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DISPENSING LEC (DRUG INTERACTION) > Midterms > Flashcards

Midterms Flashcards

1
Q

Anong concept: Acid + acid = absorb

A

Changes in Gastric pH

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2
Q

Anong concept: Chelation and Complexation

A

Complexation

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3
Q

Anong concept:
↑ GER= ↑ GI motility=↓absorption=↓GET

A

Changes in GI motility

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4
Q

Anong concept:
Rifamycin’s + OCP’s

A

Alteration of GI flora

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5
Q

Anong concept:
Aluminum based drug + TDDS

A

ALTERATION OF TRANSDERMAL DRUG ABSORPTION

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6
Q

Anong concept:
ALBUMIN AND ALPHA 1-GLYCOPROTIEN IN DRUG DISTRIBUTION

A

PROTEIN BINDING

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7
Q

SICKFACES.COMGQR (INHIBITOR)
SCRAPGPT (INDUCER)

A

ENZYME INHIBITION AND INDUCTION

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8
Q

COMPETETIVE TO RENAL TUBULAR TRANSPORTERS

A

ALTERED EXCRETION

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9
Q

Absorb or excrete:
Lipophilic

A

absorb

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10
Q

Absorb or excrete:
Ionized

A

excrete

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11
Q

Acidic or basic:
Intestine

A

Basic

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12
Q

Acidic or basic:
stomach

A

Acidic

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13
Q

Acidic or basic:
Aspirin

A

acidic

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14
Q

Acidic or basic:
dipyridamole

A

acidic

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15
Q

Acidic or basic:
Diazepam

A

acidic

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16
Q

Acidic or basic:
furosemide

A

Acidic

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17
Q

Acidic or basic:
Diclofenac

A

Acidic

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18
Q

Acidic or basic:
OH- Containing drugs

A

basic

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19
Q

Acidic or basic:
Bicarbonates

A

basic

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20
Q

Acidic or basic:
proton pump inhibitors (prazoles)

A

basic

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21
Q

enteric or not:
Bonamine (antiemetic)

A

not

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22
Q

enteric or not: Aspirin
(nsaid)

A

enteric/ acidic
A Dic O sa aFam, tig Bente

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23
Q

enteric or not: Diclofenac
(nsaid)

A

enteric/ acidic
A Dic O sa aFam, tig Bente

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24
Q

enteric or not: Omeprazole
(PPI)

A

enteric/Basic drug
A Dic O sa aFam, tig Bente

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25
Q

enteric or not: Famotidine
(GERD)

A

enteric
A Dic O sa aFam, tig Bente

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26
Q

enteric or not: Bentyl
(antispasmodic)

A

enteric
A Dic O sa aFam, tig Bente

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27
Q

case:
Kapag nagtake ng diazepam at aspirin together. what happens

A

Aspirin will be metabolized in the stomach.
increase risk of PUD.

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28
Q

Weak acid+ weak base

A

Ionized so excreted. Almost all drug are weak acid and weak base. if pinagsama ang acid + base= formation of salt also.

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29
Q

(+) charged + (-) charged

A

ionization

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30
Q

It is a type of complexation where metal is used.

A

Chelation
- charged metal

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31
Q

binding of ion
Charged particles bind

A

complexation

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32
Q

Identify if chelation or complexation:
Cholestyramine + digoxin/ warfarin

A

complexation

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33
Q

Identify if chelation or complexation:
Metamucil + digoxin/ warfarin and salicylates

A

complexation

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34
Q

Identify if chelation or complexation:
Na polystyrene sulfate + Antacid

A

complexation??

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35
Q

Identify if chelation or complexation:
Sevelamer + ciprofloxacin/ Levothyroxine

A

complexation

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36
Q

Identify if chelation or complexation:
Activated charcoal + iron sulfate

A

chelation

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37
Q

Identify if chelation or complexation:
Vitamins + tetracycline

A

chelation

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38
Q

Identify if chelation or complexation:
vitamins + fluoroquinolones

A

chelation

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39
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
Bisacodyl, cascara, senna

A

↑ GI motility

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40
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
Sorbitol

A

↑ GI motility

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41
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
Psyllium

A

↑ GI motility

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42
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
tegaserod

A

↑ GI motility

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43
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
Asapride

A

↑ GI motility

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44
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
Methylnaltrexone

A

↑ GI motility

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45
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
Metoclopramide

