Missed Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Assent

A

an informal demonstration of agreement, can be given by individuals who may otherwise be incompetent or incapable of giving formal informed consent

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2
Q

explicitly structured learner

A

The explicitly structured learner relies on definitive instructions with clear, well-defined structure and delineated goals and limits

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3
Q

initial stage in group therapy

A

the time for orientation and determining the structure of the group. In the above scenario, the emphasis is on what the individual has experienced in the past; others comment on what the individual should have done. This is part of the initial getting-to-know-one-another phase.

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4
Q

The Fourteenth Amendment

A

guarantees equal treatment under the law, although it does not provide for the guaranteed availability or quality of social services

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5
Q

You are employed to evaluate moderate-to-severely retarded adults. Which of the following would give you the most accurate evaluation of their functioning?

A

Vineland Social Maturity Inventory

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6
Q

Albert Bandura

A

social learning in both adults and children, and he became well known for his Bobo doll experiment in 1961.

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7
Q

Macro level practice

A

focuses on issues such as community organization, community development, planning and program development, public health and other large-scale issues, consistent with the issue presented.

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8
Q

Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) - number of characteristics.

A

At least five characteristic signs are present

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9
Q

Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD)- number of characteristics

A

At least three characteristic signs are present

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10
Q

Fetishism

A

The use of nonliving objects, by themselves

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11
Q

Paraphilias

A

Recurrent and intense sexual urges

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12
Q

Odorous Annie Painfully Loves Grass

A
Birth to 2 years	Oral Stage	
2 to 3 years	Anal Stage	
3 to 6 years	Phallic Stage	
6 to 12 years	Latency Stage	
Adolescents	Genital Stage
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13
Q

Students who do better than average in high school and do likewise in college are an example of what kind of correlation?

A

Positive

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14
Q

Supervisors can support new practitioners in technique as it relates to structure in which of the following ways?

A

Technique as it relates to structure is demonstrated through the setting of where therapy takes place, the number and length of sessions and the form of therapy (e.g. group, marital, individual).

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15
Q

Abraham Maslow and Sigmund Freud are arguing about human nature (hypothetically). What underlying assumption about psychology and human potential will Maslow likely bring to the discussion

A

Humans are basically loving and life-affirming

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16
Q

According to Maslow, metamotivation:

A

Represents the motives of self-actualizing people

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17
Q

What is the psychosocial virtue of individuals in the intimacy vs. isolation stage?

A

Love

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18
Q

By what principle did Erikson state development functioned?

A

Epigenetic principle

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19
Q

What is the age category for individuals in the intimacy vs. isolation stag

A

the 20s

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20
Q

Adlerian therapy also aims to

A

to find basic mistakes within a client’s private logic

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21
Q

When is it believed that a person starts his or her own unique style of life in Adlerian Therapy?

A

At an early age

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22
Q

In behavioral therapy, people in specific life situations are best described by what they

A

People are best described by what they think, feel and do in specific life situations.

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23
Q

According to the social learning theory approach, psychological functioning involves a reciprocal interaction among three interlocking sets of factors:

A

Behavior, cognitive factors and environmental influences

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24
Q

Bandura’s social cognitive theory adopts _________ perspective.

A

Bandura’s social cognitive theory takes an agentic perspective. This means that Bandura felt that individuals have the capability to exercise some control their lives.

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25
Q

Bandura would argue that the first step in successful therapy is

A

Activate a change in behavior

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26
Q

What is cost allocation in developing functional and program budgets?

A

Cost allocation is the process by which indirect costs are allocated to agency programs and factored into direct costs to begin determining the total costs of a social program.

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27
Q

According to Bandura’s Social Learning Theory, how do people first learn aggression?

A

The correct answer: Through direct observation

Bandura believed that people first developed aggression through direct observation (termed modeling)

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28
Q

What are some sources of data that you may want to use for your study?

A

The correct answer is: Available records, interviews, self-report scales, or direct behavioral observations.

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29
Q

Q1. What’s the main aim of the Adlerian reorientation process?

A

Making a difference to client’s attitude and behavior

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30
Q

When is it believed that a person starts his or her own unique style of life in Adlerian Therapy?

A

Adlerian Therapy believes we start at an early age in creating our own unique style of life and that style stays relatively constant through the remained of our life.

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31
Q

. In Behavioral Therapy there is no need to:

A

There is no need to discuss internal mental states in Behavioral Therapy

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32
Q

In TA the Adult ego state is:

A

The correct answer: Spontaneous

The Adult ego state is about being spontaneous and aware with the capacity for intimacy.

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33
Q

Q3. According to TA, what does it mean for contracts to be measurable?

A

Measurable means that the goals need to be tangible. Each party involved in the contract will be able to say in advance how they will know when the goal has been achieved.

