Midterm review Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following associations is true?

pick all that are true

A

A) The heart is medial and superior to the umbilicus
B) The ASIS is anterior and inferior to the axillae
C) The ischial tuberosity is medial & posterior to the greater trochanter
D) The lungs are deep to the costals
E) The ears are lateral and posterior to the ocular region
F) The styloid process of the radius is distal to the elbow
G) the PIPS are distal to the DIPS
H) The hyoid is inferior to the thyroid but superior to the manubrium

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding planes of the body is FALSE? IF, it is False, determine the correct response to make it true.
A

A) Frontal plane divides into anterior and posterior
B) Flexion occurs along the coronal plane
C) A longitudinal cut divides a limb down its length
D) A midsagittal cut gives unequal right and left halves
E) A transverse cut gives superior and inferior halves
G) The pubic symphysis is in the midsagittal plane

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3
Q
MATCH
A) caudal
B) dorsal
C) pedal
D) cephalad
E) supine
F) prone
G) Ipsilateral
H) sural
I) popliteal
J) Axillary
K) Contralateral
A
  1. Pertaining to the feet
  2. Same side of
  3. Pertaining to the back of the knee
  4. Pertaining to the armpit
  5. Opposite side of
  6. Face down, back up
  7. Pertaining to the back
  8. Pertaining to the lower leg
  9. Back down, face up
  10. Pertaining to the head
  11. Pertaining to the tail
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4
Q
  1. Which of the following apply to feedback systems? (pick all that apply)
A

A) Negative is a decrease of the effector
B) There are more positive feedback systems in the body
C) An example of negative feedback is control of Ca+ + in the body
D) Sweating is an example of negative feedback
E) Heart Rate & BP changes are examples of negative feedback (under normal circumstances)
F) Feedback systems help maintain homeostasis
G) Oxytocin is a good example of positive feedback
H) Positive feedback increases the effector

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5
Q
5) MATCH
A) atom
B) Neutron 
C) proton
D) compound
E) molecule
F) electron
G) Atomic mass
H) Atomic number
I) Valence shell
J) Isotope
K) Isomer
L) Free radical
A
  1. Element with free floating electrons
  2. Subatomic – neutral charge
  3. Same compound, different configuration
  4. Combination of 2 or more of different elements
  5. Combination of 2 or more of the same types of elements
  6. The smallest unit of matter that can still retain its properties
  7. Subatomic – positive charge
  8. Represents the total # of protons
  9. Total # of protons and neutrons
  10. Outer most shell
  11. Subatomic – negative charge
  12. Element with slightly varying # of neutrons – can easily disintegrate b/c of instability
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6
Q

6) MATCH
1. anabolic
2. catabolic
3. catalyst
4. endergonic
5. exergonic
6. acids
7. bases
8. enzymes
9. salts
10. buffers
11. Activation energy

A

A) Reactions that requires input of energy
B) Reactions that releases energy
C) The minimal level of energy required to achieve a reaction
D) Any substance that speeds up the rate of reaction
E) Helps control pH content of fluids; ex: HCO3
F) A protein compound that is a catalyst for most biological reactions
G) Dissociates to give protons; <7 pH
H) Reactions that builds
I) Dissociates to give hydroxide: >7 pH
J) Reaction that breaks down
K) Dissociates to give no protons or hydroxide but ions

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

Pick all that are TRUE

A

A) Hydrophilic is water loving and is non polar
B) The cell membrane has amphipathic properties
C) Nonpolar is water fearing and will not dissolve easily in water
D) Amphipathic molecules are both polar and nonpolar thus may penetrate the parts of the cell membrane
E) An example of hydrophobic is bile
F) Hydrogen bonds are extremely strong and do not break apart
G) Hydrogen bonds contribute to the heat capacity of water
H) Salts are considered hydrophilic
I) Covalent bonds are the most prevalent of the 3 types of chemical bonds.

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8
Q
  1. A manufacturing company uses a very effective solvent that is composed of groups of atoms with unpaired electrons in their outermost electron shells. Which of the following is true?
A

A) The solvent’s atoms are isotopes with unstable nuclei that releases radioactivity.
B) Workers using the solvent have decreased risk of cataracts, atherosclerosis, or cancers.
C) Inclusion of antioxidants in workers’ diets may help protect them from effects of the solvent.
D) The solvent is electrically neutral and therefore poses no risks to workers.
E) The unpaired electrons in the solvent atoms will stabilize molecules in the workers’ bodies.

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9
Q
  1. The kinetic energy needed to break the chemical bonds in reactant molecules is called
A
A) chemical energy
B) positional energy
C) activation energy
D) conservation energy
E)  potential energy
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10
Q
  1. The four elements making up about 96% of the body’s mass are represented by the symbols
A
A) O, Ca, H, Na 
B) O, C, H, N 
C) O, C, He, Na 
D) O, H, K, N 
E) O, Ca, H, Ni
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11
Q
  1. The smallest unit of matter that retains the properties and characteristics of an element is the:
A
A) atom. 
B) molecule. 
C) proton. 
D) nucleus. 
E) electron.
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12
Q
  1. Which of the following carry a negative charge?
A
A) protons only 
B) neutrons only 
C) electrons only 
D) both protons and electrons 
E) both electrons and neutrons
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13
Q
  1. a. On the periodic table of elements, find the following details for:
A
Potassium
Sodium
Calcium
Iron
Gold
Atomic symbol
Total # of protons
Total # of electrons
Total # of electron shells
Valance # of electrons
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14
Q
  1. b – M & M

