Mini SWE Questions Flashcards

1
Q

With SBP, the total cost for an insurance interest person may not exceed what percent of a members retired pay?

A

40%

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2
Q

An I characterized separation gets what kind of certificate?

A

None

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3
Q

Which form is used to request accelerated payment of SGLi benefits for a member who is terminally ill?

A

SGLV 8284

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4
Q

RE-4 reenlistment code stands for?

A

Not eligible for reenlistment

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5
Q

RE1 reenlistment code stands for?

A

Eligible for reenlistment

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6
Q

RE2 reenlistment code stands for?

A

Ineligible-retirement

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7
Q

RE3 reenlistment code stands for?

A

Eligible but disqualified

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8
Q

A member who has just retired wishes to know how long he has after his retirement to file for a PRRB, you tell him ?

A

PRRB will not accept applications from retired or separated members. Needs to submit a BCMR DD149

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9
Q

Once a member is declared a deserter, what form needs to be filled out and where does the original go?

A

DD form 553 on 31st day. Original is filed in section 2 of PDR. Scan and email to PSD-MR. When returned, DD 616 return from deserter filled out

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10
Q

What tax is SDAP subject to?

A

Federal and State. Not FICA

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11
Q

How far in advance is an SOI submitted for a member being discharged?

A

45 days.

60 for retirement

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12
Q

Which form is used to request payment of SGLI benefits for a deceased member?

A

SGLV 8283

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13
Q

Zone B eligibility for SRBs is?

A

6-10 years, E5 or higher, never received zone B before, obliserv 36 months

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14
Q

How much is death gratuity and what form is used?

A

100,000

DD397 claim form

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15
Q

After notification of orders, within how many days should the command checklist for overseas screening be done?

A

10 day (+5 for entry approval)

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16
Q

To cancel an uncollected amount of indebtness to the US Gov, a member must request?

A

Remission of debt

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17
Q

SOI for reenlistment should be completed within how many days of separation?

A

45 days

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18
Q

At what percentage will a member be taxed for a Career Status Bonus?

A

25%

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19
Q

How long after a change in housing status should the SPO be notified?

A

24 hours

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20
Q

What is the form for CSB election?

A

CG2426

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21
Q

Form for a deserter?

A

DD553

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22
Q

On what day is a UA member considered a deserter?

A

31st day

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23
Q

When a member returns from deserter, they fill out what form?

A

Dd616

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24
Q

What should you do on a members 10th day UA?

A

Notify next of kin

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25
Q

NJP is authorized IAW what article of the UCMJ?

A

Article 15

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26
Q

Maximum amount of FSSA per month?

A

$1100

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27
Q

In the event of a death, the widower and surviving Dependents of members on active duty are entitled to remind in government quarters or receive continuation or payment of bah or OHA for up to?

A

365 days

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28
Q

How many hours of aerial flight per month needed for officers to qualify for ACIP?

A

4 hours

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29
Q

How many months back can officer draw from to meet the minimum flight hours for monthly ACIP?

A

5 months

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30
Q

To enroll in tricare dental, family members of active duty members with a minimum of _____ service remaining are eligible.

A

1 year

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31
Q

What is the minimum age for someone to receive an allotment?

A

16 years

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32
Q

Discharge gratuity payable to those receiving discharges of dishonorable, bad conduct or an OTH will total a max of ___ excluding mileage allowance?

A

$25

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33
Q

How much is Death Gratuity ?

A

100,000

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34
Q

How many leadership competencies ?

A

28

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35
Q

What form is used for members to extend?

A

CG3301B

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36
Q

Who issued a CPO certificate ?

A

PPC(adv)

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37
Q

The SWE Marks/Eval factor is determined by the EER window. The EER window will for adv to E7 will use ___ to exam eligibility date of 1 Feb

A

26 months

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38
Q

Maximum amount of mo the in ad ace that a member can request retirement prior to desired date of retirement?

