Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HEENT > miscellaneous diseases of the head and neck > Flashcards

miscellaneous diseases of the head and neck Flashcards

1
Q

lymphadenopathy

A

-signal infection, illness or tumor

can be unilateral or bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

unilateral tonsillar enlargement causes

A

infection
chronic inflammatory response
neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

peritonsillar abscess

A
  • abscess forms in the tissue near tonsil
  • unilateral
  • caused from tonsillitis that spread to the tissue (STREP)
  • uvula may be midline
  • lymph node swelling unilateral
  • fever, chills, ear pain, difficulty to swallow and talk (potato voice)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

priorities with peritonsillar abcess

A

airway, hydration and able to swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment of peritonsillar abcess

A

abx, steriods and rare but sometimes I&D

close follow up & daily checks 2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tonsillitis can be

A

acute/chronic
unilateral/bilateral
bacterial/viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

common causes of tonsillitis

A

streptococcus, influenza, parainfluenza, adenoviruses, epstein-barr, herpes simplex or enteroviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

unilateral tonsillar enlargement

A

1) neoplasm such as
- lymphomas
- squamous cell carcinomas
- rare: extramedullary plasmacytomas, hodgkins, leukemia and metastatic neoplasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

remember STI’s

A

sore throat or red eye can always be an STI

herpes 1&2, gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

skin cancer of head and face - order of commonality

A

basal cell carcinoma
squamous cell carcinoma
melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

know the ABCDE’s of dermatology

A 
assemetry- one 1/2 of the mole doesn't match the other
border irregularity 
color
diameter greater than 6 mm 
evolving -size, shape or color
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

basal cell carcinoma

A

common neoplasm caused by sun exposure

  • rarely metastasizes
  • most common type of skin cancer
    tx: excision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

basal cell carcinoma description

A

shiny, pearly, raised nodule +/- vascularity +/- ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

squamous cell carcinoma

A

2nd most common

appearance: ulcerated lesion with hard raised edges that bleeds intermittently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

melanoma

A 
3rd most common 
classic appearance- mole or small lesion 
-increase in size
-ABCDE's 
emergent dermatology referral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

squamous cell on the tongue

A

common in men over 50
smokers/tobacco chew and alcohol use
usually on the side or base of the tongue
*any persistent nodule is suspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

txtment of carcinoma of the tongue

A

removal and possible radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

oral pharyngeal cancers

A

90% squamous cells

sx: sore throat, dysphagia, weight loss, neck mass and trismus

19
Q

oral pharyngeal cancers txtment

A

surgery chemotherapy, radiation and monoclonal antibodies based on staging

20
Q

oral pharyngeal cancers is usually in

A

an advanced stage by the time the patient is symptomatic

21
Q

The American Joint Committee on Cancer recommend for the dx of oral pharyngeal cancer

A

CT scan of the head & neck with contrast followed by triple endoscopy (nasopharygeal, esophageal, and bronchoscopy) under general anesthesia to complete the staging process.

22
Q

causes of salivary gland tumors

A

infections
other cancers
dehydration
sarcoidosis

23
Q

salivary gland tumors

A
  • rare

- abnormal cells growing in the gland or in the tubes (duct) that drain the salivary glands

24
Q

sx of salivary gland tumors

A

firm
usually painless swelling in one of the salivary glands
the swelling gradually increases over months-years
facial nerve palsy-almost always correlates with malignancy (but salivary gland tumors should be considered)

25
Q

gold standard for salivary gland test

A

U/S
CT
MRI

26
Q

treatment for salivary gland

A

surgery
radiation therapy
chemotherapy

27
Q

oral leukoplakia

A

dx of exclusion of oral lesions -white plaques of questionable risk
that WILL NOT SCRAP OFF

28
Q

85% of erythroplakia are …

A

(velvety red plaques)

but are frank malignancy or severe epithelial dysplasia

29
Q

nonleukoplakia -white lesions

A 
infection caused by 
candidiasis
EBV (hairy leukoplakia)
HPV (warts)
syphilis
measles (koplik spots)

mucocutaneous disease
lichen planus
lupus erythematosus

30
Q

benign tongue lesions ddx

A

oral hairy leukoplakia (hairy tongue)
mucosal candidiasis
contact stomatitis (geographic tongue)

31
Q

myasthenia gravis sx hallmark

A

fluctuating weakness worsened with exercise and improved with rest
usually weakness involves proximal muscles diaphragm and neck extensors

32
Q

weakness in myasthenia gravis

A

is confined to eyelids and extraocular muscles in ~ 15% of patients

33
Q

other common symptoms of myasthenia gravis

A

ptosis, diplopia, dysarthria and dysphagia

34
Q

myasthenia gravis pathology

A

autoimmune
affects postsynaptic neuromuscular transmission by blocking them:
A resultant weakness occursfrom the blocked receptors
Can originate from a thymoma

35
Q

myasthenia gravis blood test

A

AchR-AB acetylcholine receptor antibodies test and refer to rhumatology

36
Q

reactive arthritis

A

reiters syndrome

-cant see, cant pee, cant climb a tree

37
Q

reiters syndrome is strongly affiliated with

A

Strong affiliation with HLA-B27

38
Q

sx of reiters syndrome

A 
Arthritis of large joints e.g. hips, knees, and ankles
Uveitis or conjunctivitis
Urethritis
-Usually follows an infection
-typically men 20-40 years old
39
Q

head to toe eval or reiters syndrome sx

A
  • Urethritis
  • Uveitis or conjunctivitis; uveitis can progress to blindness without treatment
  • Keratoderma blennorrhagicum, circinate balanitis
  • Hyperkeratotic lesions on soles of the feet, toes, penis, hands
  • Aortic regurgitation similar to ankylosing spondylitis
40
Q

reactive arthritis genetic test

A

HLA-B27 but not a diagnostic tool because can be on or off

41
Q

reactive arthritis

A 
Ankylosing spondylitis
Psoriatic arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Gonococcal arthritis-tenosynovitis
Rheumatic fever
42
Q

granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) presentation

A

epistaxis, hemoptysis, nasal discharge or polyarticular complaints

43
Q

GPA renal

A

The classic renal lesion is “pauci-immune glomerulonephritis.”
This is, by definition, rapidly progressive -> likely to have severe and rapid (<3 month) loss of kidney function, severe hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension and edema (variable depending on other factors)

HEENT (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions