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Board Study > Misc. Topics > Flashcards

Misc. Topics Flashcards

1
Q

What are pharmacologic modalities used to treat postop shivering?

A
  • meperidine
  • clonidine
  • dexmedetomidine
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2
Q

O2 consumption is decreased by what percent for every 1 degree celcius dec. in body temp?

A

5-7%

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3
Q

Where is the esophageal temp probe best measured?

A
  • 1/3rd - 1/4th distal esophagus

- 38-42 cm past incisors

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4
Q

In a burn patient, when is it safe to give succs?

A
  • within the 1st 24 hrs
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5
Q

In burn pts, should the dose of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers be increased, decreased, or unchanged?

A
  • increased 2-3 fold

- d/t up regulation of extrajunctional receptors

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6
Q

What is the primary mechanism of heat loss in burn patients?

A

evaporation

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7
Q

What is normal intraocular pressure?

A

10-20 mmHg

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8
Q

What is the aqueous humor of the eye produced by?

A

ciliary process (posterior chamber)

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9
Q

What is the aqueous humor of the eye reabsorbed by?

A

canal of Schlemm (anterior chamber)

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10
Q

Do IV anticholinergics increase IOP?

A

No

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11
Q

Is ketamine a useful anesthetic agent for eye surgery?

A
  • No

- It causes rotary nystagmus and blepharospasm

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12
Q

Is succs a suitable muscle relaxant for a pt with an open globe injury?

A
  • succs inc. IOP by 5-15 mmHg for up to 10 min.
  • no reports of blindness - OK to use in pt w/ open eye injury and full stomach
  • Roc 1.2 mg/kg is also suitable
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13
Q

How do drugs reduce IOP?

A
  • they reduce aqueous humor production or facilitate aqueous humor drainage (miosis)
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14
Q

What are drugs the decrease aqueous humor production?

A
  • acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) dec. aqueous humor production
  • timolol (non-selective beta antagonist) dec. aqueous humor production
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15
Q

What are drugs that increase aqueous humor drainage?

A
  • echothiophate - irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor that promotes drainage via canal of Schlemm
  • it can prolong the duration of Succs & ester type LA
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16
Q

When using sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) bubble what are considerations with N2O?

A
  • discontinue 15 min before the bubble is placed

- avoid 7-10 days after bubble is placed

17
Q

What are alternatives to SF6 and what are the times to avoid N2O?

A
  • silicone oil = 0 days
  • air bubble = 5 days
  • Perfluoropropane (C3F8) = 30 days
18
Q

Where is LA injected for a TAP block?

A
  • between the IOM and transverse abdominis muscle
19
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants, Selective NE Reuptake Inhibitors, and Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors can be used to treat chronic pain. Which has the most significant side effects?

A
  • TCA
  • cause QT prolongation and orthostatic hypotension
  • Combo of SNRI and SSRI can precipitate serotonin syndrome
20
Q

What procedures do thoracic paravertebral blocks provide analgesia for?

A
  • breast surgery, thoracotomy, and rib fracture
21
Q

What is a celiac plexus block used for?

A
  • mgmt. of cancer pain of upper abdominal organs

- distal esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, small intestine, & colon (except descending colon)

22
Q

What are complications of a celiac plexus block?

A
  • orthostatic hypotension, retroperitoneal hematoma, hematuria, diarrhea, AAA dissection, back pain, retrograde migration of injectate
23
Q

What is a Superior Hypogastric Plexus Block used for?

A
  • mgmt. of cancer pain of pelvic organs

- uterus, ovaries, prostate, descending colon

24
Q

What are complications of a Superior Hypogastric Plexus Block?

A
  • retrograde migration of injectate (if neurolytic used)
25
Q

What antibiotics are contraindicated during pregnancy?

A
  • chloramphenicol
  • erythromycin
  • fluoroquinolones
  • tetracyclines
26
Q

What is the preferred method of skin prep prior to central line placement?

A
  • chlorohexadine

- alcohol based products are flammable and must be allowed 2 minutes to dry

27
Q

What procedure is associated with the highest risk of TB in healthcare personnel?

A
  • bronchoscopy

- intubation is 2nd

28
Q

What are the 2 most common S/E of zofran?

A
  • Headache

- Diarrhea

29
Q

What is the 1st sign of bone implantation syndrome in awake pt w/regional anesthesia and in the pt under GA?

A
  • dyspnea and altered mental status

- dec. EtCO2

30
Q

What is the first line treatment for bone implantation syndrome?

A
  • 100% FiO2
  • IV hydration
  • phenylephrine for hypotension
31
Q

What is the triad of fat embolism syndrome?

A
  • resp insufficiency (hypoxemia, bilat infiltrates on CXR, ARDs)
  • neurologic involvement (confusion to coma)
  • petechial rash (skin of neck & axilla, oral mucosa, conjunctiva)
32
Q

What is Samter’s triad?

A
  • ASA exacerbated resp disease
  • asthma
  • allergic rhinitis
  • nasal polyps
  • these its can develop life threatening bronchospasm after administration
33
Q

What is the #1 cause of anesthetic mortality?

A
  • human error

- 51-77% of all anesthetic related deaths

34
Q

What is the most common cause of equipment morbidity and mortality?

A
  • human error

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