Mini-Board 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following indicate apoptosis EXCEPT ___.

a. Agarose gel electrophoresis: Distinct bands of oligonucleosomes
b. Microscopic: Pyknosis, karyolysis, and karyorrhexis
c. Sequelae: Stromal collapse
d. Ultrastructural: Zeiosis

A

B; PBVD:17,26; R&C:27; HRW:16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is a self-transmissible, but not self-replicating, mobile genetic
element that encodes machinery for integration into or excision from the bacterial
chromosome?
a. Plasmid
b. Bacteriophage
c. Pathogenicity island
d. Integrative and conjugative element

A

D; Vet Pathol 51(2):328-340, 2014

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is a platelet-derived mediator with procoagulant effects?

a. Plasminogen activator inhibitor-1
b. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
c. Platelet-derived growth factor
d. Protease nexin II

A

A; PBVD:70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
In the complement cascade, plasma properdin extends the half-life of otherwise labile
\_\_\_.
a. C4b2b
b. C3bBb
c. C3bBb3b
d. Activated C1
A

B; Toxicol Pathol 40:174, 2012; PBVD: 105

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
The CD115 ligand that controls proliferation, differentiation, and survival of monocytes is
\_\_\_.
a. GM-CSF
b. TGF-β
c. CSF-1
d. IL3
A

C; PBVD:250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Efferocytosis induces the generation of all of the following EXCEPT ___.

a. TGF-β
b. NFκB
c. VEGF
d. IL-10

A

B; Toxicol Pathol 40:169, 2012

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In reference to horizontal bacterial gene transfer, transformation is ___.

a. the transfer of a plasmid from a donor bacterium through a pilus
b. the uptake of free environmental DNA from dead bacteria
c. direct transfer of a plasmid via bacteria-bacteria contact
d. injection of DNA into a bacterium by a bacteriophage

A

B; PBVD:164-5; Vet Pathol 51(2):328-340, 2014

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Superantigens cross-link ___ to the T-cell receptor, resulting in ___ T-cell activation.

a. MHC class I; polyclonal
b. MHC class II; polyclonal
c. MHC class I; monoclonal
d. MHC class II; monoclonal

A

B; Toxicol Pathol 40(2):224, 2012; PBVD fig. 5-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
Which of the following is a multiprotein complex that prevents access of DNA repair
proteins to telomeres?
a. Telomerase
b. Shelterin
c. Rubicon
d. Sirtuin
A

B; Cell 153(6):1198, 2013

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A single base pair substitution that produces a change in a single amino acid that
significantly alters the function of the translated protein is a ___.
a. Missense mutation
b. Nonsense mutation
c. Frameshift mutation
d. Single nucleotide polymorphism

A

A; R&C: 138; PBVD:53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A low-dose toxin that triggers beneficial effects that surpass the repair of the triggering
damage and contributes to improved cellular fitness elicits a ___ response.
a. Nonthreshold linear
b. Nonmonotonic
c. Threshold
d. Hormetic

A

D; Cell 153(6):1204, 2013; Casarett & Doull’s

Toxicology 8th ed., p. 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All of the following are types of CD4+FoxP3+ regulatory T-cells EXCEPT ___ cells.

a. nTREG
b. iTREG
c. TH3
d. Tr1

A

D; Toxicol Pathol 40:188, 2012

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which is FALSE regarding ceroid and lipofuscin?

a. Lipofuscin derives from autophagy, whereas ceroid derives from heterophagy
b. Both pigments autofluoresce, and are positive for, Sudan black, and oil-red-O
c. Ceroid is only intracellular, whereas lipofuscin is intra- and/or extracellular
d. Ceroid is usually deleterious, whereas lipofuscin is not

A

C; PBVD:42-44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following promotes the phosphorylation and ubiquitination of β-catenin?

a. TCF
b. WNT
c. GSK3β
d. E-cadherin

A

C; PBVD:293

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Under the influence of thrombin, endothelium becomes activated to produce all of the
following mediators EXCEPT \_\_\_.
a. PDGF
b. TXA2
c. tPA
d. NO
A

B; PBVD: 73

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
The endothelial lateral border recycling compartment contains all of the following
EXCEPT \_\_\_.
a. CD99
b. JAM-A
c. Nepmucin
d. VE-cadherin
A

D; Vet Pathol 50(1):7-22, 2013

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) inhibits ___.

a. Cell proliferation
b. Tumor angiogenesis
c. Metastatic potential
d. Normal immune response

