Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

How would you work up someone with a primary immunodeficiency?

A

CBC w/ differential
Swab/sputum culture
Respiratory Panel
Blood, urine, CSF cultures

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2
Q

Your pt is a 4yo presenting with fever, lethargy, won’t eat, barely drinking for the past 2 days. No cough. Negative PMH. What do you suspect and how do you work it up?

A

Secondary Immune issue
CBC w/ differential
CMP (electrolytes)

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3
Q

Primary immunodeficiencies can be characterized by their defect:
(4 types)

A

Cellular immunity (T-cells)
Humoral immunity (B cells)
Phagocytes
Complement

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4
Q

Many primary immunodeficiencies are inherited these 2 ways

A

X linked

Autosomal recessive

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5
Q

Consider Primary immunodeficiency in children with SPUR:

A

Severe, Prolonged, Unusual, Recurrent infections

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6
Q

SCID(Severe combined immunodeficiency) and Wiskott-Aldrich(Aldrich syndrome) and DiGeorge are all caused by___ defects

A

T-cell

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7
Q

_____ is characterized by eczema and thrombocytopenia

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

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8
Q

_____ defects usually aren’t seen until after 6 mo due to remaining maternal immunoglobulins.

A

B-cell

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9
Q

Aggamaglobulinemia, CVID, Hyper IgM syndrome are all caused by:

A

B cell deficiency

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10
Q

T/F: immunizations are essential for kids with B cell deficiencies

A

False. Can’t make memory cells anyways

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11
Q

Most common cause of stridor in infants

A

Laryngomalacia

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12
Q

Most common cause of drug-induced cutaneous reactions (as in SJS or TEN)

A

Amoxicillin, Ampicillin, and Bactrim

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13
Q

____ is when neutrophils fail to adhere to vascular endothelium

A

Leukocyte adhesion defect

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14
Q

____ is when there is a defect in intracellular killing. Lack of superoxidase after phagocytosis.

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

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15
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease is inherited this way

A

x-linked recessive

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16
Q

How do you test the complement pathway function?

A

CH50

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17
Q

What type of immune mediated pathway is involved in hemolytic anemia

A

Type II

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18
Q

Serum sickness, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, and post-strep. Glomerulonephritis are all cause by type ____ reactions

A

Type III

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19
Q

Infants with eczema have lesions on _______ surfaces

A

Facial

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20
Q

Older children and with eczema have lichenification on ____ surfaces

A

Flexural

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21
Q

Asthma tests include

A

Lung fxn, peak flow, CXR, ABGs, eosinophil count

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22
Q

Causes of cough in the first months of life = CRADLE

A
CF
RTI
Aspiration
Dyskinetic cilia
Lung malformation
Edema
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23
Q

In the Asthma Action Plan:
Green = ______% of the peak expiratory flow rate
Yellow = ______
Red = ____

A
Green = 80-100%
Yellow = 50-80%
Red = below 50%
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24
Q

This classification of asthma requires no daily medications

A

Mild intermittent

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25
Q

This classification of asthma has sx > 2days/week or >2 nights/mo

A

Mild persistent

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26
Q

This classification of asthma requires daily low-dose inhaled ICS and a LABA

A

Moderate persistent

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27
Q

This classification of asthma is characterized by continual daytime sx and frequent sx at night

A

Severe persistent

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28
Q

This lab is most important for determining status asthmaticus

A

ABGs (hypoxia)

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29
Q

The most common organism to cause Otits media

A

S. pneumoniae

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30
Q

The most common organism to cause Sinusitis

A

S. pneumoniae

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31
Q

The most common organism to cause Croup

A

Parainfluenza virus

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32
Q

The most common organism to cause whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

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33
Q

The most common organism to cause bronchitis

A

Parainfluenza virus

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34
Q

The most common organism to cause bronchiolitis

A

RSV

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35
Q

The most common organism to cause Pharyngitis

A

Adenovirus

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36
Q

______ include apnea, color change, decreased muscle tone, emesis, choking, and gagging

A

ALTE (Apparent life threatening Events in Infancy)