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34
Q

. In TA the Adult ego state is:

A

The correct answer: Spontaneous

The Adult ego state is about being spontaneous and aware with the capacity for intimacy.

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35
Q

According to TA, what does it mean for contracts to be measurable?

A

Measurable means that the goals need to be tangible. Each party involved in the contract will be able to say in advance how they will know when the goal has been achieved.

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36
Q

Kohlberg said that as young children develop the conservation and categorization skills described by Piaget they develop a concept of:

A

Gender

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37
Q

What are happiness and success largely related to in Adlerian therapy?

A

Social connectedness

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38
Q

According to Adler, what is an Inferiority Complex?

A

Normal feelings of incompetence getting the way of achieving goal

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39
Q

What is the definition of systematic desensitization?

A

Systematic desensitization is the process whereby the therapist helps the client overcome certain specific fears and phobias through the use of relaxation techniques and imaging.

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40
Q

What is (are) the significant relationships in the initiative vs. guilt stage

A

Family

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41
Q

What is (are) the significant relationships in the autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage?

A

Parents

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42
Q

________ is referred to as the father of Existentialism.

A

Soren Kierkegaard is often called the father of existentialism. Although later Friedrich Nietzsche, also challenged some fundamental questions about truth and existence

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43
Q

Who was the first to attempt to bring existential insights to his work with patients in the Kreuzlingen sanatorium where he was a psychiatrist?

A

Ludwig Binswanger, in Switzerland, was the first to attempt to bring existential insights to his work with patients, in the Kreuzlingen sanatorium where he was a psychiatrist.

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44
Q

Existential psychotherapy is partly based on the Existential belief that human beings are ______ in the world.

A

alone

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45
Q

_______ is a consciousness of our own freedom.

A

Existential anxiety, which is basically a consciousness of our own freedom, is an essential part of living; as we increase our awareness of the choices available to us, we also increase our awareness of the consequences of these choices.

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46
Q

Which of the following refers to Freud’s notion that, ‘Nothing Happens by Chance’?

A

Freud argued that nothing happens by chance, a concept he called psychic determinism. He maintained that there is a reason behind every act, thought, and feeling. In fact, Freud believed that everything we do, think, say, and feel is an expression of our mind - either conscious, preconscious, or unconscious.

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47
Q

Which levels did Maslow call the D-needs?

A

The first four levels are called the D-needs or deficit needs because they cease to motivate when they are met.

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48
Q

Piaget was also considered an epistemologist because:

A

Piaget was most interested in the study of knowledge and its expansion. His main goal was to discover how knowledge grew.

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49
Q

You design an experiment where you create two lines of M&Ms. Line 1 with more M&Ms has each candy placed closer together while line 2 with less M&Ms has each candy placed farther apart. This time you ask a 5 year old which of the two lines has more candy. His likely response is:

A

The 5 year old has established the ability to conserve quantity so understands that even though the shorter line is smaller, it has a larger number of M&Ms.

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50
Q

The tertiary circular reactions, novelty, and curiosity substage corresponds to what age category

A

The Tertiary circular reactions, novelty and curiosity corresponds to age 12 to 18 months

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51
Q

What is the age range for the formal operational stage?

A

In this stage the adolescent reasons in more abstract, idealistic and logical way

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52
Q

Match the following definition with the correct term: “The adjustment of one’s schemes to include newly observed events and experiences.”

A

This definition matches the term Accommodation

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53
Q

Rogers directly acknowledges the unconscious in later writings, seeing it as:

A

Although Rogers’ did focus on the consciousness, he was later reported as saying that the unconsciousness was positive in nature

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54
Q

A client calls a therapist’s after-hours number on New Year’s Eve to discuss a fight she has had with her boyfriend. She wants to know if her feelings are justified and whether or not she should call off the wedding. With the new year only minutes away, the therapist listens to her situation and tells her that she is correct and should stick to her conviction and end this relationship. Did the therapist behave ethically?

A

The therapist abused his or her power over the client because he or she told the client what to do without allowing her to make a decision on her own. A client will often follow the advice of a therapist due to the perception that the therapist is an authority figure.

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55
Q

Which of the following is associated with too little dopamine?

A

Parkinson’s Disease

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56
Q

You are employed at a residential facility for youth. You strongly believe your client has become romantically involved with another resident whom you know to be HIV positive. Neither will confirm their status with the other. What is your first course of action?

A

Coordinate with other professional staff to remind the HIV-positive youth about the ‘duty to protect’, to work with the client to have an appropriate physical well-being plan, and to establish the facts about the relationship and risks involved

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57
Q

Freud discussed the latency period as the fourth stage of psychosexual development from 5 years old to puberty. What is it is known for?