A

↑ GI motility

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46
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
Erythromycin

A

↑ GI motility

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47
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
Hyosyamine (IBS), Anticholinergic

A

↓ GI motility

48
Q

increase or decrease GI motility: propantheline (antimuscarinic)

A

↓ GI motility

49
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
TCA’s (tricyclic antidepressants)

A

↓ GI motility
- anti cholinergic side effect

50
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
Opioids

A

↓ GI motility
- agonist of mu-opioid receptor

51
Q

increase or decrease GI motility:
Diphenhydramine (antihistamine)

A

↓ GI motility
- anti cholinergic effect

52
Q

Prokinetic drug

A

Asapride

53
Q

selective agonist of serotonin in GI

A

Asapride

54
Q

selective antagonist of the mu-opioid receptor

A

Methylnaltrexone
- treat opioid-induced constipation

55
Q

Blocks GI dopamine receptor 1,2,3 in the GUT

A

Metoclopramide
-prokinetic and anti-emetic

56
Q

Anti-biotics/Colonic cleansing + vit K

A

no synthesis of vit K
- vit K defficiency

57
Q

rifamycin + OCP

A

sub therapeutic effect of OCP

58
Q

Anti-biotic/colonic cleansing + Digoxin

A

increased digoxin
digoxin is metabolized in GUT bacteria
called EGGERHELLA

59
Q

Epinephrine + Lidocaine TDDS

A

prolong anesthetic effect of lidocaine

60
Q

Aluminum based drug + TDDS

A

drugs in TDDS will not be absorbed

61
Q

Menthol + TDDs

A

chang in skin pH will cause irritation= inflammation (skin will buldge)= pores constrict = TDDs drugs won’t pass through

62
Q

when drugs stay in the blood stream what is affected in ADME?

A

Distribution

63
Q

will a drug ellicit effect when it is binded to a protein?

A

no

64
Q

protein binding can prolong duration of action

A

yes

65
Q

bound drugs acts as a reservoir

A

yes

66
Q

protein binding protects drug from metabolism and excretion

A

yes

67
Q

which protein does it bind to:
WARFARIN (ACIDIC DRUG)

A

ALBUMIN

68
Q

which protein does it bind to:
SALICYLATES

A

ALBUMIN

69
Q

which protein does it bind to:
DIGOXIN

A

ALBUMIN

70
Q

which protein does it bind to:
IBUPROFEN

A

ALBUMIN

71
Q

Which protein does it bind to:
FLUOXETINE
ANTI-DEPRESSANTS

A

ALBUMIN

72
Q

which protein does it bind to:
CITALOPRAM
ANTI -DEPRESSANT

A

ALBUMIN

73
Q

which protein does it bind to:
KETOCONAZOLE
ANTI FUNGAL

A

ALBUMIN

74
Q

which protein does it bind to:
PHENYTOIN
ANTI EPILEPTIC

A

ALBUMIN

75
Q

which protein does it bind to:
PREDNISOLONE
CORTICOSTEROID

A

ALBUMIN

76
Q

which protein does it bind to:
NAFCILLIN
BETA LACTAM ANTIBIOTIC

A

ALBUMIN

77
Q

Which protein does it bind to:
CARBAMAZEPINE
ANTI CONVULSANT

A

ALPHA 1 ACID GLYCOPROTEIN

78
Q

which protein does it bind to:
LIDOCAINE
ARRHYTHMIA/ ANESTHESIA

A

ALPHA 1 ACID GLYCOPROTEIN

79
Q

Which protein does it bind to:
LOPINAVIR
ANTI- RETROVIRAL PROTEASE INHIBITOR

A

ALPHA 1 ACID GLYCOPROTEIN

80
Q

which protein does it bind to:
METHADONE
ANALGESIC (SYNTHETIC OPIOID AGONIST)

A

ALPHA 1 ACID GLYCOPROTEIN

81
Q

which protein does it bind to:
PRAZOSIN
(HIGH BLOOD ; ANTI ADRENERGIC AGENT )

A

ALPHA 1 ACID GLYCOPROTEIN

82
Q

which protein does it bind to:
QUININE
(MALARIA AND BABESIOSIS)

A

ALPHA 1 ACID GLYCOPROTEIN

83
Q

which protein does it bind to:
COCAINE

A

ALPHA 1 ACID GLYCOPROTEIN

84
Q

ERYTHROMYCIN

A

ALPHA 1 ACID GLYCOPROTEIN

85
Q

Identify if the concept is for normal drug or for pro drug:
Enzyme inhibition: increased effect

