Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

What are the sepsis-6?

A
  1. Administer oxygen.
  2. Take blood cultures.
  3. Give IV antibiotics According to Trust protocol.
  4. Give IV fluids if hypotensive/ lactate >2mmol/l
  5. Check serial lactates.
  6. Measure urine output.
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2
Q

What is the difference between PT and aPPT?

A

PT = Prothrombin time. Measures extrinsic system. Involves factor 7. Activated by external trauma.

aPPT = activated Partial thromboPlastin Time. Measures the intrinsic system. Involves factors (8,9,11,12). Activated by internal trauma.

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3
Q

Which factor is prothrombin? Which is thrombin?

Which coagulation pathway is it involved in?

A

Factor II is prothrombin, IIa is thrombin.

It is involved in the common coagulation pathway.

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4
Q

Which factor is fibrin/ fibrinogen?

Which coagulation pathway is it involved in?

A

Factor I is fibrinogen, factor Ia is fibrin.

It is involved in the common coagulation pathway.

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5
Q

What is CURB-65 and how is it calculated?

What does each score indicate?

A

Grades the severity of community acquired pneumonia:

  • C - confusion
  • U - blood Urea nitrogen
  • R - Respiratory rate >30
  • B - Blood pressure <90/60
  • 65 - Older than 65

Each category adds +1

0-1 indicates outpatient.
2 indicates inpatient.
3+ indicates ICU.

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6
Q

What is the difference between obstructive and restrictive respiratory disease?

How do both present on lung function tests?

A

Obstructive lung disease:

  • Makes it difficult for the patient to exhale the air.
  • Presents primarily with reduced FEV1, but also with reduced FVC just to a lesser extent.
  • As a result, FEV1/FVC RATIO IS <0.7.

Restrictive respiratory disease:

  • Makes it difficult for the patient to fully ventilate their lungs with air.
  • Presents primarily with reduced FVC, but also will show reduced FEV1
  • FEV1/FVC RATIO WILL BE NORMAL (>0.7)
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7
Q

How is Hodgkins lymphoma staged?

A

Stage I - found in 1 lymph node area or lymph organ.

Stage II - found in 2 or more lymph node areas the same side of the diaphragm OR the cancer extends from one lymph node area into a nearby organ.

Stage III - found in lymph node areas on both sides of the diaphragm OR in a lymph node above the diaphragm and in the spleen.

Stage IV - spread widely into at least one organ outside the lymphatic system (e.g. liver or bone marrow).

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8
Q

What is the treatment given for alcohol withdrawal?

A

Chlordiazepoxide (anaphylaxis for seizures).

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9
Q

What is the Glasgow coma score and how is it calculated?

A

There are 4 behaviours classified on the GCS:

Eye opening response:

  • Spontaneously +4
  • To speech +3
  • To pain +2
  • No response +1

Best verbal response:

  • Orientated to time, place and person +5
  • Confused +4
  • Inappropriate words +3
  • Incomprehensible sounds +2
  • No response +1

Best motor response:

  • Obeys command +6
  • Moves to localised pain +5
  • Flexion withdrawal from pain +4
  • Abnormal flexion +3 (adduction, pronation etc.)
  • Abnormal extension +2 (abduction, supination etc.)
  • No response +1
Normal = 15 
Mild = 13-15
Moderate = 9-12
Severe = 8 or lower
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10
Q

What is the difference between anticoagulants and antiplatelets?

A

Anticoagulants slow down the process of making clots by interfering with coagulation factors.

Antiplatelets prevent platelets from clumping together to make clots.

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11
Q

What are some common examples of both antiplatelets and anticoagulants?

A

Antiplatelets:

  • Clopidogrel (P2Y12 inhibitor)
  • Aspirin (COX1/2 inhibitor)

Anticoagulants:

  • Heparin (Antithrombin III promoter)
  • Warfarin (Vitamin K antagonist)
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12
Q

What are the different readings on an LFT and what do they mean?

A
  • ALT is found in high concentrations in the hepatocytes, and enters the blood following HEPATOCELLULAR INJURY.
  • ALP synthesis is increased following CHOLESTASIS (inability of bile to flow into the duodenum) AND BONE BREAKDOWN.
  • If ALP is raised and GGT is normal, suggests non-hepatobiliary pathology (e.g. vitamin D defficiency or bone fractures)
  • Hyperbilirubinaemia doesn’t always cause jaundice. The stool and urine help identify the cause:
  • Normal urine + normal stool = pre-hepatic cause
  • Dark urine + normal stool = hepatic cause
  • Dark urine + pale stool = post-hepatic cause.
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13
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

What is pharmacokinetics?

A
  • Pharmacodynamics refers to the effect a drug has on the body.
  • Pharmacokinetics refers to the manner in which the body handles a drug.
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14
Q
What class of drugs are:
Verapamil?
Ramipril?
Amlodipine?
Bisoprolol?
A
Verapamil = CCB
Ramipril = ACEI
Amlodipine = CCB
Bisoprolol = B-blocker
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15
Q

What are the different types of hypersensitivity? What are some examples of associated conditions? What are the general response times?