A

A suspension of changes

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58
Q

A woman is attempting to deal with divorce after 28 years of marriage. She feels like she has failed herself and her two children, ages 24 and 26. She wants to re-establish a life of which she and her adult children can be proud. What is your first step?

A

Assess issues of grief and loss

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59
Q

A woman is referred by her primary care provider and presents with a diagnosis of hypochondriasis. What is the second step in treatment once a level of trust is established?

A

History-taking with a careful review of medical records is the second step. This increases trust and allows the clinician to identify possible gaps in physical assessment, adequacy of the initial work-up(s), onset, course of treatment, and level of suffering.

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60
Q

When a child is suspected of having attention deficit hyperactive disorder, what should first be ruled out by a physician

A

physician needs to assess for endocrine issues and allergies in the assessment for and diagnosis of attention deficit hyperactive disorder.

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61
Q

Which of the following signs would not develop within two hours of the use of cannabis?

A

Decreased appetite

62
Q

According to research, all of the following are effective in convincing individuals, except:

A

It has been shown that in convincing others, most important are one’s trustworthiness, attractiveness, and expertness. Concreteness does not have much bearing on this.

63
Q

What is one of the things that is controlled by the ego?

A

Ability to delay gratification

64
Q

Organizational consultants need commitment from key personnel in order to be effective in most situations. Key personnel include those who have decision-making power, ability to distribute resources, and authority/influence within the organization and are often described as:

A

Gatekeepers

65
Q

Using the Three Step Decision Making Model, what is the first step a social worker should use in the appraisal process

A

Determine what decisions and judgments need to be made

66
Q

What is the best goal set when working with a client diagnosed with dependent personality disorder?

A

A client diagnosed with dependent personality disorder requires increase ability for independent behavior, improved decision-making skills, improved communication and stress management tools, decreased sensitivity, and improved self-esteem

67
Q

What is developmentally necessary for intelligence to emerge

A

Accommodation

68
Q

Providing as an exemplification of the parallel process, what is the tendency for patterns to repeat themselves at all levels of the system

A

Providing as an exemplification of the parallel process, what is the tendency for patterns to repeat themselves at all levels of the system

69
Q

According to reality therapy, _____ questions that are well-timed can lead clients to think about what they want and to evaluate whether their behavior is leading them in the direction they want to go.

A

Open

70
Q

Marriage and family therapy has its psychosocial side.

A

It could be described as intrapsychic and environmental

71
Q

The DSM-IV defines prodrome as:

A

The DSM-IV defines prodrome as:

72
Q

Why is inhalant use more common among children than older adults?

A

Inhalant use is more common in children because they can easily access cleaning fluids and aerosol cans. They often aren’t fully aware of the potential dangers of huffing and parents often aren’t aware of the need to lock such substances out of the reach of older children or talk with them about the dangers of inhalant use.

73
Q

While alcohol dependence is found in many mental conditions, people with which disorder have unusually high rates of alcohol dependence

A

Research indicates that people with bipolar disorder have high rates of alcohol dependence.

74
Q

According to the DSM IV-TR, which is the most serious?

A

DSM IV-TR defines substance dependence as more serious than use or abuse.

75
Q

Which statement about SMART (Self Management and Recovery Training) recovery groups is true?

A

MART a secular recovery program that stresses self-empowerment. They are for individuals with any type of addiction. Program points include enhancing and maintaining motivation, coping with urges, problem solving and lifestyle balance. The SMART recovery program is not as widespread or well-known as AA. Online meetings are available as well as local meetings in many areas.

76
Q

What is one major difference between treating a client with an addiction disorder only and a client with a dual diagnosis of addiction disorder and psychiatric disorder?

A

The client with a dual diagnosis may have to take psychoactive medication for his psychiatric diagnosis, making abstinence from psychoactive substances impossible.

77
Q

Which of the following statements about barbiturates is true?

A

Barbiturates have a narrow therapeutic range. They are not available over-the-counter; they are class C-II controlled substances. The elderly are especially vulnerable to their effects. Barbiturates are considered as dangerous (or more so) than sedatives.

78
Q

What is known to significantly interfere with a therapist’s ability to provide effective services to an African-American client with a substance abuse disorder?

A

Some clinicians fail to invite African-Americans to express rage and strong emotions (if present) and the client doesn’t learn the connection between his rage and substance use.

79
Q

The effects of barbiturates are similar to what other category of drug?

A

The effects of barbiturates are similar to the effects of alcohol. They are sometimes taken illicitly to counteract the stimulating effects of amphetamines and cocaine.

80
Q

When a consultant is brought in to confer on a case, which is responsible for retaining the client’s medical record?

A

A consulting health care provider need not retain records if they are sent to the referring provider, who must retain them.

81
Q

If a client requests her/his records be transferred to another counselor who then becomes the primary provider to the client, then the first provider is

A

A counselor is not required to retain the client’s records if the client requests that her/his records be transferred to another counselor who then becomes the primary provider to the client.

82
Q

Counselors should view clinical documentation and record keeping as:

A

Rather than viewing clinical documentation as a meaningless chore that consumes precious time, counselors should view it as a form of self-supervision that is an essential element of their professional practice and of their provision of quality clinical services.

83
Q

A counselor suspects that abuse has occurred and documents this in the client’s record. It is important that the counselor:

A

When a counselor documents suspected physical, emotional, or sexual abuse, the best approach is to just document the client’s words and behaviors

84
Q

Upon initiating termination, a counselor should:

A

If a counselor initiates a closure of a case, he/she should provide the client with referrals to other therapist in the community. This information should be documented in the client’s record.

85
Q

Good clinical documentation

A

Good clinical documentation: provides relevant information in appropriate detail, is organized with appropriate headings and logical progression, is thoughtful, reflecting the application of professional knowledge, skills and judgment in the treatment/services provided, uses relevant direct quotes from the client and other sources, distinguishes clearly between facts, observations, hard data and opinions, is internally consistent, and is written in the present tense, as appropriate.

86
Q

Good clinical documentation: provides relevant information in appropriate detail, is organized with appropriate headings and logical progression, is thoughtful, reflecting the application of professional knowledge, skills and judgment in the treatment/services provided, uses relevant direct quotes from the client and other sources, distinguishes clearly between facts, observations, hard data and opinions, is internally consistent, and is written in the present tense, as appropriate.

A

Interpersonal therapy is a short-term psychotherapy that has proven to be helpful for some forms of depression. Interpersonal therapists focus on the client’s disturbed personal relationships that both cause and exacerbate (or increase) the depression.

87
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA’s) and newer antidepressants (SSRI’s) have side effects that are:

A

The correct answer: Usually different from one another

Newer antidepressant medications (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors - SSRI’s) generally have fewer side effects than tricyclics and are generally safer to take. The potential side effects of TCA’s and SSRI’s are also usually different from each other.

88
Q

Major Depressive Disorder can be specified by all of the following terms except:

A

Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) is specified as either “a single episode” or “recurrent”; periods of depression may occur as discrete events or as recurrent over the lifespan. Episodes of clinical depression may be further divided into chronic as well as mild, major or severe. When a client has already had an episode of mania, a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is usually made instead of MDD.

89
Q

In respect to major depression and the physical health of men and women:

A

Depression affects the physical health in men differently from women. It has been shown that, although depression is associated with an increased risk of coronary heart disease in both men and women, only men suffer from a high death rate.

90
Q

When taking MAOI’s (monoamine oxidase inhibitors) for the management of depression. It is important to avoid consuming all of the following except:

A

The correct answer: Anti-inflammatory medication

91
Q

When major depressive disorder is accompanied by mood reactivity (mood brightens in response to actual or potential positive events), which specifier may be added to the MDD diagnosis?

A

Atypicality is characterized by mood reactivity and positively, significant weight gain or increased appetite, excessive sleep (hypersomnia), leaden paralysis (heavy, leaden feelings in arms or legs), or significant social impairment as a consequence of hypersensitivity to perceived interpersonal rejection. People with this can react with interest or pleasure to some things, unlike most depressed individuals.

92
Q

ide effects from taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCA’s) may include all but which of the following:

A

The correct answer: Headaches

Antidepressants may cause mild and, usually, temporary side effects. The most common side effects of tricyclic antidepressants are: Dry mouth; Constipation; Bladder problems (emptying the bladder may be troublesome and the urine stream may not be as strong as usual); Sexual problems (sexual functioning may change); Blurred vision; Dizziness; and Drowsiness.

93
Q

Q13. When major depressive disorder is accompanied by motoric immobility or excessive, nonprompted motor activity, which specifier may be added to the MDD diagnosis?

A

Catatonia is characterized by motoric immobility evidenced by catalepsy or stupor. This MDD subtype may also manifest excessive, nonprompted motor activity, extreme negativism or mutism, and peculiarities in movement, including stereotypical movements, prominent mannerisms, and prominent grimacing. There may also be evidence of echolalia or echopraxia. It is very rarely encountered, and may not be a useful category.

94
Q

Side effects from taking newer SSRI antidepressants may include all but which of the following:

A

The correct answer: Dry mouth

Newer antidepressant selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI’s) medications generally have fewer side effects than tricyclics and are generally safer to take. These side effects can include: Headaches (which will usually go away); Nausea (which is also temporary); Nervousness and insomnia (these may occur during the first few weeks - dosage reductions or time will usually resolve them); Agitation (feeling jittery); and Sexual problems.

