Misc Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which drugs have an interaction with warfarin?

A
  • metronidazole
  • FQs
  • TMP/SMX
  • macrolides
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2
Q

Which drugs are CI in pregnancy?

A
  • FQs
  • TCNs
  • sulfa (TMP/SMX)
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3
Q

What are the common intracellular pathogens?

A
  • 3 types atypical pneumonia: Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella
  • Mycobacterium
  • Rickettsiae
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4
Q

Which abx classes have activity against intracellular pathogens?

A
  • FQs
  • TCNs
  • macrolides
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5
Q

Which abx require adjusted dosing for renal dysfunction?

A
  • penicillins (except nafcillin)
  • most cephs (except ceftriaxone)
  • vancomycin
  • TMP/SMX
  • aminogylcosides
  • TCNs (except doxy and minocycline)
  • FQs
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6
Q

Describe vancomycin monitoring.

A
  • peak trough levels
  • obtain around 4th dose (both or trough only)
  • 10-15 mcg/mL recommended
  • peak is controversial so many hospitals only do trough
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7
Q

Which abx class requires use of double coverage to treat Pseudomonas?

A

cephalosporins

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8
Q

What drug is used in treatment of CF?

A

monobactams

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9
Q

How is vancomycin administered and why?

A
  • IV for systemic infections

- it is NOT absorbed via the GI tract

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10
Q

What are some ways to prevent vancomycin resistance?

A

Discouraged use in:

  • prophylaxis for infection of vascular catheters
  • eradication of MRSA/CA-MRSA
  • primary tx for C diff
  • routine prophylaxis for VLBW infants
  • routine prophylaxis for peritoneal dialysis
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11
Q

What can be used to treat HCA-MRSA?

A
  • *vancomycin DOC**
  • TMP/SMX
  • Linezolid
  • Daptomycin
  • Televancin
  • Ceftaroline
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12
Q

What can be used to treat CA-MRSA?

A
  • mild to moderate: TMP/SMX, clindamycin, doxy

- severe: vancomycin

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13
Q

What can be used to treat VRE?

A
  • Linezolid
  • Quinupristin/Dalfopristin
  • Daptomycin
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14
Q

What drug interactions must be avoided with FQ use?

A
  • chelation (decreased absorption) with metal cations eg antacids, iron salts (take 2 hrs before or after)
  • theophylline (cipro)
  • warfarin
  • any meds that prolong QT interval (moxifloxacin)
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15
Q

What drugs can get to the CSF?

A
  • TMP/SMX

- metronidazole

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16
Q

What are aminoglycosides used in combination with and why?

A
  • beta lactams
  • beta lactams affect bacterial cell wall
  • weaker cell wall allows AGs to get in and affect protein synthesis
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17
Q

Which abx act on the 30S ribosome?

A
  • aminoglycosides

- tetracyclines

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18
Q

Which abx act on the 50S ribosome?

A
  • macrolides

- clindamycin

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19
Q

Which abx can be used to treat P. acnes?

A

-TCNs –> doxycycline

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20
Q

What is important to remember about erythromycin absorption?

A
  • destroyed by gastric acid

- food decreases absorption

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21
Q

Which drugs may cause QT prolongation and must be administered carefully?

A

-macrolides and FQs

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22
Q

Which abx has C. diff as a potential adverse effect?

A

-clindamycin

23
Q

What drug has a bad interaction w/ EtOH and what happens?

A
  • metronidazole
  • get a build up of acetaldehyde
  • causes nausea and flushing
  • no EtOH during tx or 3 days after
24
Q

What is the chief avoidable cause of illness and death in the US?

A

smoking/tobacco use

25
What is the most common infectious cause of death in the US?
community acquired pneumonia
26
What are the top 2 nosocomial infections in the US?
1. UTI | 2. HAP
27
What 2 drugs are used to treat Enterococcus?
IV ampicillin and gentamicin
28
Which macrolide has the highest bioavailability?
clarithromycin
29
What are three respiratory FQs?
Levofloxacin Moxifloxacin Gemifloxacin
30
What is the dosage for an oral prednisone burst for COPD exacerbation?
40 mg PO qday x5 days
31
What are the options for H. pylori treatment?
amoxicillin TCN clarithromycin metronidazole
32
What is used to treat Trichomoniasis?
metronidazole
33
Which abx require pharmacokinetic monitoring? Why?
vancomycin and AGs | due to ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity side effects
34
What is the FQ of choice for Pseudomonas?
cipro
35
Which macrolide has the most significant drug interactions?
erythromycin
36
Which macrolide has the fewest significant drug interactions?
azithromycin
37
Common Cervicitis/Proctitis/Urethritis Pathogens
Neisseria and Chlamydia
38
In asthma treatment, what are thrush, dysphonia and coughing side effects of?
Inhaled Corticosteroids
39
What are the 4th generation cephalosporins?
Cefipime | Ceftaroline
40
What asthma intervention prevents inflammation but does not treat it?
Leukotriene modifiers (Singulair/Montelukast)
41
What treatment can be used for nighttime asthma sxs or with prolonged exercise?
LAB2A
42
What is the treatment for atypical pneumonia?
``` resp FQs (eg moxifloxacin) macrolides doxycycline ```
43
What disease is caused by Rickettsiae?
Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever
44
What drug has good Gm+ and anaerobe coverage?
Clindamycin
45
For a decreased asthma response to PRN SABA, what is the treatment?
prednisone burst 3-10 days
46
Red Neck Syndrome is a side effect of what drug?
Vancomycin
47
Which cephalosporin has activity against MRSA?
Ceftaroline
48
What is indicated in Tx and Px of influenza A and B?
Oseltamivir and Zanamivir
49
Which cephalosporins has pseudomonas activity?
Ceftazidime, Cefipime
50
Which drug is most likely to cause seizures?
Imipenem
51
Which antibiotic has no absorption when given orally? What is the only indication for giving this drug orally?
- vancomycin | - c diff if it is unresponsive to metronidazole
52
What is essential therapy for persistent asthma?
ICS and PRN SAB2A
53
What agent is used to treat Chlamydia (STI)?
azithromycin or doxy