A

D; Vet Pathol 48(1):255, 2011

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which is the most common major fibril protein type in amyloid of aging?

a. AA
b. Aβ
c. APP
d. IAPP

A

B; PBVD:286-287

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is a host cell receptor for foot and mouth disease virus?

a. VP1
b. VP2
c. Vβ3
d. NSP4

A

C; PBVD:211

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which disease is the result of a primary cytotoxic hypersensitivity?

a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Polyarteritis nodosa
c. Type I diabetes mellitus
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

A; R&C:203-206; PBVD:264-265

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the major antiplasmins in order of first to bind and
neutralize plasmin > second (after first is saturated) > third (after second is saturated)?
a. α1-antitrypsin > α2 macroglobulin > α2-antiplasmin
b. α2 macroglobulin > α2-antiplasmin > α1-antitrypsin
c. α2-antiplasmin > α2 macroglobulin > α1-antitrypsin
d. α2-antiplasmin > α1-antitrypsin > α2 macroglobulin

A

C; PBVD:75

22
Q

In cancer biology, which is FALSE regarding the reprogramming of energy metabolism?
a. Cancer cells limit energy metabolism largely to anaerobic glycolysis (“Warburg
effect”)
b. Glycolysis provides intermediates for organelle biosynthesis and lactate for other
cells
c. Both Ras oncoprotein and hypoxia independently increase levels of HIF1α and
HIF2α
d. Cancer cells upregulate GLUT1 to compensate for low-efficiency ATP production

A

A; Cell 144:659-660, 2011

23
Q

Cyanide causes toxic injury to cells by ___.
a. Inactivating mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase, inhibiting oxidative
phosphorylation
b. Causing membrane lipid peroxidation after conversion to a free radical by P-450
c. Binding sulfhydryl groups of cell membrane proteins, increasing permeability
d. Inhibiting sodium-potassium pumps, inhibiting ion transport

A

A; R&C:24

24
Q

Osteoprotegerin ___.

a. Induces the expression of RANKL by osteoblasts
b. Is produced by osteoblasts in response to TNF-α
c. Inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption by binding to RANK
d. Is produced by bone marrow stromal cells in response to TGF-β

A

D; PBVD:922

25
Q

All are downstream effects of Nix localization to the endoplasmic reticulum EXCEPT
___.
a. Opening of mitochondrial permeability transition pores
b. Calcium release from endoplasmic reticulum
c. Formation of apoptotic bodies
d. ATP depletion

A

C; Toxicol Pathol 41(2):227-234, 2013

26
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding regulation of autophagy?

a. BCL-2 inhibits autophagy by inhibiting the Beclin 1 class III PI3 kinase complex
b. Stimuli that activate AMP-activated protein kinase promote autophagy
c. Rapamycin inhibits autophagy by activating mTOR signaling complex 1
d. Insulin inhibits autophagy by activating class I PI3 kinase

A

C; New Engl J Med 368(7):654, 2013

27
Q
An inherited deficiency of which coagulation factor is least likely to cause clinical
bleeding?
a. Proconvertin
b. Hageman factor
c. Christmas factor
d. Stuart-Prower factor
A

B; PBVD:77

28
Q

In the leukocyte adhesion cascade, intraluminal crawling or “locomotion” is mediated by
___ expressed on transmigrating leukocytes.
a. PECAM-1
b. L-selectin
c. Mac-1
d. LFA-1

A

C; Vet Pathol 50(1):7-22, 2013

29
Q

All of the following transcription factors are known to promote pluripotency EXCEPT ___.

a. Klf4
b. Lin28
c. C-JUN
d. C-MYC

A

C; R&C:84

30
Q
Which of the following E. coli toxins causes an increase in intracellular concentrations of
cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)?
a. Heat stable enterotoxin
b. Heat labile enterotoxin
c. Verotoxin
d. K99 (F5)
A

B; PBVD:165

31
Q

Protein kinase C activates transcription factors when it is activated in the ___ pathway.

a. MAP kinase
b. PI3 kinase
c. cAMP
d. IP3

A

D; R&C:90-91

32
Q

Natural killer T lymphocytes recognize glycolipid antigens associated with ___.

a. TLR2
b. CD25
c. CD1d
d. MHC class I

A

C; R&C:186; Toxicol Pathol 40(2):220, 2012

33
Q

MMP-9 derived from ___ is more readily activated than MMP-9 derived from other cell
types, because it is not complexed with TIMP-1.
a. Mast cells
b. Fibroblasts
c. Neutrophils
d. Endothelial cells