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37
Q

The _____ sign on x-ray is characteristic of croup

A

Steeple sign

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38
Q

____ is the most common cause of bacterial tracheitis (croup)

A

Staph aureus

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39
Q

This respiratory condition is considered an emergency d/t sudden onset of inspiratory stridor. Lateral neck x-rays show a “thumb sign”

A

Epiglottitis

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40
Q

H influenza type B is the most common bacterial cause of

A

Epiglottitis

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41
Q

___ is the leading cause of hospitalization in infants

A

Bronchiolitis

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42
Q

Bronchiolitis is characterized by cough, coryza, rhinorrhea. And is caused by ____

A

RSV

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43
Q

Bronchiolitis is diagnosed via

A

Viral swab

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44
Q

___ is the most common type of pneumonia in children

A

Viral

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45
Q

In bacterial pneumonia, ____ is the most common organism

A

Strep pneumoniae

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46
Q

___ is the drug of choice for treating bacterial pneumonia

A

Amox

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47
Q

Drug of choice for pertussis:

A

Erythromycin

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48
Q

____ is the term for elevation of part or all of the diaphragm and can be either congenital or acquired

A

Eventration

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49
Q

Horner syndrome is associated with this pupil characteristic

A

Anisocoria

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50
Q

____ is inflammation of the lid margins associated with conjunctivitis

A

Blepharitis

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51
Q

Treatment for blepharitis includes__ and ___ which are applied____

A

Local steroid & abx ointment

Applied at night

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52
Q

What organism is typically responsible for Hordeolum or chalazion?

A

Staph aureus

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53
Q

Adenovirus is the most common cause of viral ________

A

Conjunctivitis

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54
Q

A tender pre-auricular lymph node can be a sign of _____

A

Viral conjunctivitis

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55
Q

This ophthalmic condition could lead to permanent eye damage unless treated immediately with erythromycin

A

Ophthalmia Neonatorum

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56
Q

____ is inflammation of the cornea, and can be caused by HSV

A

Keratitis

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57
Q

____ is characterized by cobblestone papillae on tarsal conjunctiva

A

Allergic conjunctivitis

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58
Q

____ is a decrease in the child’s vision that can happen even when there is no problem with the structure of the eye

A

Amblyopia

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59
Q

Strabismus may be associated with cranial nerve # ____ involvement

A

CN 3 palsy

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60
Q

Patients with ____ will have pain upon traction of the pinna or tragus

A

Otitis Externa

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61
Q

____ is the most common organism causing swimmer’s ear

A

Pseudomonas

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62
Q

Topical _____ is used to treat otitis externa

A

Cipro HC

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63
Q

Your 14 mo old pt presents with a beefy red bulging TM. You suspect

A

Acute Otitis Media (AOM)

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64
Q

The most common cause of conductive hearing loss in children

A

Otitis media

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65
Q

Most common pathogen in AOM

A

Strep pneumoniae

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66
Q

____ is considered 1st line therapy for AOM

A

Amoxicillin

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67
Q

____ is a complication of AOM that causes white plaques on TM

A

Tympanosclerosis

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68
Q

Mastoiditis is a rare complication of ____

A

AOM

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69
Q

___ is the most common cause of viral rhinitis

A

Rhinovirus

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70
Q

Viral rhinitis may progress to ___ after 10-14 days

A

Sinusitis

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71
Q

Sinusitis in peds is usually bacterial, and is usually caused by

A

Strep pneumoniae

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72
Q

_____ is the most common complication of sinusitis

A

Orbital Cellulitis

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73
Q

The 2 bacterial pathogens that play the largest role in acute otitis media are:

A

H. influenza

Strep pneumoniae

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74
Q

Pt presents with mouth ulcers, fever, and cervical adenopathy. You suspect:

A

HSV

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75
Q

Treatment for thrush includes

A

Nystatin Oral

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76
Q

Up to 70% of pharyngitis cases are (viral/bacterial/fungal)

A

Viral

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77
Q

You are treating your patient with pharyngitis with Penicillin + Amoxicillin and they develop a rash. You order a CBC to see what’s going on. You get the labs back on your patient and it shows an increase of atypical lymphocytosis. What do you suspect?

