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Qoy > Misc. > Flashcards

Misc. Flashcards

1
Q

Congenital QT-prolongation w/ deafness

A

Jervell Lange Neilsen (AR)

Romano Ward (AD) with no deafness

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2
Q

Diagnose Toxic Megacolon with

A

Plain Flat Xray

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3
Q

antioxidants:

1) Dexrazoxane?
2) Amifostine?

A

1) Iron chelating agent

2) nephroprotection during cisplatin (platinum) therapy

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4
Q

HIV gp41 function?

A

undergoes conformational change necessary for the virus to fuse with host

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5
Q

What vitamin is coA derived from? What step of the TCA cycle would this end up being necessary for?

A

Pantothenic acid; step 1: OAA+coA-> citrate

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6
Q

Patient presents with tingling in the feet with absent reflexes, and also has diarrhea

A

Camylobater (via Guianne Barre)

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7
Q

Treatment for P. Aeruginosa? What diseases does this cause?

A

ceftazidime (3rd gen), cefepime (4th gen), swimmer’s ear (otitis externa), burns

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8
Q

Name a fungus that causes disease in the immunoCOMPETENT? Name some that cause disease in the compromised?

A

competent: blastomyces dermatitidis

compromised:
- candida albicans
- pneumocystis jiroveci (pulmonary in HIV+)
- aspergillus fumigatus (aspergillosis in immunocompromised, aspergillomas in old lung cavities, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis in asthma)
- mucor (diabetic ketoacidosis)

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9
Q

S4? Sound? Pathophys? Clinical significance?

A

“ba-dum-tish” , decreased left ventricular compliance, restrictive cardiomyopathy/left ventricular hypertrophy

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10
Q

Pathophys of Polycythemia Vera (JAK stat mut.)? [Jak= non-receptor tyrosine kinase]

A

Increased sensitivity of hematopoeitic stem cells to growth factors

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11
Q

Name a chemical in stored plasma and how it can affect blood electrolyte levels.

A

Citrate can chelate Calcium and Magnesium

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12
Q

Contraindications to OCP

A

SMOKING, hypertriglyceridemia, hx of thombosis, hx of estrogen dependent tumor, liver disease

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13
Q

Which GI drug raises TGL? Review the other GI drugs

A

Cholestyramine

  • fibrates (decrease only TGL via induction of LPLipase (PPAR-a)
  • ezetimibe decreases absorption of cholesterol
  • niacin (B3) reduces VLDL and LDL and increases HDL, tx flushing with ASPIRIN
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14
Q

What causes amenorrhea in anorexic patients?

A

Loss of pulsatile GnRH (hypothalamic issue)

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15
Q

Polyphagia, polydypsia, polyuria, weight loss, fatigue. Dx? How would you test for this?

A

DM type I; fasting blood sugar

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16
Q

NADPH oxidase deficiency?

A

CGD

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17
Q

Most important uses of Macrolides?

A

MCL! atypical pneumonias: Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella.

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18
Q

IL-3 vs. IL-5 vs. IL-2

A

IL3: bone marrow stimulation IL5:eosinophil recruitment (secreted by TH2)

IL-2: stimulates T, B, NK, and monocytes.

Activation of NK cells is thought to attack RCC (aldesleukin)

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19
Q

Pathophys of MVP?

A

Myxomatous degeneration (connective tissue disorder)

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20
Q

nonseptate hyphae w/wide angle branching?
germ tube formation at 37degrees, pseudohyphae?
Spherules?
Round narrow-based buds?
Septate Hyphae with V-shaped branching?
Dimorphic ovoid intracellular fungus (macrophages)

A 
Mucor, Rhizopus
Candida Albicans
Coccidioides immitis
Cryptococcus neoformans
Aspergillus fumigatus
Histoplasma Capsulatum
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21
Q

signs of chronic alcohol abuse (liver enzyme, hematologic)

A

AST:ALT>2 , macrocytosis

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22
Q

How to treat homocystinuria? (cystathionine synthetase def., needs B6)

A

High dose pyridoxine. B6

(methionine, s-adenosyl methionine, s-adenosyl homocystine, homocysteine)

(homocysteine, cystathionine, cystein) all need B6 cofactors

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23
Q

Protease inhibitors. 3 examples and 3 adverse effects

A

(-navir) Saquinavir, indinavir, ritonavir

lipodystrophy (fat deposition), hyperglycemia, P450 inhibitor

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24
Q

What bony landmark does the pudendal nerve run by?

A

Ischial spine

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25
Q

Failure of meiosis 1 leads to? What about meiosis 2?

A

primary spermatogonia buildup; secondary buildup

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26
Q

What can you see in the liver in sarcoidosis?