A

normal drug

86
Q

Identify if the concept is for normal drug or for pro drug:
enzyme induction: increased effect

A

pro drug
- the enzyme in charged for activating the drug is induced

87
Q

Identify if the concept is for normal drug or for pro drug:
enzyme inhibition: decreased effect

A

prodrug
- the enzyme in charge of activating a drug is inhibited

88
Q

Identify if the concept is for normal drug or for pro drug:
enzyme inducer: decrease effect

A

normal drug

89
Q

fluconazole + warfarin

A

inhibitor
Fluconazole inhibits the enzyme responsible in metabolizing warfarin
= bleeding

90
Q

grapefruit juice + drug

A

inhibitor
grapefruit is an inhibitor

91
Q

ssri’s +mao’s

A

inhibitor
- LEADS TO SEOTONIN SYNDROME
SSRI- INHIBITS SEROTONIN RE UPTAKE
MAO- PREVENTS METABOLISM OF SEROTONINSEROTONIN

92
Q

SMOKING + CLOZAPINE (ANTI -CONVULSANT)

A

INDUCER
- SMOKING IS AN INDUCER
- DECREASED EFFECT OF CLOZAPINE

93
Q

ST. JOHNS WORT + CYCLOSPORINE (IMMUNOSUPRESSANT)

A

INDUCER
- ST. JOHNS WORT IS AN INDUCER
- IMMUNOSUPPRESANT WILL NOT TAKE EFFECT

94
Q

PHENYTOIN

A

INDUCE ITSELF

95
Q

in or out:
urate

A

in

96
Q

in or out: acetic acid

A

out

97
Q

in or out: uric acid

A

out

98
Q

in or out:
acetate

A

in

99
Q

↑ GFR= ? urinary drug excretion= ? Renal blood flow

A

↑ GFR= ↑ urinary drug excretion
= ↑ renal blood flow (direct relationship)

100
Q

no active tubular secretion = ? drug effect = ? clearance

A

↑ drug effect (might cause toxicity)
↓ clearance

there is a problem (impaired)

101
Q

↑ urine pH and amphetamine

A

amphetamine is a basic drug
↓ basic + basic = reabsorption
clearance

102
Q

↓ urine pH and salicylate

A

acid + acid = reabsorption
↓ clearance

103
Q

↑ urine pH and salicylate

A

base + acid= ionization = excretion
↑ clearance

104
Q

truTruee or false: methylxanthine’s affects renal blood flow

A

true
- theophylline (1, 3 dimethylxanthine)
- Caffeine (1,3,7 trimethylxanthine)
- theobromine (1,7 dimethylxanthine)

105
Q

dimethylxanthine are competitive antagonist of what?

A

Adenosine receptor
- adenosine receptor is a nucleotide that causes constriction.

methyl xanthine antagonize these receptor causing now vasodilation and dilation of renal blood vessel

106
Q

probenecid inhibits secretion of penicillin

A

Probenecid (anti gout) flushes urate out of the body. Urate is a competitor of penicillin in Active renal secretion . it competitvely bind to organic an ion transporter, making it the first one to be excreted. On the other hand, penicillin stays longer in the body prolonging its effect

107
Q

cimetidine inhibits secretion of metformin and phenytoin

A

cimetidine blocks transport of

  1. organic cat ion (transporter of metformin)
  2. Multi drug and toxic compound extrusion

causing intoxication.

*Same concept on verapamil

108
Q

Acid or basic: Antacid

A

Basic
Increase urine pH

109
Q

Acid or base:
Sodium bicarbonate

A

Basic
Increase urine pH

110
Q

Acid or base:
Sodium bicarbonate

A

Base
Increase urine pH

111
Q

Acid or base;
Acetazolamide

A

Basic
Increase urine pH

112
Q

Acid or base:
Vit c

A

Acidic
Decrease urine pH

113
Q

Acid or base:
Ammonium chloride

A

Acidic
Decrease urine pH

114
Q

Acid or base:
Ammonium chloride

A

Acidic
Decrease urine pH

115
Q

Acid or base:Methanamine

A

Base
Decrease urine pH

DISPENSING LEC (DRUG INTERACTION) (7 decks)

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