A

Mono

Epstein Barr Virus

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78
Q

Herpangina, which is caused by ____, presents with ulcers w/ halo on anterior pillars, soft palate, and uvula.

A

Coxsackie virus

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79
Q

Your patient presents with an acute onset of beefy red throat, tonsillar exudates, and tender cervical lymph nodes. You suspect

A

Bacterial pharyngitis

Strep throat

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80
Q

____ presents with a sandpaper rash over the groin and torso

A

Scarlet fever

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81
Q

____ is the gold standard for diagnosing bacterial pharyngitis

A

Throat culture

Or rapid antigen test

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82
Q

Peritonsillar abscesses are also known as

A

Quinsy

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83
Q

_____ is considered a surgical emergency. Hospitalization with IV PCN or clindamycin is indicated in these patients who present with dysphoria, drooling, dyspnea, and neck hyperextension.

A

Retropharyngeal abscess

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84
Q

____ occurs in preschool children, is caused by beta-hemolytic strep, and presents with red, tender swollen lymph nodes and a high fever

A

Acute Cervical Adenitis

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85
Q

___ and ___ are severe complications of strep and staph infections

A

Rheumatic Fever

Acute Glomerulonephritis

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86
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis presents with ____ colored urine d/t gross hematuria

A

Tea or cola colored

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87
Q

What is the key to diagnosis for endocarditis?

A

Blood cultures

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88
Q

You must have 2 major and 1 minor of the ____ criteria to diagnose Endocarditis

A

Duke

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89
Q

The most commonly identified bacterial infection in kids under 3 is:

A

UTI

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90
Q

___ is a fever lasting > 14 days without an identified etiology

A

FUO (Fever of unknown origin)

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91
Q

Your 2 ½ mo old patient presents with a fever, but otherwise looks generally well. How do you manage this patient’s treatment?

A

Outpatient

only admit if looks ill

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92
Q

The maculopapular rash that accompanies Rubella is (confluent/non-conlfuent)

A

NOT confluent

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93
Q

A child with roseola infantum needs to be monitored for ________

A

Febrile seizures (30%)

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94
Q

Koplicks Spots are found in this childhood illness

A

Measles

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95
Q

Erythema Infectiosum, caused by the Parvo B19 virus, begins with this derm finding:

A

Red “slapped” cheeks

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96
Q

5th disease can cause ___ in pregnant women

A

Hydrops fetalis

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97
Q

_____ is the most common cause of diarrhea in the winter months

A

Rotavirus

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98
Q

Your patient presents with diarrhea along with systemic symptoms. You suspect: _____ and treat with:_____

A

Bacteremia

Abx + rehydration

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99
Q

Your patient experiences focal pain, warmth, and swelling of their femur. This condition, called ______, is usually caused by staph a.

A

Osteomyelitis

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100
Q

Septic arthritis is most commonly caused by____

A

Staph aureus

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101
Q

The most common virus causing meningitis is ____

A

Enterovirus

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102
Q

Your 6mo old patient presents w/ a blackened dry umbilical stump. This is weird. What do you suspect?

A

Leukocyte Adhesion Defect

LAD

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103
Q

Rapid onset of bacterial meningitis is usually due to:_____

A

Strep pneumo and

N. meningitits

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104
Q

Infection with Neisseria meningitidis results in these lesions ______

A

Non-blanching Petechiae

Or purpuric rash

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105
Q

___ are the principal cause of infectious encephalitis. It can be diagnosed using ___ on the CSF.

A

Viruses (arboviruses)

PCR

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106
Q

A ____ is

A

Macule

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107
Q

A ____ is >0.5 cm and contains clear fluid

A

Bulla

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108
Q

___and ____ are >0.5 cm and palpable

A

Nodules and plaques

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109
Q

A patch is __ 0.5 cm and flat

A

> (greater than)

