Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Pulsus parodoxus

A

Greater than the normal (10 mmHg) fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration → faint or
absent pulse in inspiration
* Severe asthma, cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Slow-rising/plateau

A
  • Aortic stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Collapsing

A

Aortic regurgitation
* Patent ductus arteriosus
* Hyperkinetic (anemia, thyrotoxic, fever, exercise/pregnancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pulsus alternans

A

Regular alternation of the force of the arterial pulse
* Severe LVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bisferiens pulse

A

‘Double pulse’ - two systolic peaks
* Mixed aortic valve disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Jerky’ pulse

A

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

S1 heart sound

A

Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves
* Soft if long PR or mitral regurgitation
* Loud in mitral stenosis
* Variable intensity in complete heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causes of a loud S2

A

Hypertension: systemic (loud A2) or pulmonary (loud P2)
* Hyperdynamic states
* Atrial septal defect without pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Causes of a soft S2

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of fixed split S2

A

Atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Causes of a widely split S2

A

Deep inspiration
* RBBB
* Pulmonary stenosis
* Severe mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Causes of a reversed (paradoxical) split S2 (P2 occurs before A2)

A

LBBB
* Severe aortic stenosis
* Right ventricular pacing
* WPW type B (causes early P2)
* Patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

S3 heart sound

A

Caused by diastolic filling of the ventricle
* Considered normal if < 30 years old (may persist in women up to 50 years old)
* Heard in left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis
* Gallop rhythm (S3) is an early sign of LVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

s4 sound

A

may be heard in aortic stenosis, HOCM, hypertension
* caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle
* in HOCM a double apical impulse may be felt as a result of a palpable S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Kussmaul’s sign

A

paradoxical rise in JVP during inspiration seen in constrictive pericarditis. Kussmaul’s sign → constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

JVP ‘a’ wave

A

a’ wave = atrial contraction
* Large if atrial pressure e.g. Tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, pulmonary
hypertension
* Absent if in atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cannon ‘a’ waves

A

caused by atrial contractions against a closed tricuspid valve
* Are seen in complete heart block, ventricular tachycardia/ectopics, nodal rhythm,
single chamber ventricular pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Regular cannon waves

A
  • Ventricular tachycardia (with 1:1 ventricular-atrial conduction)
  • Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Irregular cannon waves

A

Complete heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

c wave JVP

A

‘c’ wave
* Closure of tricuspid valve
* Not normally visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

‘v’ wave JVP

A

Giant v waves in tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

‘x’ descen

A

Fall in atrial pressure during ventricular systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

y’ descent

A

Opening of tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Left ventricular ejection fraction

A

stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume) * 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Stroke volume

A

end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ECG normal variants:

A
  • Junctional rhythm
  • First degree heart block
  • Wenckebach phenomenon

LBBB is always pathological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ECG changes may be seen in hypothermia:

A

Bradycardia
* ‘J’ wave - small hump at the end of the QRS complex
* First degree heart block
* Long QT interval
* Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Digoxin ECG features:

A

Down-sloping ST depression (‘reverse tick’)
* Flattened/inverted T waves
* Short QT interval
* Arrhythmias e.g. AV block, bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Causes of ST depression:

A

Normal if upward sloping
* Ischemia
* Digoxin
* Hypokalemia
* Syndrome X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

LBBB

A

Diagnosis: criteria to diagnose a left bundle branch block on ECG:
* Rhythm must be supraventricular in origin (P wave present)
* QRS duration ≥ 120 ms (3 small squares)
* QS or rS complex in lead V1(note: r is small-not capital = small-not tall r in ECG)
* RsR wave in lead V6.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Prolonged PR interval causes

A

Causes:
* Idiopathic
* Ischemic heart disease
* Digoxin toxicity
* Hypokalemia*
* Rheumatic fever
* Aortic root pathology e.g. Abscess secondary to endocarditis
* Lyme disease
* Sarcoidosis
* Myotonic dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

causes of left axis deviation

A
  • Left anterior hemiblock
  • Left bundle branch block
  • Wolff-parkinson-white syndrome* - right-
    sided accessory pathway
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Congenital: ostium PRIMUM ASD,
    tricuspid atresia
  • Minor LAD in obese people
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Causes of right axis deviation (RAD)

A

Right ventricular hypertrophy
* Left posterior hemiblock
* Chronic lung disease
* Pulmonary embolism
* Ostium SECUNDUM ASD
* Wolff-parkinson-white syndrome* - left-
sided accessory pathway
* Normal in infant < 1 years old
* Minor RAD in tall people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Isolated systolic hypertension (ISH)

A

common in the elderly, affecting around 10% of people older than 70 years old. The Systolic Hypertension in the Elderly Program (SHEP) back in 1991 established that treating ISH ↓ both strokes and ischemic heart disease. Drugs such as thiazides were recommended as first line agents. This approach is not contraindicated by the 2006 NICE guidelines which recommend treating ISH in the same stepwise fashion as standard hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hypertension: initial treatment

A

Patients < 55-years-old: ACE inhibitor
* Patients > 55-years-old or of Afro-Caribbean origin: calcium channel blocker or thiazide
diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The target blood pressure

A

140/90 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Causes of secondary HTN

A

Renal - accounts for 80% of secondary hypertension o Glomerulonephritis
o Pyelonephritis
o Adultpolycystickidneydisease o Renal artery stenosis

Endocrine disorders
o Cushing’s syndrome
* Others
New drugs
o Primary hyperaldosteronism including Conn’s syndrome
o Liddle’s syndrome
o Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (11-β hydroxylase deficiency) o Pheochromocytoma
o Acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Direct renin inhibitors

A

Aliskiren (branded as Rasilez)
* By inhibiting renin blocks the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
* No trials have looked at mortality data yet. Trials have only investigated fall in blood pressure.
Initial trials suggest aliskiren ↓ blood pressure to a similar extent as angiotensin converting
enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists
* Adverse effects were uncommon in trials although diarrhea was occasionally seen
* Only current role would seem to be in patients who are intolerant of more established
antihypertensive drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Examples of centrally acting antihypertensives include:

A

Methyldopa: used in the management of hypertension during pregnancy
* Moxonidine: used in the management of essential hypertension when conventional
antihypertensives have failed to control blood pressure
* Clonidine: the antihypertensive effect is mediated through stimulating α-2 adrenoceptors in the
vasomotor center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The blood pressure target

A

140/90 mmHg (normal and diabetes)
If there is end-organ damage the target
is 130/80 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

HTN and diabetes

A

ACE inhibitors are first-line*. Otherwise managed according to standard NICE hypertension
guidelines
* BNF advises to avoid the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pericarditis Features

A

Features
* Chest pain: may be pleuritic. Is often relieved by sitting forwards
* Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnea and flu-like symptoms
* Pericardial rub
* Tachypnea
* Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pericarditis causes

A

Causes
* Viral infections (Coxsackie)
* TB
* Uremia (causes ‘fibrinous’ pericarditis)
* Trauma
* Post MI, Dressler’s syndrome
* Connective tissue disease
* Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Pericarditis ECG changes

A

Widespread ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation
* PR depression (most sensitive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Myocarditis: causes

A
  • Viral: coxsackie, HIV
  • Bacteria: diphtheria, clostridia
  • Spirochetes: Lyme disease
  • Protozoa: Chagas’ disease, toxoplasmosis
  • Autoimmune
  • Drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis

A

is a previous episode of endocarditis.

Other factors include:
* Previously normal valves (50%, typically acute presentation)
* Rheumatic valve disease (30%)
* Prosthetic valves
* Congenital heart defects
* Intravenous drug users (IVDUS, e.g. Typically causing tricuspid lesion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Most common cause of endocarditis

A

Streptococcus viridans
* Staphylococcus epidermidis if < 2 months post valve surger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

streptococcus viridans - endocarditis

A

most common cause - 40-50%) → has good prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis - endocarditis

A

ass/w prosthetic valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Staphylococcus aureus - endocarditis

A

especially acute presentation, IVDUS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Streptococcus bovis endocarditis

A

associated with colorectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bacteroides fragilis endocardtis

A

endocarditis is very rare complication of colonic resection, bacteria reaches
heart via venous return, this is why it affects right > left side → Treat with Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Culture negative causes (BP-CHB) endocarditis

A

Brucella
* Prior antibiotic therapy
* Coxiella burnetii
* HACEK: Hemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella)
* Bartonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Poor prognostic factors endocarditis

A
  • Staph aureus infection
  • Prosthetic valve (especially ‘early’, acquired during surgery)
  • Culture negative endocarditis
  • Low complement levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Diagnosis endocarditis

A

Pathological criteria positive, or
* 2 major criteria, or
* 1 major and 3 minor criteria, or
* 5 minor criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Major criteria endocarditis

A
  1. Positive blood cultures
    * Two positive blood cultures showing typical organisms consistent with infective endocarditis,
    such as Streptococcus viridans and the HACEK group.
    * Persistent bacteremia from two blood cultures taken > 12 hours apart or three or more positive
    blood cultures where the pathogen is less specific such as Staph aureus and Staph epidermidis.
    * Positive serology for Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella species or Chlamydia psittaci.
    * Positive molecular assays for specific gene targets
  2. Evidence of endocardial involvement
    * Positive echocardiogram (oscillating structures, abscess formation, new valvular regurgitation
    or dehiscence of prosthetic valves), or
    * New valvular regurgitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Minor criteria endocarditis

A

Predisposing heart disease
* Microbiological evidence does not meet major criteria
* Fever > 38oc
* Vascular phenomena: major emboli, splenomegaly, clubbing, splinter hemorrhages, petechiae
or purpura
* Immunological phenomena: glomerulonephritis, Osler’s nodes, Roth spots (boat shaped
hemorrhages in retina)
* Elevated CRP or ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Current management guidelines endocarditis

A

Initial blind therapy - flucloxacillin + gentamicin (benzylpenicillin + gentamicin if symptoms
less severe)
* Initial blind therapy if prosthetic valve is present or patient is penicillin allergic - vancomycin
+ rifampicin + gentamicin
* Endocarditis caused by staphylococci - flucloxacillin (vancomycin + rifampicin if penicillin
allergic or MRSA)
* Endocarditis caused by streptococci → benzylpenicillin + gentamicin (vancomycin +
gentamicin if penicillin allergic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Initial blind therapy - endocardtisis

A

Initial blind therapy - flucloxacillin + gentamicin (benzylpenicillin + gentamicin if symptoms
less severe)

Initial blind therapy if prosthetic valve is present or patient is penicillin allergic - vancomycin
+ rifampicin + gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

endocarditis treatment when caused by staphylococc

A
  • flucloxacillin (vancomycin + rifampicin if penicillin
    allergic or MRSA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

endocarditis treatment when caused by streptococci

A

benzylpenicillin + gentamicin (vancomycin +
gentamicin if penicillin allergic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Heart Failure: treatments

A

ACE inhibitors (SAVE, SOLVD, CONSENSUS)
* Spironolactone (RALES) (improved prognosis not mortality)
* β-blockers (CIBIS)
* Hydralazine with nitrates (VHEFT-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Digoxin in HF

A

Digoxin has also not been proven to ↓ mortality in patients with heart failure. It may however improve symptoms due to its inotropic properties. Digoxin is strongly indicated if there is coexistent atrial fibrillation

64
Q

Left ventricular ejection fraction =

A

(stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) * 100%

65
Q

Stroke volume =

A

end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume

66
Q

Cardiac output =

A

stroke volume x heart rate

67
Q

Pulse pressure =

A

Systolic Pressure - Diastolic Pressure

68
Q

Systemic vascular resistance =

A

mean arterial pressure / cardiac output

69
Q

Donepezil adverse effects

A

is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia
adverse effects include insomnia

70
Q

Diastolic Heart Failure:

A

Basics:
* 1/3 of heart failure is diastolic (normal Left Ventricular Systolic Function-LVSF)
* Mortality in Diastolic HF is 5-8% (lower than Systolic HF: 10-15%)

71
Q

Diastolic Heart Failure: Management:

A

Initially, reduction of pulmonary venous pressure (PVP) and congestion, using diuretics
* ARBs are superior to ACE inhibitors

72
Q

Cardiac Tamponade: Features

A
  • Raised JVP, with an absent Y descent - this is due to the limited right ventricular filling
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension
  • Muffled heart sounds
  • Pulsus paradoxus (which occurs also in Asthma)
  • Kussmaul’s sign (much debate about this) (more in constrictive pericarditis)
  • ECG: electrical alternans
73
Q

key differences between constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade are:

