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Phase 2 v2 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Draw the gram +ve cocci flow chart.

A

Check diagram.

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2
Q

What is CAP?

What is the most common cause of CAP?

What is the treatment for the most common cause of CAP?

A

CAP = Community acquired pneumonia (pneumonia symptoms developing within 48 hours of hospital admission).

Most common cause of CAP:

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae.
  • Amocicillin is the 1st line treatment
  • Co-amoxiclav if unresponsive to amoxicillin or very ill (assess with CURB-65).
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3
Q

What is HAP?

What are some of the key causes of HAP?

What is the treatment generally?

A
  • Hospital acquired pneumonia. Symptoms develop after 48 hours of admission.

Key causes:

  • E. coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, pseudomonas aeruginosa, MRSA etc…

Treatment:

  • Usually coamoxiclav + gentamycin
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4
Q

What is the first line treatment for all streptococci?

A
  • Amoxicillin is the first line for all streptococci.
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5
Q

Draw the gram +ve bacilli flow chart.

A

Check notes for answers.

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6
Q

What type of bacteria is clostrium difficile?

A
  • A gram +ve, anaerobic bacilli.
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7
Q

What are the four main inticing agents for clostrium difficile infection?

A

“4 C’s”

  • Clindamycin
  • Cephalosporins
  • Co-amoxiclav
  • Ciprofloxacin
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8
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Clostrium difficile infection?

A
  • Treatment with any of “the 4 C’s” results in the disruption of normal gut flora.
  • This leaves the patient open for C. Diff colonization.
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9
Q

What is the treatment for C. Diff?

A

Vancomycin or oral fidaxomicin.

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10
Q

What is the classification of the neisseria species?

A
  • Gram -ve diplococci.
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11
Q

What are the two common types of neisseria, and what do they commonly cause?

A
  • Nesseria meningitidis (meningeal sepsis).
  • Nesseria gonorrhoea (Gonorrhoeal arthritis HAS THE SAME SYMTPOMS AS REACTIVE ARTHRITIS - “can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree” = uveitis, urethritis and arthritis).
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12
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis?

A
  • IV cefotaxime (cephalosporin) for all patients.
  • Add IV amoxicillin for the over 50’s/immunocompromised (to cover listeria monocytogenes infection).
  • One oral dose of ciprofloxacin should be given to all contacts.
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13
Q

How does bacterial meningitis CSF present?

A
  • Cloudy.
  • High WCC
  • High protein
  • Low glucose.
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14
Q

Draw the gram -ve bacilli flow chart.

A

Check answer in notes.

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15
Q

What is the only gram -ve coccobacilli?

A
  • Haemophilius influenza.
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16
Q

What is the primary cause of UTIs?

A
  • 85% caused by E. Coli.
17
Q

What is the treatment for UTIs?

A
  • Oral nitrofurantonin or trimethoprim.
  • In pregnancy, use cefalexin.
  • If simple, 3 day course. If complex, 7 day course.
18
Q

Which antibiotic classes disrupt cell wall synthesis?

A
  • Penicillins.
  • Cephalosporins.
  • Vancomycin (used for MRSA).
19
Q

Which antibiotic classes disrupt folate synthesis?

A
  • Sulfonamides.
  • Trimethoprim (hence why it is contraindicated in pregnancy).
20
Q

Which antibiotic class disrupts DNA gyrase?

A
  • Quinoline antibiotics (e.g. ciprofloxacin).
21
Q

Which antibiotic class disrupts RNA polymerase?

A
  • Rifampicin.
22
Q

Which antibiotic classes distrupt 50S subunits?

A
  • Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin which is used in penicillin allergy).
  • Clindamycin.
  • Chloramphenicol.
23
Q

Which antibiotics disrupt the 30S subunits?

A
  • Tetracyclines (e.g doxycycline).
24
Q

What are mycobacteria?

A
  • Atypical, fast growing bacilli.
25
Q

What is the only mycobacterium I need to know about?

A
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB).
26
Q
  • What are the four drugs used to treat TB? What are the associated side effects of each?
A
  • Isoniazid - Numb/tingling.
  • Ethambamol - Ocular side effects (“etham” = “eye”)
  • Rifampicin - Blood in urine (“R-“ for “red” which is blood).
  • Pyrazinamide - Arthralgia.
27
Q

What is the stain used for mycobacteria (e.g. TB)?

A

Ziehl-neeson stain.

28
Q

What is a key characeteristic of all mycobacteria?

A
  • Acid-fast bacilli.
29
Q

What is the suffix used on antifungal drugs?

How effective are they?

A

“-azole” (e.g. econazole).

Antifungals are not very effective overall.

30
Q

What are the two main fungal diseases I need to be aware of?

A
  • Candida. Usually the cause of a line/catheter infection, oral infection or vaginal infection.
  • Aspergilus fumigatus. Associated with chronic lung infection.
31
Q

How does Hep B serology work?

Markers are:

  • HBsAg.
  • Anti-HBc IgM and IgG.
  • HBsAb
  • IgG +Ve
  • IgG -Ve.
A

HBsAg = marker of active infetcion.

If +ve:

anti-HBc IgM = acute HBV infection.

Anti-HBc IgG = chronic HBV infection.

HbsAb = marker of immunity.

If +ve:

IgG +ve indicates a previous clearance of HBV, so natural immunity.

IgG -ve indicates a Hep B vaccine, so vaccine-induced immunity.

32
Q

What is the treatment for Hep C?

A
  • DAA (Direct acting antibodies).
33
Q

What is the biomarker associated with HIV?

How is HIV treated?

A
  • CD4+ cell count.
  • HAART (highly active anti-retroviral therapy).
34
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for HSV?

A
  • Acyclovir (an antiviral).
35
Q

What are protazoa?

What is the one protazoa I need to know about?

A
  • Protazoa - microscopic unicellular eukaryotes.
  • Malaria is the key example.
36
Q
  • What parts of the body does malaria infect?
A
  • Liver and RBC’s.
37
Q

What is the most important factor in a history regarding malaria?

A
  • Travel history.
38
Q

What is the most common protazoa that causes malaria?

A
  • P. falciparum.
39
Q

What is the treatment for malaria?

A
  • Chloroquine if uncomplicated.
  • IV artesunate if complicated malaria.

Phase 2 v2 (14 decks)

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