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EMT Class > Midterm Review > Flashcards

Midterm Review Flashcards

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1
Q

Prehospital Care

A

Emergency medical treatment given to patients before they are transported to a hospital or other facility

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2
Q

The modern EMS system got its start from which document?

A

1966 “The white paper” Accidental death and disability: The neglect of modern society

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3
Q

4 levels of pre-hospital care providers.

A
  • Emergency Medical Responder
  • Emergency Medical Technician
  • Advanced EMT
  • Paramedic
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4
Q

Medical Director

A

The physician who is legally responsible for the clinical and patient care aspects of the EMS system.

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5
Q

Medical Oversight

A

A comprehensive term for the responsibilities fo the EMS system’s medical director.

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6
Q

On-Line Medical Direction

A

When an EMS provider and physician communicate by cell phone, radio, or video technology with the physician providing immediate feedback regarding the patient’s diagnosis, condition, and emergency care.

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7
Q

Off-Line Medical Direction

A

A set of predetermined, written guidelines, often referred to as standing orders, that allow EMT’s to use their judgment to administer emergency medical care without having to contact a physician.

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8
Q

5 emotional stages of grief

A 
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
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9
Q

Cleaning

A

The process of washing a soiled object with soap and water.

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10
Q

Disinfecting

A

Includes hospital-grade disinfectant or germicide to kill many but not all of the microorganisms on a surface.

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11
Q

Sterilization

A

The process that kills all microorganisms on the surface of an object.

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12
Q

Acute Stress Reaction

A

A person’s acute reaction to a stressful situation.

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13
Q

Delayed Stress Reaction

A

Signs and symptoms of stress that are not immediately evident. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is a typical delayed stress reaction.

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14
Q

Cumulative Stress Reaction

A

“Burnout” - the result of constant exposure to stressful situations that build overtime.

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15
Q

Standard Precautions

A

The process of protecting yourself from disease transmission through exposure to blood and other body fluids.

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16
Q

Pathogen

A

A microorganism that causes disease.

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17
Q

What is the most effective way to reduce the spread of an infection?

A

Hand- Washing

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18
Q

Communicable Disease

A

A disease that can spread from person to person.

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19
Q

Scope of Practice

A

The actions and care that EMTs are legally allowed to perform by the state in which they are providing emergency medical care.

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20
Q

Standard of Care

A

The care that is expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when managing a patient in a similar situation.

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21
Q

Duty to Act

A

The legal obligation to provide service.

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22
Q

Negligence

A

A tort in which there is no intent to do any harm to the patient but in which a breach in the duty to act occurred.

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23
Q

Battery

A

The act of touching a patient unlawfully without his/her consent.

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24
Q

Assault

A

A willful threat to inflict harm on a patient, which can occur without actually touching the patient.

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25
Q

Informed Conset

A

Informing a patient of the care to be provided and the associated risks and consequences, prior to rendering emergency medical care.

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26
Q

Expressed Consent

A

A patient informed of the treatment verbally or non-verbally expresses their consent.

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27
Q

Implied Consent

A

Obtaining consent through assuming that a patient who is unresponsive or unable to make rational decision would consent to emergency medical care if they could.

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28
Q

Involuntary Consent

A

Patient who does not have the legal right to determine his or her own medical care..

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29
Q

Prehospital Care Report

A

Documentation that is written or electronically generated record of the patient and the care they received.

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30
Q

5 Functions of a PCR

A
  1. Continuity of medical care
  2. Administrative Uses or billing purposes
  3. Legal Document to be used in court
  4. Educational and Research Uses
  5. Evaluation and Continuous Quality Improvement.
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31
Q

Pertinent Negative

A

Signs and symptoms that might be expected, but the patient denies having.

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32
Q

Base Station

A

Dispatch or coordination area that is ideally in contact with all other elements of the system.

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33
Q

Mobile Radios

A

Vehicle-mounted devises used to communicate within the EMS system. Capable of transmitting over a 10-15 mile range with low power transmission capabilities.

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34
Q

Portable Radios

A

Radios used when you are out of your vehicle; have a very limited range.

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35
Q

Repeaters

A

A device that receives transmissions from a relatively low-powered source and rebroadcasts them at another frequency and higher power.

