found

A

the medulla of the thymus

52
Q

what is thrombocytopenia

A

platelet deficiency

53
Q

what is vWF

A

produced by endothelial cells to help platelets adhere

Block Two (30 decks)

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