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110
Q

A vesicle is

A

Filled with clear fluid

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111
Q

A ____ is filled with purulent fluid and can vary in size

A

Pustule

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112
Q

A wheal is an ________ primary lesion

A

Edematous

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113
Q

____ are secondary lesions composed of compact keratin flakes

A

Scales

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114
Q

____consist of dried serum, blood, or pus

A

Crusts

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115
Q

Potassium hydroxide examination is used for _____ diagnosis

A

Fungi and dermatophytes

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116
Q

Tzanck tests are used to test for ______

A

Herpes virus/ zoster

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117
Q

Use wood light examination to test for ____

A

Tinea versicolor

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118
Q

___ is a disorder of the stratum corneum resulting in fish-like scales

A

Ichthyosis

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119
Q

A collodion baby has a severe form of this skin condition:

A

Ichthyosis

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120
Q

___presents with skin fragility, blistering, frequent skin infections, & mouth erosions.

A

Epidermolysis Bullosa

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121
Q

___ is a pruritic vesicular rash of the hands and feet that you should NOT treat with emollients.

A

Dyshidrotic eczema

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122
Q

Excessive moisture and skin maceration leads to inflammation and __

A

Intertrigo

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123
Q

Cradle cap and dandruff are both greasy yellow scales caused by

A

Seborrheic Dermatitis

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124
Q

Giant birthmarks that can have hairs and need to be monitored for color changes. May require removal.

A

Congenital Melanocytic Nevi

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125
Q

You should worry about _____ when your patient has more than 6 café au lait spots greater than 0.5 cm.

A

Neurofibromatosis

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126
Q

Port wine stains, nevus simplex, and sturge weber syndrome are all _______ birthmarks

A

Vascular

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127
Q

_____ may be palpable with a bluish hue at the skin surface. Cherry or strawberry-like

A

Hemangioma

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128
Q

Guttate psoriasis can follow a ______ infection

A

Strep

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129
Q

This lesion follows a Christmas tree pattern

A

Pityriasis Rosea

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130
Q

____ has a “honey colored crust” with a red base

A

Impetigo

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131
Q

Bullous impetigo is treated with _______

A

Systemic ABX

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132
Q

Penicillin G is used to treat _____, which is a rapidly spreading warm macular erythema

A

Erysipelas

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133
Q

If your patient presents with streaking cellulitis, it is probably caused by ____

A

Strep

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134
Q

Erythema chronicum migrans is a lesion found in ______ disease

A

Lyme disease

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135
Q

DO NOT use –azole meds in the treatment of ______

A

Candida

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136
Q

____ present as pearly papules up to 1 cm in size

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

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137
Q

Permethrin and Lindane are used to treat this diffuse popular rash that presents with intense pruritus

A

Scabies

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138
Q

Erythema Nodosum is characterized by tender nodules over_____

A

Shins & legs

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139
Q

HSV is the most common cause of this rash in peds

A

Erythema multiforme

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140
Q

Erythema multiforme covers ______ % of the body

A
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141
Q

SJS rash covers _____ % of the body

A

10-30%

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142
Q

___ covers >30% of the body and is more often caused by a drug rxn

A

TEN (toxic epidermal necrolysis)

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143
Q

(EM/ SJS/ TEN) usually does not involve mouth ulcerations

A

EM

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144
Q

How do you differentiate TEN from staph scalded skin?

A

Skin biopsy

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145
Q

Term for head lice

A

Pediculosis capitis

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146
Q

____ are painless, raised lesions which may have unknown duration

A

Warts

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147
Q

Tinea pedis is very uncommon in children. You should probably suspect ___ instead.

A

eczema

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148
Q

Griseofulvin is used to treat this fungal infection

A

Tinea capitis

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149
Q

Ichthyosis and epidermolysis bullosa are _____ disorders

A

Inherited

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150
Q

Acne is a ____ disorder

A

Sebum

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151
Q

Skin scrapings help test for ___

A

Scabies

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152
Q

Culture from an NP swab is essential for the diagnosis of this chronic cough

A

Pertussis

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153
Q

Septic arthritis is treated using____

A

Arthrocentesis

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154
Q

Treatment of status asthmaticus includes

A

Humidified O2 and a B2 ag.