A

Cardiac tamponade
Absent Y descent
Pulsus paradoxu
Kussmaul’s sign

pericarditis
X + Y present
AbsentPericardial calcification on CXR

74
Q

MUGA

A

Multi Gated Acquisition Scan, also known as radionuclide angiography
* Radionuclide (technetium-99m) is injected intravenously
* The patient is placed under a gamma camera
* May be performed as a stress test
* Can accurately measure left ventricular ejection fraction. Typically used before and after cardiotoxic drugs are used

75
Q

Cardiac Computed Tomography (CT)

A

useful for assessing suspected IHD, using two main methods:
* Calcium score: there is known to be a correlation between the amount of atherosclerotic plaque calcium and the risk of future ischemic events. Cardiac CT can quantify the amount of calcium
producing a ‘calcium score’
* Contrast enhanced CT: allows visualization of the coronary artery lumen

76
Q

Cardiac MRI:

A

gold standard for providing structural images of the heart. It is particularly useful when assessing congenital heart disease, determining right and left ventricular mass and differentiating forms of cardiomyopathy. Myocardial perfusion can also be assessed following the administration of gadolinium. Currently CMR provides limited data on the extent of coronary artery disease.

77
Q

Exercise ECG:

A

USELESS in patients with:
* Conduction abnormalities
* resting (ECG) abnormalities like ST segment depression of >1mm
* WPW
* Digoxin
* Ventricular paced rhythm

78
Q

mmediate management of suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS)

A

Glyceryl trinitrate
* Aspirin 300mg. NICE do not recommend giving other antiplatelet agents (i.e. Clopidogrel)
outside of hospital
* Do not routinely give oxygen, only give if sats < 94%*
* Perform an ECG as soon as possible but do not delay transfer to hospital. A normal ECG does
not exclude ACS

79
Q

refer chest pain

A

Current chest pain or chest pain in the last 12 hours with an abnormal ECG: emergency admission
* Chest pain 12-72 hours ago: refer to hospital the same-day for assessment
* Chest pain > 72 hours ago: perform full assessment with ECG and troponin measurement
before deciding upon further action

80
Q

in chest pain NICE suggest the following in terms of oxygen therapy:

A

Do not routinely administer oxygen, but monitor oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, ideally before hospital admission. Only offer supplemental oxygen to:
* People with oxygen saturation (SpO2) < 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, aiming for SpO2 of 94-98%
* People with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who are at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, to achieve a target SpO2 of 88-92% until blood gas analysis is available.

81
Q

NICE define anginal pain as the following:

A

Constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw or arms o Precipitated by physical exertion
o Relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes
* Patients with all 3 features have typical angina
* Patients with 2 of the above features have atypical angina
* Patients with 1 or none of the above features have non-anginal chest pain

82
Q

Stable Angina: management

A

In good exercise tolerance, consider medical therapy before angiography (β-
blocker is the most important)
* If pain is worsening, no need for exercise test, directly do angiography (Cath)

83
Q

Medication stable angina

A

All patients should receive aspirin and a statin in the absence of any contraindication
* Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate to abort angina attacks
* β-blocker is the preferred initial treatment. For patients unable to take a β-blocker there is no
clear guidelines on the best alternative. Options include a rate-limiting calcium-channel blocker (verapamil or diltiazem); a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (e.g. modified- release nifedipine); a nitrate; or a potassium-channel activator

If there is a poor response to initial treatment then the β-blocker should be ↑ to the maximum tolerated dose (e.g. atenolol 100mg od)
* Again, there are no clear guidelines on the next step treatment. CKS advise adding a long-acting dihydropyridine (e.g. nifedipine, amlodepine, felodipine) although other options include isosorbide mononitrate and nicoran

84
Q

Prinzmetal angina

A

dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (depine family; amlodepine)

85
Q

Nitrate tolerance stable

A

Many patients who take nitrates develop tolerance and experience ↓ efficacy
* BNF advises that patients who develop tolerance should take the second dose of isosorbide mononitrate after 8 hours, rather than after 12 hours. This allows blood-nitrate levels to fall for
4 hours and maintains effectiveness
* This effect is not seen in patients who take modified release isosorbide mononitra

86
Q

Ivabradine (Procoralan)

A

A new class of anti-anginal drug which works by reducing the heart rate
* Acts on the If (‘funny’) ion current which is highly expressed in the sinoatrial node, reducing
cardiac pacemaker activity
* Adverse effects: visual effects, particular luminous phenomena, are common. Bradycardia, due
to the mechanism of action, may also be seen
* There is no evidence currently of superiority over existing treatments of stable angina