95
Q

A social worker is providing counseling services to a client working on attaining sobriety from illicit drugs. The client has a long history of problematic behavior, including buying and selling drugs, stealing to support the habit, and selling himself on the streets to afford his habit. He continues to engage in illicit behaviors. What ethical responsibility does the social worker have regarding the client’s illegal behavior?

A

The correct answer: Maintain confidentiality

The social worker’s responsibility is to maintain the client’s responsibility. Unless he is actively suicidal, homicidal or at imminent risk of decompensating, confidentiality should not be breached.

96
Q

Josh was late to work and sped through a school zone. He was pulled over and received a ticket. The result is BEST described as:

A

The correct answer: Positive punishment

Positive punishment occurs when an unfavorable event or outcome occurs after an undesirable behavior is presented. This may be administered by another person, such as a police officer, parent or boss, or may be naturally occurring, such as touching a hot stove.

97
Q

When a chart/clinical record is being audited, an important thing that the auditor will be looking for is

A

Service notes

98
Q

HIPAA defines psychotherapy notes as notes:

A

Kept separate from the medical record

99
Q

Upon reviewing a client’s record, it is brought to the counselor’s attention that there are other people’s names listed in a client’s file. Is this okay?

A

Yes - if the names were used with caution and only when necessary.

100
Q

When a chart/clinical record is being audited, the auditor will first look for:

A

The first thing that an auditor will look for when reviewing a clinical record is a plan of care. They want to make sure that the clinician had verified the client’s need of the services.

101
Q

Diagnostic criterion for Pathological Gambling

A

DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for Pathological Gambling states that there is a persistent recurrent and maladaptive gambling behavior as indicated by five (or more) of the following behaviors: (1) is preoccupied with gambling (e.g., preoccupied with reliving past gambling experiences, handicapping or planning the next venture, or thinking of ways to get money with which to gamble) (2) needs to gamble with increasing amounts of money in order to achieve the desired excitement (3) has repeated unsuccessful efforts to control, cut back, or stop gambling (4) is restless or irritable when attempting to cut down or stop gambling (5) gambles as a way of escaping from problems or of relieving a dysphoric mood (e.g., feelings of helplessness, guilt, anxiety, depression) (6) after losing money gambling, often returns another day to get even (“chasing” one’s losses) (7) lies to family members, therapist, or others to conceal the extent of involvement with gambling (8) has committed illegal acts such as forgery, fraud, theft, or embezzlement to finance gambling (9) has jeopardized or lost a significant relationship, job, or educational or career opportunity because of gambling (10) relies on others to provide money to relieve a desperate financial situation caused by gambling. Additionally, the gambling behavior is not better accounted for by a Manic Episode.

102
Q

A person with Kleptomania experiences the impulse to steal as ego-dystonic. This means that:

A

Because people with Kleptomania experience the impulse to steal as ego-dystonic, they often feel depressed and/or guilty about their thefts. The behavior is not compatible with their self-perception, and they are aware that the act is wrong and senseless. A person with Kleptomania may frequently fear being caught but cannot resist the impulse to steal.

103
Q

Kleptomania

A

DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for Kleptomania include: The person repeatedly yields to the impulse to steal objects that are needed neither for personal use nor for their monetary worth; Just before the theft, the person experiences increasing tension; At the time of theft, the person feels gratification, pleasure or relief; These thefts are committed neither out of anger or revenge nor in response to delusions or hallucinations; and the stealing is not better explained by Antisocial Personality Disorder, Conduct Disorder or a Manic Episode

104
Q

Trichotillomania

A

DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for Trichotillomania include: Recurrent pulling out of one’s hair resulting in noticeable hair loss, increased sense of tension immediately before pulling out the hair or when attempting to resist the urge to pull out hair, and pleasure, gratification, or relief when pulling out hair. Additionally, the disturbance is not better accounted for by another mental disorder and it is not due to a medical condition.

105
Q

Effective individual outpatient psychotherapy for the borderline client usually consists of:

A

The correct answer: 2-3 weekly sessions over a period of years

Group and individual psychotherapy are at least partially effective for many patients. The individual outpatient psychotherapy for the borderline patient usually consists of 2-3 therapy sessions a week over a period of years. The therapist works with the patient to understand the meanings and motives of his/ her behavior, and to strengthen his or her capacity to endure frustration, anger and loneliness without acting impulsively upon those feelings.

106
Q

A distinguishing feature of Transference-focused psychotherapy in contrast to many other treatments for BPD is the belief in a:

A

A distinguishing feature of TFP in contrast to many other treatments for BPD is the belief in a deep psychological structure (structure of the mind) that underlies the specific symptoms of BPD. The focus of treatment is on a fundamental split in the patient’s mind that divides perceptions of self and others into extremes of bad and good. Since this internal split determines the nature of the patient’s perceptions, it leads to the specific symptoms of BPD - such as chaotic interpersonal relations, impulsive self-destructive behaviors.