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36
Q

Cell phones

A

Used as a back-up communication device to the radio

Pros: Excellent sound quality, availability of channels, and easy maintenance.

Cons: ineffective in disaster situations

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37
Q

Emergency Medical Dispatcher

A

Specially trained personnel who take calls at PSAP and facilitate the dispatch of emergency resources. They also provide instructions for lifesaving emergency care.

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38
Q

Body Mechanics

A

The safes and the most efficient method of using your body to gain a mechanical advantage.

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39
Q

4 principles of body mechanics

A
  1. Keep the weight of the object as close to your body as possible.
  2. Lift with your leg, hip, and gluteal muscles.
  3. Stack your hips, shoulders, and feet.
  4. Reduce the height or distance through which the object must be moved.
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40
Q

Emergency Move

A

A move used when there is immediate danger to the patient or to the rescuer.

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41
Q

Urgent Move

A

A move used when the patient is suffering from an immediate life threat.

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42
Q

Non-Urgent Move

A

A move used when there is no immediate threat to life to the patient or the rescuer.

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43
Q

Prone

A

Face Down Position

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44
Q

Supine

A

Lying flat on the back

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45
Q

Lateral Recumbent Position

A

“Recovery Position”- Patient lying on his left or right side.

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46
Q

Anatomical Position

A

The patient standing erect, facing forward, with arms down at the sides and palms facing forward.

47
Q

Fowler’s Position

A

Patient lying on their back with their upper body elevated at a 45 - 60 degree angle.

48
Q

Semi-Fowlers Position

A

Patient is lying on their back with their upper body elevated at less than a 45 degree angle.

49
Q

Minute Volume or Minute Ventilation

A

The amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in 1 minute.

50
Q

Tidal Volume

A

The amount of air moved in and out of the lungs with 1 breath.

51
Q

Cardiac Output

A

The amount of blood the heart pumps out in 1 minute.

52
Q

Stroke Volume

A

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle with 1 beat.

53
Q

What 2 molecules are necessary for normal cell metabolism?

A

Oxygen and Glucose

54
Q

Neonate

A

Birth to 1 month

55
Q

Infant

A

1 month to 1 year

56
Q

Toddler

A

1 year to 3 years old

57
Q

Preschool age child

A

3 years to 5 years old

58
Q

School age child

A

6-11 years old

59
Q

Adolescents

A

12-18 years old

60
Q

Early Adulthood

A

20-40 years old

61
Q

Middle Adulthood

A

40-60 years old

62
Q

Late Adulthood

A

60 years or older

63
Q

Internal Respiration

A

The exchange of oxygen and glucose with the bodies tissues.

64
Q

External Respiration

A

The exchange of oxygen and glucose at the alveolar-capillary membrane.

65
Q

Systolic Blood Pressure

A

The amount of pressure exerted on the walls of the arteries when the heart contracts.

66
Q

Diastolic Blood Pressure

A

The amount of pressure exerted on the walls of the arteries when the heart is relaxed.

67
Q

Ventilation

A

The mechanical process of moving air in and out of the lungs.

68
Q

What substance or molecule is responsible for a healthy individual’s stimulus for breathing?

A

Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

69
Q

Which type of patient’s are at risk for developing the hypoxic drive?

A

COPD patients

70
Q

What are the by-products of aerobic metabolism?

A

CO2, H2O, and Heat.

71
Q

What are the by-products of anaerobic metabolism?

A

Lactic Acid

72
Q

What are the three different types of muscle and where are they found?

A
  1. Skeletal Muscle (Voluntary Muscles)
  2. Smooth Muscle (Blood Vessels, Bronchioles, & Intestines)
  3. Cardiac Muscle (Heart)
73
Q

What are the two heart rhythms the AED is designed to shock?

A

Ventricular Tachycardia (VTAC) and Ventricular Fibrillation (V-Fib)

74
Q

Brain cells will die in how many minutes without oxygen?

A

4-6 minutes

75
Q

Which cardiac condition should avoid getting aspirin?

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)

76
Q

What is the maximum distance and EMT should reach in front of their body?

A

15-20 inches

77
Q

To whom is an EMT allowed to transfer care?