A

Scattered granulomas

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27
Q

What is glomeruloid histology called and where are they seen?

A

Schiller-Duval Bodies; endodermal sinus tumors

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28
Q

What is Mieg’s syndrome? Where is it found?

A

Triad of FAP: Ovarian Fibromas, Ascites, Hydrothorax (PEffusion)

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29
Q

What are call-exner bodies and where are they seen?

A

Eosinophilic follicle-like structures seen in Theca-Granulosa tumors

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30
Q

What ovarian tumor produces AFP?
What tumor do you see intraperitoneal mucin accumulation (pseudomyxoma peritonei)?
Psammoma bodies?

A

Yolk-sac (endodermal sinus) tumor
Mucinous Cystadenocarcinoma
Serous Cystadenocarcinoma

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31
Q

3 most common causes of bacterial meningitis in NEONATES

A

1) Group B. Strep (S. Agalactiae)
2) E. Coli
3) Listeria Monocytoges

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32
Q

Most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults of all ages and what is its morphology and gram stain. What are the 3 things this typically causes (including meningitis)?

A

Strep Pneumoniae! Lancet-shaped gram+ cocci

1) community acquired pneumonia
2) otitis media
3) meningitis

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33
Q

Cilostazol and Dipyridamole

A

PDE3 inhibitor, leads to decreased platelet ADP and also vasodilates (compare to sildenafil)

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34
Q

What classes are each of these and which one actually increases C peptide? [glybruide or rosiglitazone]

A

glyburide: sulfonylurea, increases insulin secretion (more C peptide)
rosiglitazone: thiazoladinedione, increases insulin sensitivity

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35
Q

What can cause profuse, watery, non-bloody diarrhea in people with AIDS? What would you see on biopsy results?

A

Cryptosporidiosis; basophilic clusters on intestinal mucosa seen on biopsy

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36
Q

Which bursa is affected in “housemaid’s knee”

A

prepatellar bursa (seen in gardners, carpenters, plumbers, roofers, etc.)

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37
Q

What effect does beta blockade exert on thyroid metabolism?

A

Blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

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38
Q

Patients with strokes are at increased risk for?

A

Strokes

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39
Q

Varenicline?

A

partial nicotinic ACh agonist used in smoking sessation

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40
Q

Where do the following exit?

  • V2
  • V3
  • middle meningeal artery
A
  • foramen rotundum
  • foramen ovale
  • foramen spinosum
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41
Q

Screening for malabsorption?

A

Sudan III stool stain

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42
Q

Most common location of MRSA colonization

A

Anterior nares

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43
Q

What enzyme is responsible for the changing of colors in a bruise?

A

Heme oxygenase (heme->biliverdin)

44
Q

What uses the JAK/STAT pathway? MAP-kinase?

A

JAK/STAT: GROWTH HORMONE, prolactin, Colony-stim factors, and cytokines.

MAP-Kinase: EGF, PDGF, FGF (growth factor receptors)

45
Q

Abx for anaerobes?

A

“CAB” Clostridium Tetani +, Actinomyces +, Bacteriodes -

Metronidazole
Clindamycin

(GET GAP on the metronidzole)
Giardia
Entameoba
Trichomonas
G. Vaginalis
anaerobics
Pylori
46
Q

3 causes of newborn sepsis?

A

“GEL” Group B Strep, E. Coli, Listeria Monocytogenes (no cheese while pregnant)

47
Q

Age-related macular degeneration. Pathophys and tx

A

Caused by increased vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) which causes angiogenesis; tx with anti-VEGF therapy

48
Q

What is synapthophysin?

A

Stain for CNS tumor of neuronal origin

49
Q

Main use of sulfonamides? Nitrofurantoin?

A

UTI prophylaxis; UTI

50
Q

Fluoroquinolone use? Usually not used in children but what’s the exception?

A

Mostly gram negative, (3rd gen levofloxacin and moxifloxacin does have some gram + coverage though).

Risk of tendon rupture, but used in Cystic Fibrosis in kids with pseudomonas.

51
Q

In dehydration, what would happen to the filtration fraction? Explain

A

Decreased renal perfusion, decreased GFR (but is bumped back up a little by RAAS compensation) and wayyy more decreased RPF, so FF goes up

52
Q

What is orthopnea and what is it a sign of?

A

Supine dyspnea relieved upon sitting up; left-heart failure

53
Q

What does the QT interval represent? AP correlation? Name a class of drugs that can prolong the QT interval?

A

Ventricular repolarization (ventricles preparing for the next beat); correlates with K+ efflux. Sotalol prolongs QT

54
Q

Skin aging caused by?