107
Q

A type of therapy that emphasizes consistency from the therapist and a hopeful attitude in order sustain the borderline client through crises periods and personal accomplishments is:

A

Supportive psychotherapy is a broad term describing a type of therapy that emphasizes consistency, support from the therapist and a hopeful attitude in order to contain and sustain the borderline client through crises periods and encourage small gains over time. This type of psychotherapy can be either group or individual and is an alternative to other types of psychotherapy approaches.

108
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants:

A

Tricyclic antidepressants are often unhelpful in the treatment of BPD and sometimes even worsened the symptoms

109
Q

The DSM-IV defines Borderline Personality Disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, beginning:

A

rderline Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity beginning by early adulthood and present in a variety of contexts. The impairment from BPD is greatest during the young-adult years.

110
Q

The first technique to show any true efficacy in the treatment of borderline personality disorder was:

A

In 1991, a new psychosocial treatment termed Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT) was developed specifically to treat BPD, and this technique was the first to show any efficacy compared to a control group. Combining SSRIs and DBT (probably the standard treatment now) seems to give satisfying synergy and the fastest results.

111
Q

Personality disorders affect about 10% of the general population. Borderline personality disorder is:

A

Personality disorders affect about 10% of the general population. This group of mental disorders is defined by maladaptive personality characteristics that have a consistent and serious effect on work and interpersonal relationships. DSM-IV defines ten categories of personality disorder. Of these, Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is the most frequent in clinical practice. BPD is also one of the most difficult and troubling problems in all of psychiatry

112
Q

Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is based on ________ between therapist and client.

A

The correct answer: Negotiation

Dialectical behavior therapy is based on negotiation between therapist and client. The dialectic described in the treatment’s name is of the therapist’s acceptance and validation of the client as he/she is, combined with the insistence on the need for change. The idea is to give patients tools that they never acquired as children.

113
Q

People with borderline personality disorder often experience problems with:

A

People with BPD are often bright, witty, funny, life of the party. However, they may have problems with object constancy. When a person leaves (even temporarily), a person with BPD may have a problem recreating or remembering feelings of love that were present between themselves and the other. Often, BPD patients want to keep something belonging to the loved one around during separations

114
Q

An advantage of combined (medication and behavioral therapy) treatment for the management of ADHD vs. just using medication is that:

A

An advantage of combined treatment for the management of ADHD is that children could be successfully treated with lower doses of medicine as compared with children who just take medication.

115
Q

ehavioral therapy works to help people with ADHD:

A

Behavioral therapy helps people develop more effective ways to work on immediate issues. Rather than helping the child understand his/ her feelings and actions, it helps directly in changing their thinking and coping and thus may lead to changes in behavior. The support might be practical assistance, like help in organizing tasks or schoolwork or dealing with emotionally charged events. Or the support might be in self-monitoring one’s own behavior and giving self-praise or rewards for acting in a desired way such as controlling anger or thinking before acting.

116
Q

Children diagnosed with the Predominantly Inattentive Type of ADHD are seldom:

A

Children diagnosed with the Predominantly Inattentive Type of ADHD are seldom impulsive or hyperactive, yet have significant problems paying attention. They appear to be daydreaming, ‘spacey,’ easily confused, slow moving and lethargic. They may have difficulty processing information as quickly and accurately as other children.

117
Q
  1. The results of the Multimodal Treatment Study of Children with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder indicated that long-term _________________ were superior to _______________.
A

The results of the study indicated that long-term combination treatments and the medication-management alone were superior to intensive behavioral treatment and routine community treatment. And in some areas- anxiety, academic performance, oppositionality, parent-child relations, and social skills- the combined treatment was usually superior.

118
Q

According to the DSM-IV, there are ________ patterns of behavior that indicate ADHD.

A

The correct answer: Three

There are three patterns of behavior that indicate ADHD. People with ADHD may show several signs of being consistently inattentive. They may have a pattern of being hyperactive and impulsive far more than others of their age. Or they may show all three types of behavior.

119
Q

Which of the following is not considered a subtype of ADHD?

A

The correct answer: Predominantly impulsive type

There are three subtypes of ADHD recognized by professionals. These are: the predominantly hyperactive-impulsive type (that does not show significant inattention); the predominantly inattentive type (that does not show significant hyperactive-impulsive behavior) sometimes called ADD- an outdated term for this entire disorder; and the combined type (that displays both inattentive and hyperactive-impulsive symptoms).