A

To equal or higher level of care.

78
Q

Thrombus

A

Blood-Clot

79
Q

List the cardiac conduction system in order.

A 
SA Node (Pacemaker)
Atria Internodal Pathways
AV Node
Bundle of HIS
Purkinje Fibers
80
Q

SA Node

A

Sinoatrial Node or “Primary Pacemaker”

81
Q

Automaticity

A

A trait only found in cardiac muscle. The hearts ability to generate it’s own electrical impulse.

82
Q

Veins

A

Blood vessels that carry blood back toward the heart.

83
Q

Arteries

A

Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart.

84
Q

Capillaries

A

Thin blood vessels that are best suited for gas and nutrient exchange. Capillaries connect arterioles to venules.

85
Q

Arterioles

A

Small arteries

86
Q

Venules

A

Small veins

87
Q

Apnea

A

Not or no breathing

88
Q

Dyspnea

A

Difficulty breathing

89
Q

What should you look for in a General Impression?

A

Age, sex, chief complaint, level of distress, & position

90
Q

Wheezing

A

Lower airway sound- high pitched, musical, whistling sound.

Indicates: Bronchoconstriction

91
Q

Crackles/Rales

A

Lower airway sound- bubbly or crackling sounds heard during inhalation

Indicates: Fluid in the airway (ex. pulmonary edema)

92
Q

Rhonchi

A

Lower airway sound- thick, rattling noises heard on auscultation

Indicates: mucus in the airway

93
Q

Respiratory Arrest

A

Complete cessation or stoppage of breathing.

94
Q

Respiratory Failure

A

The tidal volume or respiratory rate is inadequate and can no longer provide adequate oxygenation to the cells.

95
Q

Respiratory Distress

A

Increase respiratory effort resulting from impaired breathing, while the tidal volume and respiratory rate are still adequate.

96
Q

4 categories of shock

A
  • Hypovolemic
  • Distributive
  • Cardiogenic
  • Obstructive
97
Q

Hypovolemic Shock

A

Shock that is caused by low blood volume

  1. Hemorrhagic shock
  2. Non-hemorrhagic shock
  3. Burn Shock
98
Q

Distributive Shock

A

Shock that is caused due to massive systemic vasodilation.

  1. Septic Shock
  2. Anaphylactic Shock
  3. Neruogenic Shock
99
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

A

Shock caused by ineffective pump function.

100
Q

Obstructive Shock

A

Shock caused by a condition that obstructs forward blood flow.

101
Q

Fontanelles

A

The “soft spot” on an infant’s head where the bony plates of the skull have not yet fused together. Useful assessment tool for dehydration and increased intracranial pressure.

102
Q

Mechanism of Injury

A

The forces and factors that cause a traumatic injury. How a patient was injured.

103
Q

Nature of Illness

A

The type of medical condition or complaint a patient suffers from.

104
Q

Drug Action

A

The effect the drug has on the body

105
Q

Contraindications

A

Situations in which the drug should not be administered.

106
Q

Indications

A

The direct therapeutic benefit derived from the administration of the drug.

107
Q

Side Effects

A

Actions that are not desired and that occur in addition to the desired therapeutic effect.

108
Q

Common medication names for an MDI

A

Albuterol
Levalbuterol
Proventil
Ventolin

109
Q

Baseline Vital Signs

A

The first set of measurements you take.

110
Q

How do you protect yourself in a refusal situation?

A
  1. Conduct a thorough physical assessment
  2. Try to persuade the patient
  3. Determine if patient has capacity to understand
  4. Consult medical direction
  5. Document thoroughly
111
Q

Do Not Resuscitate Order (DNR)

A

A legal document or order that most often governs resuscitation issues only.

112
Q

Durable Power of Attorney

A

Designates a person who is legally empowered to make health care decisions for the signer of the document if he/she is unable to do so for themselves.

113
Q

Physician orders for life sustaining treatment (POLST)

A

Orders that identify the desired level of life-sustaining treatment in patients with a terminal or life-threatening illness who are not likely to survive.

114
Q

Normal V/S: Neonate & Infant

A 
RR = 30-60/min
HR= 100-205 bpm
SBP= > 60mmHg

EMT Class (7 decks)

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