Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

402- Paediatrics > Miscellaneous > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Neonate age range

A

First 28 days of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infant age range

A

Up to 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Features of a mild-moderate allergic reaction (4)

A
  • Facial swelling
  • Urticaria
  • Itchy/ tingling in mouth/ throat
  • Gastro: vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal discomfort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Features of anaphylaxis ABCDE

A

Airway

  • Angioedema of airway
  • Tongue swelling
  • Stridor
  • Hoarse voice

Breathing

  • Tachypnoea
  • Hypoxia
  • Wheeze

Circulation

  • Shock/ hypotension
  • Weak pulse
  • Pale/ cold extremities

Disability

  • Reduced consciousness/ drowsiness
  • Eyes: swelling, conjunctivitis

Exposure
- Urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management of mild-moderate allergic reaction

A

If symptoms have resolved

  • Observation for a few hours
  • Discharge with antihistamines (chlorphrenamine)
  • Consider allergy clinic review

If symptoms still present

  • Oral antihistamines +/- oral steroids
  • Observe for few hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Initial management of anaphylaxis

A

ABCDE management

  • Establish airway
  • Maintain O2 >92%
  • Fluid resuscitation
  • IM adrenaline every 5 mins, max 3
  • IV adrenaline if IM fails
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Post-resus management of anaphylaxis

A

IM or slow IV Antihistamine (chlorphrenamine) or hydrocortisone

Oral anti-histamine/ prednisolone follow up

Adrenaline autoinjector for future events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Kawasaki’s disease epidemiology

A

Typically affects children < 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Feature of Kawasaki’s disease (ARDIO)

A

LymphAdenopathy
- Anterior cervical

Polymorphus Rash
- Due to light sensitivity

Distal changes of the extremities
- Erythema of hands and feet

Conjunctival injection
- Causing eye discomfort/ photophobia

Oral mucosa and lip changes

  • Strawberry tongue
  • Injected lips/ pharynx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Investigations for kawasaki’s disease

A

FBC

  • Neutrophilia
  • Leucocytosis
  • Increased platelets (in second week)

U+Es
- Hyponatraemia

CRP (>50) and ESR (>80)

ECG

Urine MCS
- Pyuria

Throat swab

Echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which children with Kawasaki’s disease are at the most risk of coronary artery aneurysm?

A

Age < 6 months and >5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management of Kawasaki’s disease + follow up

A

> 10 days from onset

  • Low dose aspirin
  • 3-5mg/kg/day for 6-8 weeks

<10 days / high risk of complications
- High dose IV IG 2g/Kg + high dose aspirin

Follow up echo with 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which vaccinations are required after treatment of Kawasaki’s disease?

A

Most likely to cause Reye syndrome with aspirin

  • Varicella
  • Influenza
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Definition of juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Arthritis in age < 16 for > 6 weeks, with other causes excluded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Subtypes of JIA

A

Oligoarticular (most common)

Polyarticular RF positive and negative

Enthesitis-related

Juvenile Psoriatic

Systemic onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Feature of systemic onset JIA

A

Daily fevers for at least 2 weeks that quickly becomes normal

Salmon pink rash

Lymphadenopathy

Enlarged spleen and liver

Serositis

Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Causes of primary noctrual enuresis

A 
Primary nocturnal (never been dry at night)
- Normal in <5

Has family history

Causes

  • Overactive bladder
  • High fluid intake
  • Failure to wake
  • Psychological distress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Causes of secondary enuresis

A

Wetting bed after at least 6 months of being dry at night

Causes

  • UTI
  • Constipation
  • DM
  • Psychosocial
  • Abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diurnal enuresis

- Causes

A

Daytime incontinence

Causes

  • Learning disability
  • Overactive bladder/ stress incontience
  • Constipation
  • Psychosocial
  • Recurrent UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Management of enueresis

A

Non-pharmacological
- Enuresis alarm

Pharmacological
- Has to be started by specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