120
Q

The Preschool ADHD Treatment Study (PATS) is the:

A

Because many children in the preschool years are diagnosed with ADHD and are given medication, it is important to know the safety and efficacy of such treatment. The NIMH is sponsoring an ongoing multi-site study, ‘Preschool ADHD Treatment Study’ (PATS). It is the first major effort to examine the safety and efficacy of a stimulant, methylphenidate, for ADHD in this age group.

121
Q

The Multimodal Treatment Study of Children with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is the:

A

The correct answer: Most intensive study ever undertaken for evaluating the treatment of ADHD

To help families make decisions, the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has funded many studies of treatments for ADHD and has conducted the Multimodal Treatment Study of Children with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder - the most intensive study ever undertaken for evaluating the treatment of this disorder.

122
Q

In people with ADHD, the symptoms of ___________ and __________ will often appear before the symptom of ____________.

A

Symptoms of ADHD will appear over the course of many months, often with the symptoms of impulsiveness and hyperactivity preceding those of inattention that may not emerge for a year or more.

123
Q

To date, there is no convincing evidence that stimulant medications, when used for treatment of ADHD:

A

The correct answer: Cause drug abuse or dependence

The stimulant drugs, when used with medical supervision, are usually considered quite safe. Stimulants do not make the child feel ‘high’. Although some parents worry that their child may become addicted to the medication, to date there is no convincing evidence that stimulant medications, when used for treatment of ADHD, cause drug abuse or dependence.

124
Q

Which approach provides many techniques in working with clients who have cultural injunctions against freely expressing feelings?

A

Gestalt methodology places the focus on expressing oneself nonverbally and may be congruent with those cultures that look beyond words to communicate. This approach provides many techniques in working with clients who have cultural injunctions against freely expressing feelings. There is an emphasis on bodily expressions that is a subtle way to help clients recognize their conflicts

125
Q

Milgram’s famous study

A

The correct answer: Obedience

Milgram’s famous study on obedience illustrated the extent to which subjects will go to follow orders from an authority figure.

126
Q

Social facilitation

A

Social facilitation is understanding the entire picture of how children and adults with Autism, Asperger’s syndrome, Tourette’s syndrome, anxiety disorder, and other related syndromes and disorders process information and then translating this knowledge into practical, useful information and interventions. Its techniques are clear, finite, definitive, comfort inducing, and anxiety reducing. They enable the individual to better function through the use of visual rehearsal strategies.

127
Q

Tabula Rasa

A

Tabula Rasa referred to the human mind being a “blank slate” upon which experiences and our environment are written.

128
Q

PIE system

A

PIE system

129
Q

Spurning

A

Spurning is behavior in which a caregiver acts in a hostile, rejecting, or degrading manner, exhibiting such behaviors as shaming, publicly humiliating, or disparaging.

130
Q

ALzhimeers

A

Acetylcholine

131
Q

Group Transference

A

In group settings, transference is less intense because of the increased number of members that could receive transference. Still, says Yalom, a therapist who ignores transference (or only attends to it) is blinded.

132
Q

The emotionally neutral learner

A

The emotionally neutral learner

133
Q

eclectic model of the therapy

A

In the eclectic model of the therapy, the social worker’s effectiveness is most dependent on the use of testing results.

134
Q

Interpersonal psychotherapy

A

Interpersonal psychotherapy utilizes a time-limited approach, in which the emphasis is in the here-and-now. It centers on the four common problem areas of role disputes, role transitions, unresolved grief and social deficits. Research conducted over the last few years has suggested that this type of therapy may be equally effective as using antidepressants in mild to moderate depression cases.

135
Q

The components most needed to develop an agency goal

A

The components most needed to develop an agency goal are the nature of the current social problem, the target client population, the direction of anticipated client change, and how the change is intended to be delivered.

136
Q

Students with disabilities

A

Students with disabilities are entitled to accommodation as long as the school requirements are reasonable and do not fundamentally alter the program or cause the school undue financial or administrative hardship.

137
Q

Diagnostic criteria for separation anxiety disorder includes that the onset of symptoms occurs before age:

Diagnostic criteria for separation anxiety disorder includes that the onset of symptoms occurs before age:

A

The correct answer: 18

Onset may be as early as preschool age and may occur at any time before age 18 years; however, onset as late as adolescence is uncommon.

138
Q

The specifier ‘early onset’ is added to the diagnosis of separation anxiety disorder if the symptoms occur before age

A

If the onset of symptoms occurs before age 6 years, the specifier ‘early onset’ is added to the diagnosis of separation anxiety disorder. Onset may be as early as preschool age. Adolescent onset does occur but is usually uncommon.