NICE 2011 Guidelines:
* In good exercise tolerance, consider medical therapy before angiography (β-
blocker is the most important)
* If pain is worsening, no need for exercise test, directly do angiography (Cath)

87
Q

Acute Coronary Syndrome: all its should get

A

All patients should receive
- Aspirin 300mg
- Nitrates or morphine to relieve chest pain if required

Clopidogrel 300mg and low molecular weight heparin (principally enoxaparin) should also be added to higher risk patients

lopidogrel 300mg should be given to patients with a predicted 6 month mortality of more than 1.5% or patients who may undergo percutaneous coronary intervention within 24 hours of admission to hospital. Clopidogrel should be continued for 12 months.

88
Q

Acute Coronary Syndrome: Antithrombin treatment.

A

Fondaparinux should be offered to patients who are not at a high risk of bleeding and who are not having angiography within the next 24 hours. If angiography is likely within 24 hours or a patient’s creatinine is > 265 μmol/l unfractionated heparin should be given.

89
Q

Clopidogrel (Plavix®) Interactions

A

Concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective (MHRA July 2009)
* This advice was updated by the MHRA in April 2010, evidence seems inconsistent but omeprazole and esomeprazole still cause for concern. Other PPIs such as lansoprazole should be OK

90
Q

Intravenous glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists ACS

A

(eptifibatide or tirofiban) should be given to patients who have an intermediate or higher risk of adverse cardiovascular events (predicted 6-month mortality above 3.0%), and who are scheduled to undergo angiography within 96 hours of hospital admission.

91
Q

Coronary angiography

A

should be considered within 96 hours of first admission to hospital to patients who have a predicted 6-month mortality above 3.0%. It should also be performed as soon as possible in patients who are clinically unstable.

92
Q

Aspirin moa

A

Antiplatelet - inhibits the production of thromboxane A2

93
Q

Clopidogrel moa

A

Antiplatelet - inhibits ADP binding to its platelet receptor

94
Q

Enoxaparin moa

A

Activates antithrombin III, which in turn potentiates the inhibition of coagulation factors Xa

95
Q

Fondaparinux

A

Activates antithrombin III, which in turn potentiates the inhibition of coagulation factors Xa

96
Q

Bivalirudin

A

Reversible direct thrombin inhibitor

97
Q

Poor prognostic factors: ACS

A

Age
* Development (or history) of heart failure,
Killip class*
* Peripheral vascular disease
* ↓ systolic blood pressure
* Initial serum creatinine concentration
* Elevated initial cardiac markers
* Cardiac arrest on admission
* ST segment deviation

98
Q

Anteroseptal MI

A

V1-V4
Left anterior descending

99
Q

Inferior MI

A

II, III, aVF
Right coronary

100
Q

Anterolateral MI

A

V4-6, I, aVL
Left anterior descending or left circumflex

101
Q

Lateral MI

A

I, aVL +/- V5-6
Left circumflex

102
Q

Posterior MI

A

Tall R waves V1-2 Usually left circumflex, also right coronary

103
Q

Posterior aortic or coronary sinus ->

A

left coronary artery (LCA)

104
Q

Anterior aortic or coronary sinus _>

A

right coronary artery (RCA)

105
Q
  • LCA (Left Main, LM) →
A

LAD + circumflex

106
Q

RCA →

A

posterior descending

107
Q

RCA supplies

A

SA node in 60%, AV node in 90%

108
Q

MI ll patients should be offered the following drugs

A
  • ACE inhibitor
  • β-blocker
  • Aspirin
  • Statin
109
Q

Clopidogrel post MI

A

After an ST-segment-elevation MI, patients treated with a combination of aspirin and clopidogrel during the first 24 hours after the MI should continue this treatment for at least 4 wk
* (NSTEMI): following the 2010 NICE unstable angina and NSTEMI guidelines clopidogrel
should be given for the first 12 months if the 6 month mortality risk is > 1.5%
* Improves prognosis post MI
* Side effect: < 1% TTP usually 2 weeks after commencing the drug.