_____ is the first line pharmacological treatment for nocturnal enuresis

A

Desmopressin

- Taken at bedtime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

______ is the first line medication for an overactive bladder

A

Oxybutinin

23
Q

________ is a tricyclic antidepressant that can be used for nocturnal enuresis

A

Imipramine

24
Q

Transient synovitis is associated with _______

A

Recent Hx of a Viral URTI

25
Q

Transient synvoitis typically presents in ages ____ and is more common in ______

A

Age 3-10

Boys > girls

26
Q

Presentation of transient synovitis

A

Typically, generally well
- Mild/ no fever

Limp + difficulty weight-bearing

Mild-moderate hip pain

Normal/ mild hip restriction

27
Q

________ must be ruled out before diagnosing transient synovitis

A

Septic arthritis

28
Q

Transient synovitis typically improves significantly in ______ and fully resolves in __________

A

48 hours

1-2 weeks

29
Q

Perthes disease arises from _______ of the ________

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral epiphysis

30
Q

Complications of perthes disease

A

Chronic pain

Hip osteoarthritis

31
Q

Perthes disease typically presents in ages ____ and is more common in ______

A

4-12

Boys

32
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease is caused by inflammation at the _______

A

Tibial tuberosity

33
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease typically presents in age _______ and presents primarily with ______

A

Age 10-15

Anterior knee pain

34
Q

Pathophysiology of Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

Inflammation of the tibial epiphyseal plate
- Arises from stresses like running/ jumping

Small avulsion fractures arising from patella tendon pulling small bone pieces.

35
Q

Presentation of Osgood-Schlatter diease

A

Anterior knee pain
- Worsens with movement

Swelling at tibial tuberosity
- Tender during active inflammation

36
Q

_______ and ______ of the knee worsen pain in Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

Kneeling and extension

37
Q

Management of Osgood Schlatter disease

A

Avoiding stressing activity

Icing

NSAID

After active inflammation

  • Stretching
  • Physiotherapy to strengthen tendon
38
Q

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis commonly presents in ages ______ and in _____ children

A

Ages 8-15 (boys)

Obese children

39
Q

Risk factors for a slipper upper femoral epiphysis

A

History of trauma

Obesity

Rapid growth spurt

Hypothyroidism

40
Q

Features of slipped upper femoral epiphysis

A

ACUTE Hip pain

  • Radiating to groin/ knee/ thigh
  • Prefer hip at external rotation

Restricted hip movement
- Especially internal rotation

Painful limp

Shortened affected limb

41
Q

Initial investigation for slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)

A

Pelvic X Ray

42
Q

Management of slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)

A

Surgery

43
Q

Brittle bone syndrome is known as ________

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

44
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by…

A

Group of genetic disorders

- Typically leads to abnormal Type 1 collagen formation

45
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is inherited in _______ fashion but mutations may be ______

A

Autosomal dominant

De novo

46
Q

The least severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta is ______ and the perinatally lethal type is _______

A
46
Q

The least severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta is ______ and the perinatally lethal type is _______

A

Least severe= type 1

Lethal type= Type 2

47
Q

Presentation of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Physical features

  • Blue/ grey sclera
  • triangular face
  • Short stature

MSK features

  • Dental problems
  • Bone deformities: bow legs, scoliosis
  • Joint/ bone pain

Functional

  • Hypermobility
  • Deafness from early adulthood.
47
Q

Presentation of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Physical features

  • Blue/ grey sclera
  • triangular face
  • Short stature

MSK features

  • Dental problems
  • Bone deformities: bow legs, scoliosis
  • Joint/ bone pain

Functional

  • Hypermobility
  • Deafness from early adulthood.
48
Q

Children are more likely to have _____ and _______fractures compared to adults

A

Greenstick and buckle/torus fractures

- As they have more cancellous, spongy bone,

49
Q

A salter harris fracture occurs at ______

A

The growth plate

50
Q

Salter-Harris growth plate fracture classification

- Type 1-5

A

SALTR

Type 1
- Straight through physis

Type 2
- Above the physis (metaphysis)

Type 3
- Below the physis (epiphysis)

Type 4
- Through the physis, metaphysis and epiphysis

Type 5
- Crush

51
Q

Gaucher’s disease is particularly prevalent in which population?

A

Ashkenazi jews

402- Paediatrics (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions