Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Acute mountain sickness

A

generally a self-limiting condition. Features of AMS start to occur above 2,500 - 3,000m, developing gradually over 6-12 hours and potentially last a number of days:
* Headache * Nausea
* Fatigue

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2
Q

Prevention and treatment of AMS

A

The risk of AMS may actually be positively correlated to physical fitness
* Gain altitude at no more than 500 m per day
* Acetazolamide (a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) is widely used to prevent AMS and has a
supporting evidence base
* Treatment: descent

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3
Q

high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)

A

Descent
* Dexamethasone, nifedipine, phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors (Sildenafil)
* Oxygen if available

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4
Q

Hereditary Angioedema Description of disease

A

autosomal dominant condition associated with low plasma levels of the C1 inhibitor (C1-INH) protein. C1-INH is a multifunctional serine protease inhibitor - the probable mechanism behind attacks is uncontrolled release of bradykinin resulting in edema of tissues

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5
Q

Hereditary Angioedemam investigation

A
  • C1-INH level is low
  • Low C2 and C4 levels are seen, even between attacks
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6
Q

Hereditary Angioedemama Symptoms

A

Symptoms
* Attacks may be proceeded by painful macular rash
* Painless, non-pruritic swelling of subcutaneous/submucosal tissues
* May affect upper airways, skin or abdominal organs (can occasionally present as abdominal pain due to visceral edema)
* Urticaria is not usually a feature

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7
Q

Hereditary Angioedemama management

A

Acute: IV C1-inhibitor concentrate or FFP
* Anabolic steroid; Danazol may help

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8
Q

Galactosemia

A

a rare autosomal recessive condition caused by the absence of galactose-1- phosphate uridyl transferase. This results in intracellular accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate
Features
* Jaundice
* Failure to thrive
* Hepatomegaly
* Cataracts
* Hypoglycemia after exposure to galactose
* Fanconi syndrome
Diagnosis
* Urine reducing substances

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9
Q

DVT Risk Factors:

A

Hematological
* Thrombophilia: e.g. Activated protein C resistance, protein C and S deficiency
* Polycythemia
* Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
* Hyperviscosity syndrome
Autoimmune
* Antiphospholipid syndrome * Behcet’s
Drugs
* Combined oral contraceptive pill: 3rd generation more than 2nd generation
* Antipsychotics (especially olanzapine) have recently been shown to be a risk factor
Other conditions
* Homocystinuria

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10
Q

Motion sickness

A

describes the nausea and vomiting which occurs when an apparent discrepancy exists between visually perceived movement and the vestibular systems sense of movement.
Management
* The BNF recommends hyoscine (e.g. Transdermal patch) as being the most effective treatment. Use is limited due to side-effects
* Non-sedating antihistamines such as cyclizine or cinnarizine are recommended in preference to sedating preparation such as promethazine

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11
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) (Acute)

A
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Defect in porphobilinogen deAminase
  • Results accumulation of delta aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen
  • ♀s, 20-40 year olds more likely to be affected (♀5:1)
  • Typically present with abdominal symptoms, neuropsychiatric symptoms
  • Hypertension and tachycardia common
  • Urine turns deep red on standing
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12
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) (Acute) Features

A

Abdominal: abdominal pain, vomiting
* Neurological: motor neuropathy
* Psychiatric: e.g. Depression
* Hypertension and tachycardia common
* No feces porphyria (can not be detected in
stool)

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13
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) Diagnosis

A

Classically urine turns deep red on standing
* Raised urinary porphobilinogen (elevated between attacks and to a greater extent during acute attacks)
* Assay of red cells for porphobilinogen deaminase
* Raised serum levels of delta aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen

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14
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) treatment

A

Hematin: needs to be given very early in an attack to be effective. Effectiveness varies among individuals. They are not curative drugs, but can shorten attacks and reduce the intensity of an attack

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15
Q

Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) (Non-acute)

A
  • Most common hepatic porphyria
  • 80% sporadic and 20% autosomal dominant
  • No neurological consequences only urine porphyria
  • The exact frequency is not clear because many people with PCT never experience symptoms
  • Defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
  • May be caused by hepatocyte damage e.g. Alcohol, estrogens
  • Classically photosensitive rash with bullae, skin fragility on face and dorsal aspect of hands
  • Urine: elevated uroporphyrinogen and pink fluorescence of urine under wood’s lamp
  • Manage with chloroquine
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16
Q

Variegate porphyria

A

Autosomal dominant
* Defect in protoporphyrinogen oxidase
* Photosensitive blistering rash
* Abdominal and neurological symptoms
* More common in south africans

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17
Q

Kartagener’s syndrome

A

(also known as primary ciliary dyskinesia) was first described in 1933 and most frequently occurs in examinations due to its association with dextrocardia (e.g. ‘quiet heart sounds’, ‘small volume complexes in lateral leads’)

Features
* Dextrocardia or complete situs inversus
* Bronchiectasis
* Recurrent sinusitis
* Subfertility (secondary to diminished sperm motility and defective ciliary action in the fallopian
tubes)

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18
Q

Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

A

is an uncommon manifestation of mediastinal masses, but it is particularly for small-cell lung cancer.
Treatment depends on the cause and pace of the progression of symptoms.
* Although SVCO is an emergency in the presence of airway compromise, where possible it is
important to get tissue for a histological diagnosis, as some tumours are better treated with chemotherapy than radiotherapy. In this case, if feasible, a bronchoscopy would probably provide tissue for a diagnosis.
* For most tumours, radiotherapy is a good treatment and relieves symptoms in 90% of patients within 2 weeks.
* Patients should be sat up and given oxygen to provide initial relief.
* In severe cases high-dose steroids can be helpful.
* For patients with recurrent SVCO, insertion of expandable wire stents under radiological
guidance provides relief in a high proportion of patients.

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19
Q

Amyloidosis: diagnosis

A

iagnosis:
* Biopsy of abdominal wall fat, the rectum or a salivary gland can be examined for evidence of
characteristic amyloid deposits. The tissue is treated with Congo red stain, which combined
with polarized light makes the amyloid proteins appear apple-green on microscopy.
* Abdominal wall fat biopsy is not completely sensitive, and sometimes biopsy of an involved
organ (such as the kidney) is required to achieve a diagnosis
* The nature of the amyloid protein (type) can be determined by various ways:
o Protein electrophoresis or light chain determination
o Binding of particular antibodies to the amyloid found in the tissue
o Extraction of the protein and identification of its individual amino acids

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20
Q

AL amyloid

A

o L for immunoglobulin Light chain fragment
o Due to myeloma, Waldenstrom’s, MGUS
o Features include: cardiac and neurological involvement, macroglossia, periorbital
eccymoses

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21
Q
  • AA amyloid
A

A for precursor serum amyloid A protein, an acute phase reactant o Seen in chronic infection/inflammation
o E.g. TB, bronchiectasis, rheumatoid arthritis
o Features: renal involvement most common feature

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22
Q
  • β-2 microglobulin amyloidosis
A

Precursor protein is β-2 microglobulin, part of the major histocompatibility complex o Associated with patients on renal dialysis

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23
Q

Cardiac amyloidosis

A

Cardiac amyloidosis most commonly presents as restrictive cardiomyopathy, associated with AL Amyloidosis
Presentation:
* Typical presentation of right heart failure: o Jugular venous distension
o Peripheral oedema
o Orthopnoea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea are typically absent

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24
Q

POEMS Syndrome

A

Polyneuropathy, Organomegaly, Endocrinopathy or Edema, M-protein and Skin abnormalities

plasma-cell proliferative disorder (typically myeloma), polyneuropathy and organomegaly. Average age of onset is 50 years, ♂:♀ 2:1. Its 5 years survival is 60% if untreated

Management:
* No treatment was found, just correct the hematological abnormality
* Conventional treatments for demyelinating neuropathy (Steroids, IV immunoglobulin and
plasma exchange) are ineffective; treatment must be aimed at the hematological disorder.

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25
Q

Systemic Mastocytosis

A

Results from a neoplastic proliferation of mast cells

Features
* Urticaria pigmentosa - produces a wheal on rubbing (Darier’s sign)
* Flushing
* Abdominal pain
* Monocytosis on the blood film

Diagnosis
* Raised serum tryptase levels
* Urinary histamine

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26
Q

CA 125

A

Ovarian cancer

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27
Q

CA 19-9

A

Pancreatic cancer

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28
Q

CA 15-3

A

Breast cancer

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29
Q

Thymomas associated with

A

are the most common tumor of the anterior mediastinum

Associated with
* Myasthenia gravis (30-40% of patients with thymoma)
* Red Cell Aplasia
* Dermatomyositis
* Also : SLE, SIADH

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30
Q

Testicular choriocarcinomas:

A

Diagnosis:
* Primary tumour can be very small and go undetected on testicular examination.
* Marked ↑ in β-HCG in the presence of a normal AFP and CEA.
* Scrotal ultrasound is used to support the diagnosis
* CTs are of significant value for staging.

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31
Q

Otitis externa Causes

A
  • Infection: bacterial (Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa) or fungal
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Contact dermatitis (allergic and irritant)
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32
Q

Otitis externa features

A

Ear pain, itch, discharge
* Otoscopy: red, swollen, or eczematous canal

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33
Q

Initial management of otitis externa

A

Topical antibiotic or a combined topical antibiotic with steroid

  • If the tympanic membrane is perforated aminoglycosides should not be used
  • If there is canal debris then consider removal
  • If the canal is extensively swollen then an ear wick is sometimes inserted
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34
Q

Malignant otitis externa

A

more common in elderly diabetics.

In this condition there is extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal.

Intravenous antibiotics may be required.

35
Q

Meniere’s disease Features

A

Recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss (sensorineural). Vertigo is usually the prominent symptom
* A sensation of aural fullness or pressure is now recognised as being common
* Other features include nystagmus and a positive Romberg test (patient can’t stand-alone when
eyes closed and feet together)
* Episodes last minutes to hours

36
Q

Meniere’s disease Management

A

ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis

  • Patients should inform the DVLA. The current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved
  • Acute attacks: buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine. Admission is sometimes required
  • Prevention: betahistine may be of benefit
37
Q

Tinnitus:

A

Meniere’s Disease
Otosclerosis
Acoustic neuroma
Hearing loss
Drugs - Aspirin Aminoglycosides Loop diuretics Quinine

38
Q

Ramsay Hunt syndrome:

A

(herpes zoster oticus) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve.
Features
* Auricular pain is often the first feature
* Facial nerve palsy
* Vesicular rash around the ear
* Other features include vertigo and tinnitus

39
Q

Hyperhidrosis:

A

describes the excessive production of sweat

Management options include
* Topical aluminium chloride preparations are first-line. Main side effect is skin irritation
* Iontophoresis: particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar and axillary hyperhidrosis
* Botulinum toxin: currently licensed for axillary symptoms
* Surgery: e.g. endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy. Patients should be made aware of the
risk of compensatory sweating

40
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

A

Features
* Vertigo triggered by change in head position (e.g. Rolling over in bed or gazing upwards)
* May be associated with nausea
* Each episode typically lasts 10-20 seconds
* Positive halpike manoeuvre

41
Q

Indications for plasma exchange

A

ANCA positive vasculitis e.g. Wegener’s, Churg-Strauss
* Cryoglobulinemia
* Goodpasture’s syndrome
* Guillain-Barre syndrome
* Hyperviscosity syndrome e.g. Secondary to myeloma
* Myasthenia gravis
* TTP/HUS

42
Q

Macroglossia causes

A

Causes
* Hypothyroidism
* Acromegaly
* Amyloidosis
* Duchenne muscular dystrophy
* Mucopolysaccharidosis (e.g. Hurler syndrome)

43
Q

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency Genetics

A

Common inherited condition caused by a lack of a protease inhibitor (Pi) normally produced by the liver

Located on chromosome 14
* A1AT deficiency is inherited in an autosomal recessive /co-dominant fashion
* Alleles classified by their electrophoretic mobility - M: normal, S: slow, and Z: very slow
* Normal = PiMM
* Homozygous PiSS (50% normal A1A T levels)
* Homozygous PiZZ (10% normal A1A T levels)

44
Q

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (A1AT) Features

A

Features
* Patients who manifest disease usually have PiZZ genotype
* Lungs: panacinar emphysema, most marked in lower lobes
* Liver: cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in adults, cholestasis in children

45
Q

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (A1AT) investigations and Management

A

Investigations
* A1AT concentrations

Management
* No smoking
* Supportive: bronchodilators, physiotherapy
* Intravenous α1-antitrypsin protein concentrates
* Surgery: volume reduction surgery, lung transplantation

46
Q

Reye’s syndrome - features include:

A

severe, progressive encephalopathy affecting children that is accompanied by fatty infiltration of the liver, kidneys and pancreas.

features include:
* May be history of preceding viral illness
* Encephalopathy: confusion, seizures, cerebral oedema, coma
* Fatty infiltration of the liver, kidneys and pancreas
* Hypoglycaemia

47
Q

Clubbing

A

Cardiac causes
* Cyanotic congenital heart disease (Fallot’s, TGA)
* Bacterial endocarditis
* Atrial myxoma
Respiratory causes
* Lung cancer
* Pyogenic conditions: cystic fibrosis,
bronchiectasis, abscess, empyema
* Asbestosis, mesothelioma
* Fibrosing alveolitis
Other causes
* Crohn’s, to a lesser extent UC
* Cirrhosis, primary biliary cirrhosis
* Graves’ disease (thyroid acropachy)
* Rare: Whipple’s disease

48
Q

Syncope - Reflex syncope

A

Vasovagal: triggeres; emotion, pain, stress or orthostatic factors. Often referred to as ‘fainting’
* Situational: cough, micturition, gastrointestinal
* Carotid sinus syncope

49
Q

Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH)

A

diagnosis is only made after ischemic heart disease or rhythm disturbance have been excluded.

CSH may be predominantly cardioinhibitory (bradycardia), vasodilatory (hypotension), or a mixture of the two.