A

24 months. Min 6 months

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39
Q

Who has overall responsibility for the EERa for all enlisted personnel?

A

CG1

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40
Q

What article must the PIO read to the accused?

A

Article 31B

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41
Q

District commanders can grant up to ____ days of sick leave?

A

30

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42
Q

A prospective a school student must have orders _____ to have their HHGs shipped to the training location?

A

20 weeks or greater

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43
Q

How much can be advanced (of original operating allowance auth) to a member for a PPM?

A

60%

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44
Q

How many days TLE authorized for someone who PCS to an OCONUS PDS?

A

5 days

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45
Q

Max amount of TLE per day?

A

290

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46
Q

Pcs orders that say herby detached means you should report?

A

24 hours

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47
Q

The service designated official can authorize SiT of HHG for an additional?

A

90 days

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48
Q

What is the reimbursable amount for for a member going TDY to a new location from home in regards to thier normal distance to work?

A

Difference round trip in new location less normal pds

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49
Q

How many days of TLA ?

A

60 days

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50
Q

A member with a spouse and two children over 12 are entitled to how much TLE?

A

165%

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51
Q

What are the percentages for TLE?

A

65 member
100 member and spouse
25 under 12
35 over 12

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52
Q

Max TLE can be extended to INCONUS?

A

60 days

  • disasters
  • over flow of people at a unit for needs of service
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53
Q

How much is paid for incidentals per day INCONUS?

A

5

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54
Q

How long must you retain approved travel claims?

A

6 years and 3 months

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55
Q

Up to what percent of govt cost for your PCS HHG move will govt pay for your PPM?

A

95%

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56
Q

What is the conversion of kilometers to miles?

A

X.6214

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57
Q

What is the form for local travel claim?

A

SF1164

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58
Q

Standard travel claim form?

A

DD 1351-2

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59
Q

How many days for TLA for OCONUS to CONUS

A

10 Days

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60
Q

An AELP, actual expense lodging plus, (for TDY per diem) in excess of 300% may only be issued by?

A

PDTATAC policy regulations chief

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61
Q

A pdr, form _____, is a 4 part folder used to hold either the SPO-PDR or unit PDR at specified location.

A

CG5354

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62
Q

What is the form for a medical PDR?

A

CG3443

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63
Q

You are writing a directive that is 21 pages long, what are you issuing?

A

Instruction

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64
Q

A CG-4217 is used to do what?

A

Acknowledge recipet of correspondence

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65
Q

Submit the original and ____ copy of the SF-135 (records transmittal and recipet) via the records core donator to the FRC.

A

1

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66
Q

How long is a COMDTNOTE effective for?

A

1 year from publication or on cancelation date, whichever is sooner.

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67
Q

Special mailing lists are used to distribute certain types of material to agencies and individual outside the Coast Guard. A minimum of ___ addresses required?

A

25

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68
Q

The directives control point in the Coast Guard?

A

Commandant CG612

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69
Q

A compromise of this level of security clearance would cause exceptionally grave damage?

A

Top Secret

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70
Q

What form do you complete if you want an allowance change on your unit directives?

A

Cg5323

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71
Q

How long do you keep records of ID cards issued DD Form 1172?

A

6 years

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72
Q

SSIC for general material?

A

10000

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73
Q

If you don’t receive a response to correspondence within 15 working days, how do you use a tracer?

A

Pen, type or stamp original at the top with TRACER, 5 Jun 16

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74
Q

Example of a correct listing for a CG memo reference?

A

Ref:(a) CG STA Indian river inlet memo 4710 of 13 Nov 97

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75
Q

Key sentence in correspondence should appear by ?

A

End of the 1st paragraph

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76
Q

An active duty retirement after 20 years of service will result in reenlistment code of _____ on DD214?

A

RE2

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77
Q

Correspondence should be kept to?