MATCH

1) occurs between two atoms that share electrons equally
2) occurs when one atom transfers electrons to another
2) occurs between N-bases of DNA

A

A) double covalent bonding

B) hydrogen bonding

C) ionic bonding

D) nonpolar covalent bonding

E) polar covalent bonding

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15
Q

fill in the blanks

A
  1. Fill in the blanks* _________ fats are triglycerides that contain only single covalent bonds between carbon atoms.* The particular sequence of amino acids found in a protein is its __________ structure.* _________ are the monomers of nucleic acids.
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16
Q
  1. If the DNA triplet that codes for insertion of an amino acid is AAG, which of the following is true?
A

A) The noncoding DNA bound to the triplet is UUC.
B) The mRNA codon for the amino acid is TTC.
C) The tRNA anticodons for the amino acid is AAG.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A and C are correct

17
Q
  1. The process of transcription involves production of:
A

A) mRNA from a DNA template.
B) two new DNA strands from the two original strands.
C) DNA from an mRNA template.
D) an amino acid chain from an mRNA template.
E) new amino acids

18
Q
  1. A scientist has grown kidney tubule cells in tissue culture. As she examines the culture with a microscope, she sees many cells that appear to have no nucleus and no nucleoli. Instead the cells have dark, highly-coiled, thread-like objects that occur in pairs where the nucleus should be but not arranged in any pattern. The scientist knows that these cells are in the __ stage of mitosis.
A
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis
19
Q
  1. Mix & Match

1) transport mechanism allowing ingestion of solid particles by white blood cells
2) utilizes Na+ or H+ gradients or Na+/K+ ATPase to move ions against their concentration gradients
3) mechanism allowing polar covalent compounds to move down their concentration gradients and cross the plasma membrane

A
A) active transport
B) facilitated diffusion
C) osmosis
D) phagocytosis
E) simple diffusion
20
Q
  1. Mix & Match

1) involved in synthesis, processing and packaging of proteins
2) contain enzymes that break down molecules
3) move materials past cells or move cells
4) Involved in forming mitotic spindles
5) Contains RNA, DNA, and chromatin fibers

A

A) centrioles, centrosome

B) cilia, flagella

C) lysosomes, peroxisomes, proteosomes

D) nucleus, nucleolus

E) ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi complex

21
Q
  1. M & M

1) 3 nucleotide sequence on DNA that codes for the use of a specific amino acid
2) uses RNA and ribosomes to assemble proteins
3) produces RNA complementary to DNA

A

A) Anticodon

B) Codon

C) Transcription

D) Translation

E) triplet

22
Q
  1. Fill in the blanks
A

The pressure that would prevent water from moving across a selectively permeable membrane is _________

The normal intracellular concentration of glucose is approximately 5%. An infusion (placing the cell into a solution) containing 10% glucose would be _______to the cell.

_____ are membrane proteins that use energy to transport Na+ and glucose across the plasma membrane in the same direction.

23
Q
  1. Which of the following are true of nervous tissue?
A

A) It consists of two basic kinds of cells: neurons and neuroglial.
B) The neuroglial have main parts: a cell body, an axon, and dendrites.
C) The neurons cannot generate nerve impulses.
D) The neurons are insensitive to changes in their environment.
E) The neuroglial communicate directly with muscles and glands.

24
Q
  1. Some cells have the ability to respond to stimuli by generating signals such as action potentials. These cells are
A
A) excitable cells. 
B) neurons. 
C) muscle fibers. 
D) A and B are correct. 
E) A, B, and C are correct.
25
Q
  1. Mix and Match
    1) group of cells with common origin, similar structure and specific function
    2) forms glands, coverings and linings; high degree of cellularity; avascular
    3) contractile tissue; cells called fibers; 2 forms striated; 2 under involuntary control
A

A) connective tissue

B) epithelial tissue

C) muscle tissue

D) nervous tissue

E) tissue

26
Q
  1. M & M
    1) web like strands of transmembrane proteins, fuse outer surfaces of cells together, prevents leakage between cells
    2) anchor cells to basement membrane, contain integrin proteins
    3) act as “spot welds”, hold cells together with cadherins, stabilizes epidermis
A

A) adherens junctions

B) desmosomes

C) gap junctions

D) hemidesmosomes

E) tight junctions

27
Q
  1. M & M
    1) store triglycerides; found in connective tissues just below skin, around heart and kidneys
    2) flat cells, make fibers and ground substance of connective tissue; usually most numerous cells in a connective tissue
    3) secrete antibodies; help defend tissues from invading pathogens; most reside in connective tissues
A

A) adipocytes

B) fibroblasts

C) macrophages

D) mast cells

E) plasma cells

28
Q
  1. The process of transcription involves production of:
A

A) mRNA from a DNA template.
B) two new DNA strands from the two original strands.
C) DNA from an mRNA template.
D) an amino acid chain from an mRNA template.
E) new amino acids.

29
Q
  1. The end result of mitosis is production of
A

A) one cell with twice as many organelles as the parent cell.
B) two cells with half as many chromosomes as the parent cell.
C) sperm cells and egg cells.
D) four cells with twice as much DNA as the parent cell.
E). two cells identical to the parent cell.

30
Q
  1. Crossing over occurs during which of the following?
A
A) Metaphase I meiosis
B) Metaphase II mitosis
C) Prophase I meiosis
D) Telophase I mitosis
E) Prophase II of meiosis