A

C; Cell, 141(1), 52-67, 2010

34
Q

Fractalkine is the ligand for ___, expressed on monocytes..

a. CX3CR1
b. CXCR3
c. CCR5
d. CCR2

A

A; PBVD:129, 250

35
Q
In response to endoplasmic reticulum stress, CHOP does all of the following EXCEPT
\_\_\_.
a. Downregulates BCL-2
b. Inactivates GADD34
c. Upregulates TRB3
d. Upregulates BIM
A

B; Toxicol Pathol 41(2):235-262, 2013

36
Q

Which of the following is most likely to result in a protein-rich exudate?

a. Paraquat
b. Gastric volvulus
c. Sodium retention
d. Intestinal lymphangiectasia

A

A; PBVD:66; R&C:47

37
Q

The Bielschowsky method to demonstrate neurites is what type of histochemical stain?

a. Argentaffin
b. Argyrophilic
c. Silver impregnation
d. Oxidative-methenamine silver

A

C; Vet Pathol 51(1):20, 2014

38
Q
During thymic deletion, \_\_\_ stimulates the presentation of “peripheral tissue-restricted”
self-antigen to naïve T cells.
a. CTLA-4
b. Foxp3
c. AIRE
d. RAG
A

C; R&C: 219

39
Q

Which of the following inhibits signaling downstream of the TGFβ receptor?

a. Co-SMAD
b. R-SMAD
c. SMAD3
d. SMAD7

A

D; PBVD Web Fig. 3-29; Cell, 139(5):876, 2009

40
Q

All of the following PRRs are found on the plasma membrane EXCEPT___.

a. TLR2
b. TLR7
c. TLR10
d. NOD2

A

B; J Vet Intern Med, 26(3), 459, table 1

41
Q

All of the following are derived from arachidonic acid EXCEPT ___.

a. Epoxyeicosatrienoics
b. Prostaglandins
c. Resolvins
d. Lipoxins

A

C; PBVD:107

42
Q

Which is FALSE regarding the interactions between Notch signaling and VEGF?
a. Notch-ICD is released by proteolytic cleavage by ADAM
b. Endothelial tip cells express Dll4, whereas stalk cells express Notch
c. Notch signaling causes decreased endothelial sprouting and proliferation
d. VEGF blockade decreases endothelial survival and increases vascular
organization

A

A; R&C:101

43
Q

GTPase-activating proteins bind active ___ and stimulate its inactivation, thus negatively
regulating signaling through the ___ pathway.
a. PLC-γ; IP3
b. JAKs; JAK/STAT
c. PIP3; PI3 kinase
d. RAS; MAP kinase

A

D; R&C: 282-283

44
Q

Which is FALSE regarding the LDL receptor pathway and cholesterol metabolism?
a. The LDL receptor ligand is apoprotein B-100, expressed on both LDL and IDL
b. In hepatocytes, exit of cholesterol from lysosomes requires NPC1 and NPC2
c. In hepatocytes, intracellular cholesterol inhibits the activity of acyl-coenzymeA
d. In hepatocytes, intracellular cholesterol inhibits the activity of HMG CoA
reductase

A

C; R&C: 147-148

45
Q

Which of the following collagen types is a fibrillar collagen?

a. IV
b. V
c. VI
d. VII

A

B; R&C:95

46
Q

P2Y1 and P2Y12 are platelet receptors for ___.

a. ADP
b. vWF
c. CD40L
d. αIIbβ3

A

A; D&P:119, Toxicol Pathol 39:274, 2011

47
Q

p53 upregulates the transcription of all of the following EXCEPT ___.

a. GADD45
b. CDKN1A
c. MDM2
d. BCL-2

A

D; R&C:290-292

48
Q

Which of the following epigenetic alterations is least likely to be found in cancer?

a. Hypermethylation of CpG islands in the promoter region of the BRCA1 gene
b. Hypermethylation of CpG islands in the promoter region of the VHL gene
c. Hyperacetylation of histones in the p21WAF1 gene
d. Global genomic DNA hypomethylation

A

C; Science, 339(6127), 1567-1570, 2013

49
Q

Selenium is an essential component of which antioxidant?

a. Glutathione peroxidase
b. Glucuronyltransferase
c. Ceruloplasmin
d. Vitamin E

A

A; PBVD:16,590

50
Q
All of the following promote movement through the G1-S cell cycle checkpoint EXCEPT
\_\_\_.
a. E2F
b. TGFβ
c. CDK2
d. PDGF
A

B; R&C:289