A

4 to 5 sentences

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78
Q

What year did the CG adopt battle streamers?

A

1968

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79
Q

What war were steam powered engines first used?

A

Mexican American war

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80
Q

Who received a Medal of Honor and gold lifesaving medal?

A

Marcus Hannah

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81
Q

The CG ensign has how many stripes?

A

16

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82
Q

How many roles does the CG have?

A

3 roles. Maritime safety, maritime security and maritime stewardship

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83
Q

Which bomb condition is described as exact location and exact time?

A

Bomb condition 3

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84
Q

What degree is the CG slash?

A

64

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85
Q

What does the R in START stand for?

A

Reduce

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86
Q

What does STARR stand for?

A

Spread out, transfer, avoid, accept, reduce

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87
Q

In May 1958, the 55th congress established this law for the e8/e9 ranks in the CG?

A

85-422

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88
Q

You see the letter p for the speed of service objectives on a Flash CGMS messages, how log do you have to respond?

A

3 hours (flash z:10 min, immediate o:30’in, routine r:handles as traffic slows but nlt next duty day

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89
Q

When did the navy adopt the CPO rank?

A

1893

90
Q

When was the first CPOA class?

A

1982

91
Q

In what year did the revenue cutter service merge with the lifesaving service to create the USCG

A

1915

92
Q

What is a e4 in the air force?

A

Senior airman

93
Q

510k of property damage falls under what mishap?

A

Class b

94
Q

What is step four of the ORM process?

A

Identify options

95
Q

What are the steps of the ORM process?

A

Define mission tasks, identify hazards, asses risk, identify options, evaluate risk v gain, execute decision, monitor situation

96
Q

A communication model designed to help guide you through the process of active listening is known as?

A

LEAPS

97
Q

What is the 4th step in completing an award for someone?

A

Draft (gather, develop, decide, draft, exit, complete, submit)

98
Q

What best describes the ORM purpose? Logical and systemic means of identifying and controlling risks which allows the CG LE boarding a to search and seize?

A

14USC89

99
Q

Coast Guard Ready Campaign AIDS families to cope with natural disasters with what process?

A

Be informed, make a plan, build a kit

100
Q

How many missions does the coast guard have?

A

11

101
Q

How many units make up the auxiliary?

A

4 units (national, district, division and flotilla) and 5 branches

102
Q

Who was the 2 time winner of the gold life saving medal?

A

Frederick hatch

103
Q

Who single handedly rescued ten people from the grounded ship Priscilla?

A

Rasmus midget

104
Q

What year did the rate of petty officer become official?

A

1808

105
Q

What year did rates in CG become same as the navy?

A

1917

106
Q

Womens heels may be a maximum of ____ high and no less than ___ wide at the floor

A

2 5/8 and 1/2

107
Q

Womens handbags will not exceed

A

12 X 8 X 5

108
Q

The national flag is referred to as ____ when carried on foot?

A

Colors

109
Q

The national flag is referred to as ____ when displayed on a vehicle or aircraft?

A

Standard

110
Q

How many days prior can active duty member reenlist or extend?

A

90

111
Q

Members of the individual ready reserve and inactive reserve get what color is cars?

A

Green DD Form 2(reserve)

112
Q

Retired members entitled to retired pay, members on temp disability and perm disability get what color is card?

A

Blue DD form 2 (retired)

113
Q

Retired members of the reserve and national guard under 60 get what color ID card?

A

Red DD form 2 (reserve retired)

114
Q

Dependents of military personnel, surviving Dependents, eligible Dependents of foreign military and Dependents accomplish overseas are issued what color is card?

A

Tan. DD form 1173

115
Q

Dependents of a reserve member not on active duty receive what color is card?

A

Red DD form 1173-1

116
Q

1172 is used for?

A

Confirmation of identity to obtain an actual ID card

117
Q

Medal of Honor recipients 100 disabled vets receive what color is card?