110
Q

contraindications to Thrombolysis

A
  • Active internal bleeding
  • Recent hemorrhage, trauma or surgery (including dental extraction)
  • Coagulation and bleeding disorders
  • Intracranial neoplasm
  • Stroke < 2 months
  • Aortic dissection
  • Recent head injury
  • Pregnancy
  • Severe hypertension
111
Q

Dressler’s Syndrome:

A

This usually occurs 1 to 8 weeks after MI.
Presentation:
* Malaise, fever, pericardial pain
* Elevated erythrocyte count
* Sometimes may also have pleuritis and pneumonitis.

112
Q

dressers syndrome

A

Treatment involves aspirin and analgesics. Corticosteroids and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents are best avoided in the first 4 weeks after MI as they delay myocardial healing. Aspirin in large doses is effective. Recurrences can occur, and in such cases colchicine is helpful.

113
Q

ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) - In the absence of contraindications, all patients should be given

A
  • Aspirin
  • Clopidogrel: the two major studies (clarity and commit) both confirmed benefit but used different loading doses (300mg and 75mg respectively)
  • Low molecular weight heparin

PCI
. Thrombolysis if not

114
Q

Thrombolysis MI

A

Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) has been shown to offer clear mortality benefits over
streptokinase
* Tenecteplase is easier to administer and has been shown to have non-inferior efficacy to
alteplase with a similar adverse effect profile

n ECG should be performed 90 minutes following thrombolysis to assess whether there has been a greater than 50% resolution in the ST elevation
* If there has not been adequate resolution then rescue PCI is superior to repeat thrombolysis

115
Q

Coronary Angiography (CAG) complications:

A

Vascular complications: the most common complication overall is hemorrhage from access (right femoral artery mostly then right radial artery), much less common is rupture of coronary artery during revascularization or rupture of any artery from access to target artery
* Contrast Induced Nephropathy (CIN), higher incidence in diabetic patients and patients known to have renal dysfunction (prevented by good hydration)
* Cholesterol embolisation
* Arrhythmias (include arrest, ventricular and supraventricular) especially in primary intervention
(in case of acute MI)
* Reaction to contrast

116
Q

Two main complications may occur due to stenting:

A

Stent thrombosis: due to platelet aggregation as above. Occurs in 1-2% of patients, most commonly in the first month. Usually presents with acute myocardial infarction
* Restenosis: due to excessive tissue proliferation around stent. Occurs in around 5-20% of patients, most commonly in the first 3-6 months. Usually presents with the recurrence of angina symptoms. Risk factors include diabetes, renal impairment and stents in venous bypass grafts

117
Q

Types of stent

A

Bare-metal stent (BMS)
* Drug-eluting stents (DES): stent coated with paclitaxel or rapamycin which inhibit local tissue
growth. Whilst this ↓ restenosis rates the stent thrombosis rates are ↑ as the process of stent endothelisation is slowed

BMS in T2DM: restenosis risk in 6 months is 40-50%

118
Q

most important factor in preventing stent thrombosis

A

antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin should be continued indefinitely. The length of clopidogrel treatment depends on the type of stent, reason for insertion and consultant preference.

119
Q

Cholestrol Embolism:

A

Overview
* Cholesterol emboli may break off causing renal disease
* Seen more commonly in arteriopaths, abdominal aortic aneurysms
Features
* Eosinophilia
* Purpura
* Renal failure
* Livedo reticularis

120
Q

Clopidogrel pathway of activation

A

pro-drug whose action may be related to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelet cell membranes.

clopidogrel irreversibly inhibits is P2Y12

blockade of this receptor inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking activation of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa pathway.

IIb/IIIa complex functions as a receptor mainly for fibrinogen and vitronectin but also for fibronectin and von Willebrand factor

121
Q

Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

A

haracterized by the sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, typically an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

122
Q

Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) -acute management

A

cute management
* Vagal maneuvers: e.g. Valsalva maneuver
* Adenosine 6mg then 12mg then 12mg - contraindicated in asthmatics - verapamil is a preferable
option (if no control) then
* Electrical cardioversion

123
Q

SVT Prevention of episodes

A

β-blockers (Sotalal)
* Flecainide.
* Radio-frequency ablation

124
Q

Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs):

A
  • Occurring frequently ( ≥6 beats/min )
  • Bigeminal rhythm
  • Short runs of ventricular tachycardia (V. Tach)
  • R-on-T phenomenon
  • Associated with serious organic heart disease
  • Left ventricular decompensation (Decompensated Heart Failure)
125
Q