A

DECREASE in collagen production

55
Q

antidepressant that doesnt cause sexual dysfunction?

A

burproprion. (remember trazodone causes priapism)

56
Q

formula for RBF (renal BLOOD flow)

A

RBF=RPF/(1-hematocrit)

57
Q

Compare and contrast lab values for DIC vs TTP (4 pointers)

awesome table uworld 548117 qid 1298, #12 in the second test of 5/20/14

A

DIC:

1) bleeding

58
Q

What is cefTRIaxone used to treat? ciprofloxacin?

A

cef: gram- AEROBIC bacilli: h. flu, klebsiella, neisseria, serratia
cipro: gram- ANAEROBIC rods/bacilli: legionella, pseudomonas

59
Q

Vancomycin mech and uses?

A

inhibits peptidoglycan SYNTHESIS, gram+ MRSA, MRSE, and c. diff (oral)

60
Q

macrolide mech and uses?

A

50S inhibitor, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, H. flu, moraxella

61
Q

Which diuretic has hyperlipidemia as a side effect?

Ototoxicity? What other drugs cause ototoxicity.

A

Thiazide

Furosemide!!! Aminoglycosides, vancomycin, Cisplatin

62
Q

MDR1 (multidrug resistance protein 1)

A

p-glycoprotein, a transmembrane ATP-dependent efflux pump that pumps out toxins

63
Q

Major cause of AAA? Aortic dissection?

A

AAA: Atherosclerosis (intimal streak)

AD: intimal tear

64
Q

Tacrolimus vs Sirolimus vs cyclosporin vs daclizumab

A

Tacrolimus and cyclosporin reduce the PRODUCTION of IL-2 while Sirolimus and daclizumab reduce the RESPONSE to IL-2

(tacrolimus binds to FK binding proteins which inhibits calcineurin)

(sirolimus binds to FK binding protein 12 which inhibits mTOR, mammalian target of rapamycin)

(cyclosporin binds to cyclophilins which inhibs calcineurin)

(daclizumab binds to the IL-2R which is CD25)

65
Q

Injury to the capillaries adjacent to the alveoli?

A

ARDS

66
Q

Germline mosacism vs pleiotropy vs penetrance

allelic heterogeneity

A

GM: mutation in the offspring but not the parents (mutation in early embryonic development that ends up in 2 or more different cell lines)

Pleiotropy: one gene having an impact on multiple phenotypic traits

Penetrance: the proportion of a population with a genotype that expresses that phenotype

Allelic heterogeneity - different mutations in the same genetic locus cause similar phenotypes

67
Q

4 most common causes of rhinitis?

Most common tonsilitis?

A

“take CARE of your sinus infection’

Coronavirus, Adenovirus, Rhinovirus, Echovirus

Group A Strep Pyogenes

68
Q

false positive rate

A

1-specificity

69
Q

Most common viral encephalitis? Where does it usually attack?

A

HSV, frontotemporal

70
Q

Ddx for signet ring cells? (2)

A
  • metastatic gastric adenocarcinoma

- lobular carcinoma in situ of the breast

71
Q

Ondansetron/Granisetron vs. Sumitriptan (mech, effect on vasculature)

A

Ondansetron: Serotonin 5HT3 antagonist, vasodilation (headaches)
Sumitriptan: Serotonin 5HT1 agonist, vasoconstriction (headache relief)

72
Q

Metoclopramide

A

prokinetic, used with diabetic gastroparesis

5HT4 agonist, D2 antagonist

73
Q

4 obligate aerobes

A

“Nagging pests must breathe”

Nocardia
Pseudomonas
Mycobacterium
Bacillus

74
Q

What are the two most abundant bacterial species in the gut? Characteristics?

A

Bacterioides Fragilis, E. Coli

gram -
facultative anaerobes

75
Q

Dementia w/ Lewy Bodies distinguishing characteristics

A

Syncope, Falls, visual hallucinations

76
Q

Trousseau Syndrome. (seen in many things including pancreatic adenoCA). vs Trousseau sign

A

Triad of 1) hypercoag 2) venous thrombosis 3) migratory thrombophlebitis

Sign: hypOcalcemia; inflate bp cuff and get capopedal spasm

77
Q

Zone 1 vs Zone 3 of liver

A

Zone 1 most affected by viral hepatitis

Zone 3, subject to ischemia, has P450

78
Q

Lactulose

A

traps ammonia in the gut so it’s excreted in the stool; treats hepatic encephalopathy

79
Q

Triad of Hemochromatosis

A

1) Pigmentation (bronze diabetes) 2) diabetes 3) CIRRHOSIS

80
Q

IFN-alpha treats? beta?