A

Tan DD form 2765

118
Q

Civilian retiree card is what color?

A

White DoD civilian retiree card

119
Q

SBP starts on?

A

1st eligible day of retirement

120
Q

In order to receive a discharge pin, how many days are needed active duty?

A

30

121
Q

How far in advance can a member extend a HUMS?

A

1 month

122
Q

How many years of service to be eligible for admin separation board?

A

8 years

123
Q

Discharge from a school equals what type of certificate?

A

Uncharacterized, none.

124
Q

When sick leave is in excess of ___ days, it’s recorded in da via cg2519.

A

2

125
Q

Steps for hand carrying PDR?

A

Place in large envelope.
Sealed and shall not be opened until given to appropriate personnel.
Auth statement in order notes.

126
Q

How long to add a spouse to SBP plan?

A

1 year

127
Q

SSIC system has how many subjects?

A

14

128
Q

What form is used for FSGLI?

A

8286A

129
Q

What doesn’t a member earn while in excess leave?

A

Pay and allowances.

130
Q

Retirement requests should be submitted between?

A

6m and 2 years

131
Q

Members late on SBP annuity payment is charged what percentage?

A

6%

132
Q

Who manages the record for a confined member?

A

PPC

133
Q

Retirement physical lasts how long?

A

1 year

134
Q

SDAP stops?

A

The day prior to departure.

135
Q

How do you let the receiving overseas unit know the checklist has been completed?

A

CGMS- requesting entry approval

136
Q

How long are individual case files (NJP) kept in the unit punishment log?

A

4 years

137
Q

SOCS/SOCSS can take up to how long?

A

1 year

138
Q

How much advance pay is authorized prior to departure and after reporting ?

A

30 (90 Co approval) prior

60 (180 Co approval) after

139
Q

A member is no longer required to pay into SBP when they have reached 70 years of age or ?

A

30 years of payment (360 payments)

140
Q

What permission is DA do you need to create an EMPLID

A

APPL

141
Q

Who has final approval on all waivers and remissions?

A

CG1222

142
Q

Leave sold is paid when?

A

End of month

143
Q

Who can provide input to the CO to determine suitability for a member that has received PCS orders overseas?

A

Chaplain

144
Q

A member with how many years needs to sign a 3307 prior to going overseas for a transfer?

A

17 years

145
Q

A member who has how many months of obligated service remaining can be transferred to another unit without obligating additional time?

A

12 months

146
Q

A member with depn receiving BAH that is UA can continue to receive BAH for how long?

A

NTE 2 months

147
Q

How long does a member have to appeal their NJP before right to appeal is waved?

A

5 calendar days

148
Q

Discharged from AD with less than 90% of initial enlistment complete, member can be advanced up to _% by least costly travel

A

75

149
Q

When does a member need to file the CG2075 form to ensure FSSA continues for next fiscal year?

A

March 2nd

150
Q

PIO must ensure what is completed on CG4910?

A

Information concerning accused

151
Q

Max TLE reimbursement per day?

A

290

152
Q

Proceed without delay is how many proceed days?

A

2

153
Q

Effective date of orders is?

A

Report date - travel days + 1 days.

154
Q

Allowable rental car cost for a member OCONUS who’s vehicle didn’t show up?

A

30 per day

155
Q

In calculating a members total advance pay, which of the below is not authorized?

A

Savings allotment

156
Q

Mixed mode travel: ____ hours equals one day of travel.

A

12

157
Q

Transportation officer can grant a HHG extension up to a max of ____ days?

A

90

158
Q

Mandatory pet quarantine for OCONUS transfer ?

A

550 per pcs move

159
Q

Member completing a self move gets up to what percentage of government rate?

A

95%

160
Q

When a member wants to request authorization for Super Actual Expense (in excess of 300% of locality per diem) who grants approval?

A

Per diem travel and transportation allowance committee

161
Q

Conference lodging allowance will cover up to ____ % of applicable lodging per diem rate?