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155
Q

Mono is diagnosed using this lab test

A

CBC

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156
Q

Viral encephalopathy is diagnosed using:

A

PCR on CSF

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157
Q

The most essential lab value for evaluating status asthmaticus is____

A

ABGs

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158
Q

Dacrocystitis, sinusitis, and AOM are all treated using

A

Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg

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159
Q

Strep throat is treated with

A

Pen G

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160
Q

Keratits and erythema multiforme are both caused by:

A

HSV

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161
Q

Your pt is a 4yo presenting with fever, lethargy, won’t eat, barely drinking for the past 2 days. No cough. Negative PMH. What do you suspect and how do you work it up?

A

Secondary Immune issue
CBC w/ differential
CMP (electrolytes)

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162
Q

Primary immunodeficiencies can be characterized by their defect:
(4 types)

A

Cellular immunity (T-cells)
Humoral immunity (B cells)
Phagocytes
Complement

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163
Q

Many primary immunodeficiencies are inherited these 2 ways

A

X linked

Autosomal recessive

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164
Q

Consider Primary immunodeficiency in children with SPUR:

A

Severe, Prolonged, Unusual, Recurrent infections

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165
Q

SCID and Wiskott-Aldrich and DiGeorge are all caused by___ defects

A

T-cell

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166
Q

_____ is characterized by eczema and thrombocytopenia

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

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167
Q

_____ defects usually aren’t seen until after 6 mo due to remaining maternal immunoglobulins.

A

B-cell

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168
Q

Aggamaglobulinemia, CVID, Hyper IgM syndrome are all caused by:

A

B cell deficiency

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169
Q

T/F: immunizations are essential for kids with B cell deficiencies

A

False. Can’t make memory cells anyways

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170
Q

Most common cause of stridor in infants

A

Laryngomalacia

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171
Q

Most common cause of drug-induced cutaneous reactions (as in SJS or TEN)

A

Amoxicillin, Ampicillin, and Bactrim

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172
Q

____ is when neutrophils fail to adhere to vascular endothelium

A

Leukocyte adhesion defect

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173
Q

____ is when there is a defect in intracellular killing. Lack of superoxidase after phagocytosis.

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

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174
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease is inherited this way

A

x-linked recessive

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175
Q

How do you test the complement pathway function?

A

CH50

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176
Q

What type of immune mediated pathway is involved in hemolytic anemia

A

Type II

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177
Q

Serum sickness, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, and post-strep. Glomerulonephritis are all cause by type ____ reactions

A

Type III

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178
Q

Infants with eczema have lesions on _______ surfaces

A

Facial

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179
Q

Older children and with eczema have lichenification on ____ surfaces

A

Flexural

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180
Q

Asthma tests include

A

Lung fxn, peak flow, CXR, ABGs, eosinophil count

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181
Q

Causes of cough in the first months of life = CRADLE

A
CF
RTI
Aspiration
Dyskinetic cilia
Lung malformation
Edema
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182
Q

In the Asthma Action Plan:
Green = ______% of the peak expiratory flow rate
Yellow = ______
Red = ____

A
Green = 80-100%
Yellow = 50-80%
Red = below 50%
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183
Q

This classification of asthma requires no daily medications

A

Mild intermittent

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184
Q

This classification of asthma has sx > 2days/week or >2 nights/mo

A

Mild persistent

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185
Q

This classification of asthma requires daily low-dose inhaled ICS and a LABA

A

Moderate persistent

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186
Q

This classification of asthma is characterized by continual daytime sx and frequent sx at night

A

Severe persistent

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187
Q

This lab is most important for determining status asthmaticus

A

ABGs (hypoxia)

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188
Q

The most common organism to cause Otits media

A

S. pneumoniae

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189
Q

The most common organism to cause Sinusitis

A

S. pneumoniae

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190
Q

The most common organism to cause Croup

A

Parainfluenza virus

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191
Q

The most common organism to cause whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

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192
Q

The most common organism to cause bronchitis

A

Parainfluenza virus

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193
Q

The most common organism to cause bronchiolitis

A

RSV

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194
Q

The most common organism to cause Pharyngitis

A

Adenovirus

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195
Q

______ include apnea, color change, decreased muscle tone, emesis, choking, and gagging

A

ALTE (Apparent life threatening Events in Infancy)

