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Fall2014 - Pharm ID/Pulm > Misc Questions > Flashcards

Misc Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which drugs have an interaction with warfarin?

A
  • metronidazole
  • FQs
  • TMP/SMX
  • macrolides
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2
Q

Which drugs are CI in pregnancy?

A
  • FQs
  • TCNs
  • sulfa (TMP/SMX)
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3
Q

What are the common intracellular pathogens?

A
  • 3 types atypical pneumonia: Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella
  • Mycobacterium
  • Rickettsiae
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4
Q

Which abx classes have activity against intracellular pathogens?

A
  • FQs
  • TCNs
  • macrolides
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5
Q

Which abx require adjusted dosing for renal dysfunction?

A
  • penicillins (except nafcillin)
  • most cephs (except ceftriaxone)
  • vancomycin
  • TMP/SMX
  • aminogylcosides
  • TCNs (except doxy and minocycline)
  • FQs
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6
Q

Describe vancomycin monitoring.

A
  • peak trough levels
  • obtain around 4th dose (both or trough only)
  • 10-15 mcg/mL recommended
  • peak is controversial so many hospitals only do trough
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7
Q

Which abx class requires use of double coverage to treat Pseudomonas?

A

cephalosporins

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8
Q

What drug is used in treatment of CF?

A

monobactams

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9
Q

How is vancomycin administered and why?

A
  • IV for systemic infections

- it is NOT absorbed via the GI tract

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10
Q

What are some ways to prevent vancomycin resistance?

A

Discouraged use in:

  • prophylaxis for infection of vascular catheters
  • eradication of MRSA/CA-MRSA
  • primary tx for C diff
  • routine prophylaxis for VLBW infants
  • routine prophylaxis for peritoneal dialysis
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11
Q

What can be used to treat HCA-MRSA?

A
  • *vancomycin DOC**
  • TMP/SMX
  • Linezolid
  • Daptomycin
  • Televancin
  • Ceftaroline
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12
Q

What can be used to treat CA-MRSA?

A
  • mild to moderate: TMP/SMX, clindamycin, doxy

- severe: vancomycin

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13
Q

What can be used to treat VRE?

A
  • Linezolid
  • Quinupristin/Dalfopristin
  • Daptomycin
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14
Q

What drug interactions must be avoided with FQ use?

A
  • chelation (decreased absorption) with metal cations eg antacids, iron salts (take 2 hrs before or after)
  • theophylline (cipro)
  • warfarin
  • any meds that prolong QT interval (moxifloxacin)
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15
Q

What drugs can get to the CSF?

A
  • TMP/SMX

- metronidazole

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16
Q

What are aminoglycosides used in combination with and why?

A
  • beta lactams
  • beta lactams affect bacterial cell wall
  • weaker cell wall allows AGs to get in and affect protein synthesis
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17
Q

Which abx act on the 30S ribosome?

A
  • aminoglycosides

- tetracyclines

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18
Q

Which abx act on the 50S ribosome?

A
  • macrolides

- clindamycin

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19
Q

Which abx can be used to treat P. acnes?

A

-TCNs –> doxycycline

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20
Q

What is important to remember about erythromycin absorption?

A
  • destroyed by gastric acid

- food decreases absorption

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21
Q

Which drugs may cause QT prolongation and must be administered carefully?

A

-macrolides and FQs

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22
Q

Which abx has C. diff as a potential adverse effect?

A

-clindamycin

23
Q

What drug has a bad interaction w/ EtOH and what happens?

A
  • metronidazole
  • get a build up of acetaldehyde
  • causes nausea and flushing
  • no EtOH during tx or 3 days after
24
Q

What is the chief avoidable cause of illness and death in the US?

A

smoking/tobacco use

25
Q

What is the most common infectious cause of death in the US?

A

community acquired pneumonia

26
Q

What are the top 2 nosocomial infections in the US?

A
  1. UTI

2. HAP

27
Q

What 2 drugs are used to treat Enterococcus?

A

IV ampicillin and gentamicin

28
Q

Which macrolide has the highest bioavailability?

A

clarithromycin

29
Q

What are three respiratory FQs?

A

Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin
Gemifloxacin

30
Q

What is the dosage for an oral prednisone burst for COPD exacerbation?

A

40 mg PO qday x5 days

31
Q

What are the options for H. pylori treatment?

A

amoxicillin
TCN
clarithromycin
metronidazole

32
Q

What is used to treat Trichomoniasis?

A

metronidazole

33
Q

Which abx require pharmacokinetic monitoring? Why?

A

vancomycin and AGs

due to ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity side effects

34
Q

What is the FQ of choice for Pseudomonas?

A

cipro

35
Q

Which macrolide has the most significant drug interactions?

A

erythromycin

36
Q

Which macrolide has the fewest significant drug interactions?

A

azithromycin

37
Q

Common Cervicitis/Proctitis/Urethritis Pathogens

A

Neisseria and Chlamydia

38
Q

In asthma treatment, what are thrush, dysphonia and coughing side effects of?

A

Inhaled Corticosteroids

39
Q

What are the 4th generation cephalosporins?

A

Cefipime

Ceftaroline

40
Q

What asthma intervention prevents inflammation but does not treat it?

A

Leukotriene modifiers (Singulair/Montelukast)

41
Q

What treatment can be used for nighttime asthma sxs or with prolonged exercise?

A

LAB2A

42
Q

What is the treatment for atypical pneumonia?

A 
resp FQs (eg moxifloxacin)
macrolides
doxycycline
43
Q

What disease is caused by Rickettsiae?

A

Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever

44
Q

What drug has good Gm+ and anaerobe coverage?

A

Clindamycin

45
Q

For a decreased asthma response to PRN SABA, what is the treatment?

A

prednisone burst 3-10 days

46
Q

Red Neck Syndrome is a side effect of what drug?

A

Vancomycin

47
Q

Which cephalosporin has activity against MRSA?

A

Ceftaroline

48
Q

What is indicated in Tx and Px of influenza A and B?

A

Oseltamivir and Zanamivir

49
Q

Which cephalosporins has pseudomonas activity?

A

Ceftazidime, Cefipime

50
Q

Which drug is most likely to cause seizures?

A

Imipenem

51
Q

Which antibiotic has no absorption when given orally? What is the only indication for giving this drug orally?

A
  • vancomycin

- c diff if it is unresponsive to metronidazole

52
Q

What is essential therapy for persistent asthma?

A

ICS and PRN SAB2A

53
Q

What agent is used to treat Chlamydia (STI)?

A

azithromycin or doxy

Fall2014 - Pharm ID/Pulm (10 decks)

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