A

25%

162
Q

Laundry can only be claimed on trips over?

A

7 days

163
Q

Retiring members have how long to ship HHG?

A

1 year

164
Q

Alaska marine highway reservations are paid for by?

A

CBA (Tono)

165
Q

Max tons of a POV shipment?

A

20 tons

166
Q

How far in advance can pcs departure be approved?

A

14 days

167
Q

GTCC suspended if bill is how many days overdue?

A
  1. 90 it’s cancelled.
    120 can’t ever get one again.
168
Q

Max limit for GTCC by account manager is?

A

9,999

169
Q

Standard max for GTCC users?

A

2500

170
Q

Max number of days a member transferring OCONUS can receive TLA

A

30

171
Q

TLE days INCONUS?

A

10

172
Q

Dry cleaning reimbursement is?

A

2 per day

173
Q

Subject line should be _____ words or less

A

10

174
Q

Form for FRC?

A

Sf135

175
Q

Military missions SSIC?

A

16000

176
Q

Directive with X listed in block means?

A

Where it was created

177
Q

You should normally answer correspondence within ___ days?

A

15

178
Q

How many PDRs are there?

A

SPO, unit, DA, EI

179
Q

How many paragraphs are required in a directive?

A

11

180
Q

Disclosure log is kept where?

A

Section 2

181
Q

What does Rapids stand for?

A

Real time automated personnel identification system

182
Q

When’s ending files to the FRC you include the original and how many copies?

A

1

183
Q

A 10-20-10 spouse can get an ID card for how long?

A

4 years

184
Q

Salutation to congressman?

A

Sincerely

185
Q

Salutation to president?

A

Respectfully

186
Q

How many PD 3307?

A

45

187
Q

How many ACC 3307?

A

17

188
Q

How many AR 3307

A

7

189
Q

How many AT 3307?

A

11

190
Q

How many BON 3307?

A

7

191
Q

How many RIB 3307?

A

4

192
Q

How many RPM 3307?

A

5

193
Q

How many SEP 3307s?

A

23

194
Q

How many SRB 3307?

A

7

195
Q

How many allotmemts allowed?

A

14
8 discretionary
6 non discretionary

196
Q

Discharge review board is auth how many years from sep?

A

15 years

197
Q

Manual is reviewed when?

A

Every 4 years

198
Q

Reservists can reenlist for ?

A

234568

199
Q

Active can reenlist for?

A

3456

200
Q

TDRL member can receive an ID card for how many months?

A

30

201
Q

Conressional inquiry on CG operations should be answered in how many days?

A

10 calendar

202
Q

Congressional inquiry on direct personal matters?

A

5 calendar days

203
Q

Short business letter is how many words long?

A

100 words, 8 lines

204
Q

Signature block format?

A

4th line below closing, all caps

205
Q

Cancellations are listed in what paragraph?

A

3

206
Q

Temp ID card can be issued for how long?

A

30 days

207
Q

Page numbers start?

A

On second and following pages

208
Q

SSIC 8000?

A

Ordnance

209
Q

Required on every 3307?

A

Entry type

210
Q

How many points for good conduct for a reserve?

A

70

211
Q

SOCS must be submitted for a reserve member on consecutive active duty for how many days?

A

139

212
Q

RMP stands for?

A

Readiness management period

213
Q

IDT drills per year?

A

48 (60 PSU)

12 ADT

214
Q

Single drill is worth?

A

1 point

215
Q

FHD is how much?

A

50

216
Q

RCSBP coverage declined filled out what section of form?

A

Section C

217
Q

Max amount of days on ADOS-AC Title 10 orders?

A

181

218
Q

IRR stands for?

A

Individual ready reserve

219
Q

How many IDT drills are there?

A

2 single and multiple

220
Q

Multiple drill is worth?

A

2 points. No less than 8 hours