Cardioinhibitory is usually managed with insertion of a dual-chamber pacemaker, and vasodilator is managed with support stockings, fludrocortisone and midodrine.

50
Q

Orthostatic syncope

A
  • Primary autonomic failure: Parkinson’s disease, Lewy body dementia
  • Secondary autonomic failure: e.g. Diabetic neuropathy, amyloidosis, uraemia
  • Drug-induced: diuretics, alcohol, vasodilators
  • Volume depletion: hemorrhage, diarrhoea
51
Q

Cardiac syncope

A
  • Arrhythmias: bradycardias (sinus node dysfunction, AV conduction disorders) or tachycardias (supraventricular, ventricular)
  • Structural: valvular, myocardial infarction, hypertrophic obstructive cardimyopathy
  • Others: pulmonary embolism
52
Q

Fibromyalgia

A

Syndrome characterized by widespread pain throughout the body with tender points at specific anatomical sites. The cause of fibromyalgia is unknown.

Features
* Pain: at multiple site, sometimes ‘pain all over’
* Lethargy
* Sleep disturbance, headaches, dizziness are common

53
Q

Monoclonal Antibodies

A

This involves the fusion of myeloma cells with spleen cells from a mouse (recent advances: rabbit B-cells) that has been immunized with the desired antigen.

The resulting fused cells are termed a hybridoma and act as a ‘factory’ for producing monoclonal antibodies.

The main limitation to this is that mouse antibodies are immunogenic leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies (HAMAs).

This problem is overcome by combining the variable region from the mouse antibody with the constant region from a human antibody.

54
Q

Rituximab

A

Anti-CD20
non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

55
Q

Infliximab

A

anti-TNF
rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s

56
Q

Cetuximab

A

anti epidermal growth factor receptor
metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer

57
Q

Trastuzumab

A

anti-HER2, anti EGF receptor
metastatic breast cancer

58
Q

Alemtuzumab

A

anti-CD52

59
Q

Types of Transplants:

A

Autograft: when the same individual acts as donor and recipient
* Isograft: when donor and recipient are genetically identical
* Allograft: when donor and recipient are genetically dissimilar but belong to same specimen
* Xenograft: when donor and recipient belong to different specimen
* Orthotopic transplant: when the transplanted part is placed in its normal anatomical location
* Heterotropic transplant: when the transplanted part is placed in different anatomical location

60
Q

Post Cranial Irradiation Somnolence Syndrome
Features

A

Excessive somnolence
* Lethargy and clumsiness
* Tends to occur around 11-21 or 31-35 days after high dose cranial radiotherapy.
* No focal cause is identified and it is postulated that the condition may occur due to post
irradiation demyelination.
* No specific therapy is required, some case reports suggest that corticosteroids may be of use but
the evidence is not firmly established.

61
Q

Acute myeloid leukemia genes

A

5: deletion 7: deletion

62
Q

Auto Dom Polycystic Kidney Disease genes

A

Type-I: 16 Type-II: 4

63
Q

α-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency

A

gene 14 - lack of a protease inhibitor (Pi)

64
Q

α-thalassemia gene

A

16 - deficiency of α chains in hemoglobin

65
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

21: amyloid precursor protein 14: presenilin-I 1: presenilin -II

66
Q

Autoimmune polyendocrinopathy syndrome

A

21

67
Q

Cystic fibrosis (CF)

A

chromosome 7 - autosomal recessive

68
Q

Cystinuria

A

2: SLC3A1 gene, 19: SLC7A9
autosomal recessive

69
Q

familial adenomatous polyposis

A

5 - autosomal dominant

70
Q

Familial Motor neuron disease

A

chromosome 21 - superoxide dismutase deficiency

71
Q

Friedreich’s ataxia

A

chromosome 9 - autosomal recessive, trinucleotide repeat disorder

72
Q

Hemochromatosis

A

chromosome 6 - autosomal recessive

73
Q

HLA antigens

A

chromsome 6

74
Q

Marfan’s syndrome

A

chromosome 15 - autosomal dominant

75
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A

autosomal dominant trinucleotide repeat disorder

76
Q

NF1

A

chromosome 17 neurofibromatosis has 17 characters

77
Q
A
78
Q

Noonan’s Syndrome

A

autosomal dominant
chromosome 12

79
Q

p53 gene

A

17p tumour suppressor gene

80
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau

A

chromosome 3
autosomal dominant

81
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma genes

A

t(8;14) translocation

82
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia genes

A

t(9:22)
BCR-ABL gene codes for a fusion protein which has tyrosine kinase activity in excess of normal
Philadelphia chromosome95%

83
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma

A

t(11;14)
deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene

84
Q

promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

A

t(15;17)
fusion of PML and RAR-α genes