Agents with proven efficacy in the pharmacological cardioversion of atrial fibrillatio

A
  • Amiodarone
  • Flecainide (if no structural heart disease)
  • Others (less commonly used in UK): quinidine, dofetilide, ibutilide, propafenone
126
Q

Less effective agents in cardio version in AF

A
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Digoxin
  • Disopyramide
  • Procainamide
127
Q

AF Onset < 48 hours

A

if atrial fibrillation (AF) is of less than 48 hours onset patients should be heparinised and a transthoracic echocardiogram performed to exclude a thrombus. Following this, patient may be cardioverted, either:
* Electrical - ‘DC cardioversion’
* Pharmacology - amiodarone if structural heart disease, flecainide in those without structural
heart disease

128
Q

AF Onset > 48 hours

A

f AF is of greater than 48 hours then patients should have therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure (e.g. previous failure or AF recurrence) then it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. If there was very acute history on presentation and the patient was in significant heart failure then DC cardioversion would be appropriate, as per Advanced Life Support guidelines.
Following electrical cardioversion patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

129
Q

gents used to control rate in patients with atrial fibrillation

A

β-blockers
* Calcium channel blockers
* Digoxin

130
Q

Agents used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of atrial fibrillation

A
  • Sotalol
  • Amiodarone
  • Flecainide
  • Others (less commonly used in UK): disopyramide, dofetilide, procainamide, propafenone,
    quinidine
131
Q

af Factors favoring rate control

A

Older than 65 years
* History of ischemic heart disease

132
Q

Factors favoring rhythm control

A

Younger than 65 years
* Symptomatic
* First presentation
* Lone AF or 2nd° AF (e.g. alcohol) * Congestive heart failure

133
Q

It is recommended that AF be classified into 3 patterns:

A

First detected episode (irrespective of whether it is symptomatic or self-terminating)
* Recurrent episodes, when a patient has 2 or more episodes of AF. If episodes of AF terminate
spontaneously then the term paroxysmal AF is used (the most AF that benefit from β blocker). Such episodes last less than 7 days (typically < 24 hours). If the arrhythmia is not self- terminating then the term persistent AF is used. Such episodes usually last greater than 7 days
* In permanent AF there is continuous atrial fibrillation which cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. Treatment goals are therefore rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate

134
Q

CHADVASC

A

C Congestive heart failure 1
H Hypertension (or treated hypertension) 1
A Age > 75 years 1
D Diabetes 1
S2 Prior Stroke or TIA 2

135
Q

Ventricular Tachycardia:
Monomorphic VT:

A

Monomorphic VT: most commonly caused by myocardial infarction

136
Q

Polymorphic VT:

A

A subtype of polymorphic VT is torsades de pointes which is precipitated by
prolongation of the QT interval. The causes of a long QT interval are listed later.

137
Q

Features suggesting VT rather than SVT with aberrant conduction

A
  • A V dissociation
  • Fusion or capture beats
  • Positive QRS concordance in chest leads
  • Marked left axis deviation
  • History of IHD
  • Lack of response to adenosine or carotid sinus massage
  • QRS>160ms
138
Q

VT Drug therapy

A
  • Amiodarone: ideally administered through a central line
  • Lidocaine: use with caution in severe left ventricular impairment
  • Procainamide
139
Q

VERAP
MIL SHOULD NOT BE USED IN VT

A

Verapamil should never be given t
a patient with a broad complex tachycardia as it may precipitate
ventricular fibrillation in patients
ith ventricular tachycardia. Adenosine is sometimes given in this
situation as a ‘trial’ if there is a stro
g suspicion the underlying rhythm is a supraventricular tachycardia
with aberrant conducti

140
Q

V Tach in Digoxin Toxicity:

A

If drug
* *
Treat with lidocaine and phenytoin
Avoid Amiodarone and Procainamide (↑ Toxicity)
D/C shock when all measures fail (but usually unsuccessful)
therapy fails Electrophysiological study (EPS)
Implant able cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) - this is particularly indicated in patients with significantly impaired LV function

141
Q

Torsades De Pointes RF

A

Risk factors:
*♀
* ↓HR
* CHF
* Digoxin
* Prolonged QT and Subclinical long QT syndrome
* Severe alkalosis
* Recent conversion from A