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196
Q

The _____ sign on x-ray is characteristic of croup

A

Steeple sign

197
Q

____ is the most common cause of bacterial tracheitis (croup)

A

Staph aureus

198
Q

This respiratory condition is considered an emergency d/t sudden onset of inspiratory stridor. Lateral neck x-rays show a “thumb sign”

A

Epiglottitis

199
Q

H influenza type B is the most common bacterial cause of

A

Epiglottitis

200
Q

___ is the leading cause of hospitalization in infants

A

Bronchiolitis

201
Q

Bronchiolitis is characterized by cough, coryza, rhinorrhea. And is caused by ____

A

RSV

202
Q

Bronchiolitis is diagnosed via

A

Viral swab

203
Q

___ is the most common type of pneumonia in children

A

Viral

204
Q

In bacterial pneumonia, ____ is the most common organism

A

Strep pneumoniae

205
Q

___ is the drug of choice for treating bacterial pneumonia

A

Amox

206
Q

Drug of choice for pertussis:

A

Erythromycin

207
Q

____ is the term for elevation of part or all of the diaphragm and can be either congenital or acquired

A

Eventration

208
Q

Horner syndrome is associated with this pupil characteristic

A

Anisocoria

209
Q

____ is inflammation of the lid margins associated with conjunctivitis

A

Blepharitis

210
Q

Treatment for blepharitis includes__ and ___ which are applied____

A

Local steroid & abx ointment

Applied at night

211
Q

What organism is typically responsible for Hordeolum or chalazion?

A

Staph aureus

212
Q

Adenovirus is the most common cause of viral ________

A

Conjunctivitis

213
Q

A tender pre-auricular lymph node can be a sign of _____

A

Viral conjunctivitis

214
Q

This ophthalmic condition could lead to permanent eye damage unless treated immediately with erythromycin

A

Ophthalmia Neonatorum

215
Q

____ is inflammation of the cornea, and can be caused by HSV

A

Keratitis

216
Q

____ is characterized by cobblestone papillae on tarsal conjunctiva

A

Allergic conjunctivitis

217
Q

____ is a decrease in the child’s vision that can happen even when there is no problem with the structure of the eye

A

Amblyopia

218
Q

Strabismus may be associated with cranial nerve # ____ involvement

A

CN 3 palsy

219
Q

Patients with ____ will have pain upon traction of the pinna or tragus

A

Otitis Externa

220
Q

____ is the most common organism causing swimmer’s ear

A

Pseudomonas

221
Q

Topical _____ is used to treat otitis externa

A

Cipro HC

222
Q

Your 14 mo old pt presents with a beefy red bulging TM. You suspect

A

Acute Otitis Media (AOM)

223
Q

HBIG provides _____ immunity

A

Passive

224
Q

The ABR (or BAER) test screens for ______ problems

A

Hearing

225
Q

____ reduces the negative impact of an already established disease

A

Tertiary prevention

226
Q

____focuses on early detection and screening

A

Secondary prevention

227
Q

_____ avoids the development of disease

A

Primary prevention

228
Q

Asthma, otitis media w/effusion, & allergies are common ____ diseases

A

Chronic

229
Q

What measurements are low in a Type II growth deficiency?

A

Height and weight

230
Q

What are the characteristics of a Type I growth deficiency?

A

FOC & ht OK, wt low

231
Q

Development occurs in a ____-_____ direction physically

A

Cephalo-caudal

232
Q

The most common nutritional deficiency in kiddos:

A

Iron

233
Q

____ vaccines include flu, cholera, plague, polio, Hep A

A

Killed

234
Q

____ vaccines include yellow fever, measles, rubella, mumps

A

Attenuated

235
Q

____ vaccines include tetanus and diphtheria

A

Toxoid

236
Q

____ vaccines include Hep B, HPV

A

Protein-Subunit

237
Q

____ vaccines include H. influenza

A

Conjugate

238
Q

Contraindications to Immz?

A

Immunodeficiency
Allergy
Hypersensitivity

239
Q

Leading cause of injury related deaths in the home:

A

Burns

240
Q

2nd leading cause of injury related deaths in children:

A

Drowning

241
Q

What is the rule of 3’s?