A
  • Type 1. Mediated by IgE. Associated with allergy, anaphylaxis and atopic disease. IMMEDIATE RESPONSE.
  • Type 2. Mediated by IgG or IgM. Example is Goodpasture’s syndrome (autoimmune condition involving the breakdown of type IV collagen). HOURS TO DAYS RESPONSE.
  • Type 3. Mediated by antigen-antibody complexes. Examples are RA and SLE. HOURS, DAYS OR WEEKS RESPONSE.
  • Type 4. T cell mediated, and known as delayed hypersensitivity. An example is contact dermatitis. 24 TO 72 HOUR RESPONSE TIME.
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16
Q

What are the classic X ray findings in heart failure?

A

“ABCDE”

  • Alveolar oedema (“bat wings”)
  • Kerley “b” lines
  • Cardiomegaly
  • Dilated upper lobe vessels
  • Effusion (pleural).
17
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome vs nephritic syndrome?

A
  • Nephrotic syndrome involves significant protein loss via the urine, causing hypoalbuminaemia and proteinuria.
  • Nephritic syndrome involves significant haematuria, along with mild to moderate proteinuria.
  • Both are usually due to kidney (glomerular) damage/inflammation.
18
Q

What are the features of rhematoid and osteoarthritis?

A

Rheumatoid LESS, Osteoarthritis LOSS:

L - Loss of joint space
E - Erosion
S - Soft tissue swelling
S - Soft bones

L - Loss of joint space
O - Osteophytes
S - Subchondral sclerosis
S - Subchondral cysts

19
Q

Which nerve and nerve routes are associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Median nerve.

- Arrises from the brachial plexus (C5-T1)

20
Q

How to remember the histological appearance of gout and pseudogout?

A
  • ” N+N” = Negative needles. This is gout.

- Pseudogout is the other one positive bifringent with rhomboid crystals.

21
Q

How can the symptoms of reactive arthritis be remembered?

A
  • Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree!

- Conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis.

22
Q

How can the causes of pancreatitis be remembered?

A

IGETSMASHED

I - Idiopathic
G - Gallstones
E - Ethanol (alcohol)
T - Trauma
S - Steroids
M - mumps
A - autoimmune
S - scorpion stings
H - Hyperlipidaemia/calcaemia/parathyroidism.
E - ERCP
D - Drugs (furosemide, thiazides and many others).
23
Q

What blood disorder can chronic alcoholism/chronic liver disease cause?

A
  • Macrocytosis.
24
Q

Which hepatitis is most common in travellers?

A
  • Hep A
25
Q

What is the pneumonic used to remember the 4 risk factors of cholelithiasis?

What is the other risk factor associated with cholelithiasis that isn’t included in the pneumonic?

A

” 4 F’s”

  • Female
  • Fat
  • Forty
  • Fertile (one or more children)

Also the contraceptive pill.

26
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for CKD?

A
  • eGFR<60 in two separate measurements at least 3 months apart.
27
Q

What hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland?

Which ones are secreted by the posterior pituitary?

Which ones are secreted from the hypothalamus?

A
ANTERIOR PITUITARY:
FSH
GH
Prolactin
TSH
ACTH

POSTERIOR PITUITARY:
Oxytocin
Vasopressin (ADH)

Hypothalamus:
TRH
CRH
Other hormones ending in -RH…

28
Q

What is the pneumonic to remember the symptoms/signs of Addison’s disease?

A
  • Tanned, tired, tearful, throwing up.

- Caused by adrenal insufficiency.

29
Q

What is a normal PR interval?

A
  • 0.12 - 0.20s
30
Q

What is HAS-BLED acronym used to calculate?

A
  • Risk of major bleeding for patients on anticoagulation.
31
Q

Which drugs improve prognosis for patients with heart failure?

A
  • ACEI
  • B-blocker
  • Diuretics may be prescribed, but only provide symptomatic relief and not a better prognosis.
32
Q

What are the three types of diuretics and their MOA?

A
  • Loop diuretics. Act on the ascending loop of Henle, and inhibit the sodium/potassium/chloride channels. This causes increased potassium, chlorine, and most importantly sodium (hyponatraemia) excretion and increased water excretion (diuresis). Side effect is increased calcium loss, and increased potassium loss. E.g. furosemide.
  • Thiazide diuretics. Inhibit the Na-Cl tube in the distal tubule. These diuretics also increase potassium loss. E.g. Hydrochlorothiazide.
  • Potassium sparing diuretics. These drugs do not act directly on sodium transport channels, and therefore do not cause hypokalaemia. E.g. Spironolactone, amiloride.
33
Q

What is the most common anti-motility agent?

A
  • Loperamide.
34
Q

Where and how does B12 absorption take place?

A
  • Requires the B12 to be attached to intrinsic factor secreted by the stomach.

Absorbed in the terminal ileum.

35
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the ECG changes seen with hyperkalaemia?

A

“Go, go wide, go tall, go long”

  • Small/absent P wave
  • Wide QRS complex
  • Tall tented T waves
  • Long PR interval