A

alpha- Hepatitis B and C

beta - Multiple Sclerosis

81
Q

What is Reynold’s pentad? What triad is “embedded in it?” What is another triad of this triad describes lol?

A

charcot triad: 1) Jaundice 2) Fever 3) RUQ pain

reynold’s: 4) hypotension 5) altered mental status

ANOTHER charcot SIN triad for MS:

1) Scanning speech 2) intention tremor, internuclear opthalmoplegia, incontinence 3) nystagmus

82
Q

Murphy’s sign

A

Pain on inspiration due to cholecystitis

83
Q

PBS vs PSC

A

women; men
anti-AMA; p-ANCA
autoimmune; assoc. w/UC and cholangioCA, “beads on a string”

84
Q

Paramesonephric Ducts?

A

Fallopian Tubes, Uterus, Upper Vagina

85
Q

Virchow’s Triad

A

Venous stasis, hypercoaguability, endothelial damage

86
Q

Positive vs Negative Selection

A

Positive: select the ones that have enough MHC affinity
Negative: select the ones that don’t have TOO MUCH affinity.

87
Q

What do the following inhibit: Foscarnet, Acyclovir, Lamivudine, Ganciclovir, Amantadine, Oseltamivir

Which one doesn’t need intracellular activation, and what is this used for.

A

Foscarnet: DNA pol, reverse transcriptase (pyrophosphate analog)
Acyclovir: herpesviral DNA replication (nucleoside analog)
Lamivudine: HIV reverse transcription, through chain termination (cytosine analog, NRTI)
Ganciclovir: DNA pol [CMV] (guanine analog)
Amantadine: viral uncoating (binds M2 ion channel)
Oseltamivir: neuraminidase (sialic acid analogue)

Foscarnet doesn’t need activation, so it’s used for acyclovir-resistant herpes or ganciclovir-resistant CMV

88
Q

“Direct” Xa inhibitors?
Direct thrombin inhibitors?
When do you use these classes?

A

Fondaparinux (activates antithrombin), LMWH (enoxaparin, dalteparin), -xaban’s
Argatroban, -lirudin’s

these are used if patient has Heparin-induced-thrombocytopenia

89
Q

Which “anginas” have ST elevation and which have depression.

A

Prinzmetal has elevation, Stable/unstable have depression.

90
Q

What markers reflect osteoblastic activity? Osteoclastic?

A

blastic: alk phos
clastic: tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase, urine hydroxyproline, urine deoxypyridinolinedre

91
Q

post MI: Pericardial friction rub, autoimmune pericarditis, fever

A

Dressler’s Syndrome

92
Q

treatment of choice for listeria?

A

ampicillin

93
Q

Valsalva maneuver does what to most murmurs? What is the exception. What does squatting do to this exception.

A

Makes most quiet, except for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Squatting makes this murmur softer.

94
Q

Jejunal ulcers

A

gastrinoma

95
Q

anesthetics typically do what to blood flow in what areas

A

mostly decrease bloodflow to kidneys and liver but increase it to brain

96
Q

which vit. D. reaction does sunlight catalyze

A

7-dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol

97
Q

Which 2 biostats are affected by prevalence?

A

PPV (increases as prevalence increases)

98
Q

tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4) def. would affect which pathways?

A

Tyrosine, dopa, serotonin synthesis. (BH4 to BH2 via dihydrobiopterin reductase)

99
Q

What are some side effects of lithium?

A

HYPOTHYROIDISM, nephrogenic DI, ebstein anomaly, tremor

100
Q

beta blockers have what secondary MoA

A

decreased renin release from JGA

101
Q

LAD infarct shows ST elevation in which leads? RCA? Circumflex?

A

V1-V4
II, II, avF
V5, V6

102
Q

collagen synthesis overview

A

Vit C - proline and lysine hydroxylated in the rER

Copper - lysyl oxidase for cross linking in extracellular compartment

103
Q

cause of Addison’s disease

A

autoimmune destruction of the adrenals, leading to decreased production of aldosterone and cortisol

104
Q

Heparin affects what coag lab value?

Warfarin?

A

Heparin prolongs the PTT

Warfarin prolongs the PT

105
Q

labs in vWF disease?

A

increased PTT, increased bleeding time

(vWF stabilizes VIII, hence PTT increase, also helps platelets aggregate, hence bleeding time increase).

note: aspirin only increases bleeding time
DIC has all 3 labs increased

106
Q

TIClopidine, ClopidoGREL, TICaGRELor, prasuGREL

EptiFIBatide, tiroFIBan, abciximab

A

ADP receptor antagonists

bind directly to GPIIbIIIa

Qoy (16 decks)

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