A

3hrs/3days/3weeks

242
Q

This sleeping problem happens during non-REM sleep

A

Night terrors

243
Q

This sleep problem occurs during REM sleep

A

Nightmares

244
Q

____ is characterized by “incontinence beyond maturity”

A

Enuresis

245
Q

This is the most common urologic disorder in pediatrics

A

Enuresis

246
Q

____ is the regular voluntary passage of feces other than in the toilet after 4 years of age.

A

Encoperesis

247
Q

It could take 6-24 months of behavioral therapy and laxative use to control _____

A

Constipation in kids

248
Q

A child with Henoch-Schonlein Purpura makes antibodies against:

A

Blood vessels

249
Q

Abusive head trauma is often correlated to this finding:

A

Subdural Hemorrhage

250
Q

High velocity head injuries often result in:

A

Retinal hemorrhages

251
Q

The most common feature of emotional neglect is

A

Absent normal parent-child attachment

252
Q

_____ is the leading cause of mortality and morbidity from physical abuse

A

Abusive head trauma

253
Q

Corner or bucket handle fractures are across the ______

A

Metaphysis

254
Q

This many fractures ____ in an infant suggests abuse.

A

ANY fracture!!!

255
Q

Birth trauma, prematurity, NM disease, OI and congenital osteomyelitis are all ________ causes of fractures

A

Non-abusive

256
Q

Rape is typically: violent/nonviolent

A

Non-violent

257
Q

Baby has a vertex delivery with dystocia. What should we be looking for on physical exam?

A

Broken clavicle

258
Q

What test is used to evaluate/estimate gestational age

A

Ballard Test

259
Q

Graves disease in mom can cause what types of problems for the baby?

A

Thyroid storm

260
Q

Baby can develop 3rd degree heart block due to what maternal illnesss?

A

Lupus

261
Q

_____________ is when the placenta attaches to and becomes part of the uterus

A

Placenta accreta

262
Q

_____ may cause problems with the lungs and kidneys the baby doesn’t make much urine and doesn’t have enough fluid to practice breathing

A

Oligohydramnios

263
Q

_____ can cause esophageal atresia and neurologic problems in baby

A

Polyhydramnios

264
Q

What does PROM stand for?

A

Premature rupture of membranes

265
Q

What is the use of the APGAR score?

A

Evaluates baby’s need for resuscitation

266
Q

The _____ exam looks at neuromuscular and physical maturity to verify or estimate gestational age

A

Ballard Exam

267
Q

____ infants are at higher risk for meconium aspiration

A

Post-term

268
Q

____infants are at higher risk for necrotizing enterocolitis

A

Pre-term

269
Q

A _____ deficiency puts pre-term infants at high risk for respiratory distress syndrome.

A

Surfactant

270
Q

True/False: early ultrasound is more accurate than ballard scores

A

TRUE

271
Q

When SGA = FOC, it is called _______. When SGA = FOC >10% it is called _____.

A

Symmetric

Asymmetric

272
Q

Is “brain-sparing SGA” symmetric or asymmetric?

A

Asymmetric

273
Q

Birth trauma, jaundice, and hypoglycemia are common problems for ______ newborns

A

Term

274
Q

______ occurs in bili encephalopathy, where irreversible damage to the basal ganglia occurs

A

Kernicteris

275
Q

A PDA can lead to _________ due to a right-to-left shung

A

Pulmonary HTN

276
Q

______ infants commonly have trouble thermoregulating and may have Respiratory Distress Syndrome

A

Premature

277
Q

“ground glass” and air bronchograms are signs of ______

A

RDS (resp. distress. Syn)

278
Q

______is common in premies d/t immaturity of the gut.

A

Necrotizing Enterocolitis

279
Q

The most common congenital infection is

A

CMV

280
Q

Thrombocytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly, IUGR, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, and MR are all findings of ______ infections

A

TORCH

281
Q

Aplastic anemia may be a result of _____ infection

A

Parvo (human parvovirus B19)