139
Q

Medication commonly used to treat children with separation anxiety disorder includes the tricyclic antidepressant Tofranil (imipramine) and

A

Antidepressant Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors or SSRI’s (specifically, Celexa, Lexapro, Luvox, Paxil, Prozac (fluoxetine), and Zoloft) are commonly prescribed to treat the symptoms of separation anxiety disorder. Other types of antidepressants, such as the tricyclic antidepressant Tofranil (imipramine) have also been reported helpful in some studies.

140
Q

all of the following may put a child at higher risk for developing separation anxiety disorder

A

Separation anxiety disorder may run in families. It is most likely to affect shy, nervous children. The disorder is often triggered by a major change in the child’s life, such as a death or hospitalization, the parents’ separation or divorce, a new school, or a move.

141
Q

Which type of therapy for separation anxiety disorder allows a child to practice social skills or symptom-combating skills?

A

Group psychotherapy can be valuable to a child by providing a safe place to talk with other children who face adversity or allowing a child to practice social skills or symptom-combating skills in a carefully structured setting.

142
Q

the following are statistics for the estimated risk for developing PTSD for people who have experienced specific traumatic events

A

The estimated risk for developing PTSD is greatest for those individuals who have been raped - 49% of rape victims end up with a PTSD diagnosis. This is followed by severe beating or physical assault (31.9%); then other sexual assault (23.7%); then serious accident or injury - such as a car or train accident (16.8%); then shooting or stabbing (15.4%); then sudden, unexpected death of family member or friend (14.3%); then child’s life-threatening illness (10.4%); then witness to killing or serious injury (7.3%); then the lowest risk is for those who experienced natural disasters (3.8%).

143
Q

At any given time, ______ million American people suffer from post traumatic stress disorder.

A

An estimated 5% of Americans - more than 13 million people - have PTSD at any given time. Although an estimated 70% of adults in the United States have experienced a traumatic event at least once in their lives, only approximately 20% of these people go on to develop PTSD.

144
Q

Which diagnosis is often found among people who have been exposed to prolonged traumatic circumstances, especially during childhood, such as childhood sexual abuse?

A

Complex PTSD (sometimes called “Disorder of Extreme Stress”) is found among individuals who have been exposed to prolonged traumatic circumstances, especially during childhood, such as childhood sexual abuse. Treatment often takes much longer than with regular PTSD, may progress at a much slower rate, and requires a sensitive and structured treatment program delivered by a trauma specialist.

145
Q

A type of psychotherapy used for treating PTSD which focuses on the emotional conflicts caused by the traumatic event is:

A

Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy focuses on the emotional conflicts caused by the traumatic event, particularly as they relate to early life experiences. The client is guided to retell the traumatic event to a calm, empathic, compassionate, and nonjudgmental therapist.

146
Q

All of the following are distinctive neurobiological and physiological changes which may be associated with PTSD

A

PTSD may be associated with stable neurobiological alterations in both the central and autonomic nervous systems, such as altered brainwave activity, decreased volume of the hippocampus, and abnormal activation of the amygdala. Both the hippocampus and the amygdala are involved in the processing and integration of memory. The amygdala has also been found to be involved in coordinating the body’s fear response. Studies have shown that epinephrine and norepinephrine levels in people with PTSD are higher than normal.

147
Q

Q1. What are the best action items for dealing with self-esteem issues associated with attentional and oppositional issues?

A

The best actions for addressing self-esteem related to ADHD and oppositional issues is to ask what the client’s view is about the issues, affirming what he or she has to offer; support and encourage appropriate risk-taking in accomplishing goals; educate on assertive communication and assertiveness; address destructive self talk; and build on strengths

148
Q

All of the following are pharmacological interventions which may help to reduce aggressive behavior in children with conduct disorder

A

When trying to treat aggressiveness in children with CD, the first choice for treatment is methylphenidate (i.e., Ritalin) as studies have shown that methylphenidate may reduce aggression. Anticonvulsants - Carbamazepine (i.e., Tegretol) are considered to be the second group of medications to be used in nonspecific aggression, yet multiple significant adverse effects can occur with the use of carbamazepine. Antihypertensives (i.e., Clonidine) have shown to significantly decrease aggressive behavior; however, this medication requires monitoring of blood pressure and cardiovascular parameters.

149
Q

All of the following are diagnostics criteria for a conduct disorder

A

The diagnostic criteria for Conduct Disorder include: A repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated, as manifested by the presence of three (or more) of certain criteria in the past 12 months, with at least one criterion present in the past 6 months; the disturbance in behavior causes clinically significant impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning; if the individual is age 18 years or older, criteria are not met for Antisocial Personality Disorder.

150
Q

Adolescents with conduct disorder have been found to have

A

Adolescents with CD have been found to have impairment in the frontal lobe of the brain - this area affects the ability to plan, to avoid harm, and to learn from negative consequences