142
Q

Causes of long QT interval

A
  • Congenital: Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome, Romano-Ward syndrome
  • Antiarrhythmics: amiodarone, sotalol, class I-a antiarrhythmic drugs
  • Tricyclic antidepressants
  • Antipsychotics
  • Chloroquine
  • Terfenadine
  • Erythromycin
  • Electrolyte: Hypocalcemia, Hypokalemia, Hypomagnesemia
  • Myocarditis
  • Hypothermia
143
Q

TdP management

A
  • IV magnesium sulphate
  • Correct K+ if hypo
  • Override pacing (set pacemaker to be faster than patient rate then decrease the rate)
  • D/C shock
144
Q

Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (MAT)

A

may be defined as irregular cardiac rhythm caused by at least three different sites in the atria, which may be demonstrated by morphologically distinctive P waves. It is more common in elderly patients with chronic lung disease (e.g COPD)

anagement
* Correction of hypoxia and electrolyte disturbances
* Rate-limiting calcium channel blockers are often used first-line
* Cardioversion and digoxin are not useful in the management of MAT

145
Q

Following basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as being stable or unstable according to the presence of any adverse signs:

A
  • Systolic BP < 90 mmHg
  • ↓ conscious level
  • Chest pain
  • Heart failure
    If any of the above adverse signs are present then synchronised DC shocks should be given
146
Q

Broad-complex tachycardia

A

Regular
* Assume ventricular tachycardia (unless
previously confirmed SVT with bundle
branch block)
* Loading dose of amiodarone followed by
24 hour infusion

Irregular
* AF with bundle branch block - treat as
for narrow complex tachycardia
* Polymorphic VT (e.g. torsade de
pointes) - IV magnesium

147
Q

Narrow-complex tachycardia

A

Regular
* Vagal manoeuvres followed by IV
adenosine
* If above unsuccessful consider diagnosis
of atrial flutter and control rate (e.g. β- blockers)

Irregular
* Probable atrial fibrillation
* If onset < 48 hr: consider electrical or
chemical cardioversion
* >48 HR: Rate control (e.g. β-blocker or
digoxin) and anticoagulation

148
Q

Bradycardiaa adverse signs

A

The following factors indicate hemodynamic compromise and hence the need for treatment:
* Heart rate < 40 bpm
* Systolic blood pressure < 100 mmHg
* Heart failure
* Ventricular arrhythmias requiring suppression

149
Q

Potential risk of asystole

A

The following indicate a potential risk of asystole and hence the need for treatment with transvenous pacing:
* Complete ♥ block
* Recent asystole
* Mobitz type II ♥ block
* Symptomatic 2nd degree
* Ventricular pause > 3 seconds

150
Q

risk of asytle f there is a delay in the provision of transvenous pacing the following interventions may be used:

A
  • Atropine, up to maximum of 3mg
  • Transcutaneous pacing
  • Adrenaline infusion titrated to response
151
Q

Complete heart block

A

Features
* Syncope
* Heart failure
* Regular bradycardia (30-50 bpm)
* Wide pulse pressure
* JVP: cannon waves in neck
* Variable intensity of S1.

152
Q

Trifasicular Block:

A

The combination of RBBB, LAHB and long PR interval has been called trifasicular block.

153
Q

Indications for a Temporary Pacemaker

A

Symptomatic/hemodynamically unstable bradycardia, not responding to atropine
* Post-ANTERIOR MI: type 2 or complete heart block*
* Trifascicular block prior to surgery

154
Q

ndications of Implantable Cardiac Defibrillators (IDC):

A

Long QT syndrome
* Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)
* Previous cardiac arrest due to VT/VF
* Previous myocardial infarction with non-sustained VT on 24 hr monitoring, inducible VT on
electrophysiology testing and ejection fraction < 35%
* Brugada syndrome

155
Q

Long QT Syndrome (LQTS)

A

inherited condition associated with delayed repolarization of the ventricles. It is important to recognise as it may lead to ventricular tachycardia and can therefore cause collapse/sudden death. The most common variants of LQTS (LQT1 & LQT2) are caused by defects in α subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT is less than 440 ms in ♂s and 450 ms in ♀s.

156
Q

he most common variants of LQTS (LQT1 & LQT2) are caused by

A

efects in α subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT is less than 440 ms in ♂s and 450 ms in ♀s.

157
Q
A