282
Q

_____ appear just after birth and can be mistaken for bruises

A

Mongolian spots

283
Q

The ____ reflex is when you stroke a fingernail along the baby’s spine and they curve laterally to that side

A

Gallant

284
Q

Genetic disorder found almost exclusively in NM/Spain

A

Recombinant 8

285
Q

HBIG provides _____ immunity

A

Passive

286
Q

The ABR (or BAER) test screens for ______ problems

A

Hearing

287
Q

____ reduces the negative impact of an already established disease

A

Tertiary prevention

288
Q

____focuses on early detection and screening

A

Secondary prevention

289
Q

_____ avoids the development of disease

A

Primary prevention

290
Q

Asthma, otitis media w/effusion, & allergies are common ____ diseases

A

Chronic

291
Q

What measurements are low in a Type II growth deficiency?

A

Height and weight

292
Q

What are the characteristics of a Type I growth deficiency?

A

FOC & ht OK, wt low

293
Q

Development occurs in a ____-_____ direction physically

A

Cephalo-caudal

294
Q

The most common nutritional deficiency in kiddos:

A

Iron

295
Q

____ vaccines include flu, cholera, plague, polio, Hep A

A

Killed

296
Q

____ vaccines include yellow fever, measles, rubella, mumps

A

Attenuated

297
Q

____ vaccines include tetanus and diphtheria

A

Toxoid

298
Q

____ vaccines include Hep B, HPV

A

Protein-Subunit

299
Q

____ vaccines include H. influenza

A

Conjugate

300
Q

Contraindications to Immz?

A

Immunodeficiency
Allergy
Hypersensitivity

301
Q

Leading cause of injury related deaths in the home:

A

Burns

302
Q

2nd leading cause of injury related deaths in children:

A

Drowning

303
Q

What is the rule of 3’s?

A

3hrs/3days/3weeks

304
Q

This sleeping problem happens during non-REM sleep

A

Night terrors

305
Q

This sleep problem occurs during REM sleep

A

Nightmares

306
Q

____ is characterized by “incontinence beyond maturity”

A

Enuresis

307
Q

This is the most common urologic disorder in pediatrics

A

Enuresis

308
Q

____ is the regular voluntary passage of feces other than in the toilet after 4 years of age.

A

Encoperesis

309
Q

It could take 6-24 months of behavioral therapy and laxative use to control _____

A

Constipation in kids

310
Q

A child with Henoch-Schonlein Purpura makes antibodies against:

A

Blood vessels

311
Q

Abusive head trauma is often correlated to this finding:

A

Subdural Hemorrhage

312
Q

High velocity head injuries often result in:

A

Retinal hemorrhages

313
Q

The most common feature of emotional neglect is

A

Absent normal parent-child attachment

314
Q

_____ is the leading cause of mortality and morbidity from physical abuse

A

Abusive head trauma

315
Q

Corner or bucket handle fractures are across the ______

A

Metaphysis

316
Q

This many fractures ____ in an infant suggests abuse.

A

ANY fracture!!!

317
Q

Birth trauma, prematurity, NM disease, OI and congenital osteomyelitis are all ________ causes of fractures

A

Non-abusive

318
Q

Rape is typically: violent/nonviolent

A

Non-violent

319
Q

Baby has a vertex delivery with dystocia. What should we be looking for on physical exam?

A

Broken clavicle

320
Q

What test is used to evaluate/estimate gestational age

A

Ballard Test

321
Q

Graves disease in mom can cause what types of problems for the baby?

A

Thyroid storm

322
Q

Baby can develop 3rd degree heart block due to what maternal illnesss?

A

Lupus

323
Q

_____________ is when the placenta attaches to and becomes part of the uterus

A

Placenta accreta

324
Q

_____ may cause problems with the lungs and kidneys the baby doesn’t make much urine and doesn’t have enough fluid to practice breathing

A

Oligohydramnios

325
Q

_____ can cause esophageal atresia and neurologic problems in baby

A

Polyhydramnios

326
Q

What does PROM stand for?

A

Premature rupture of membranes

327
Q

What is the use of the APGAR score?

A

Evaluates baby’s need for resuscitation

328
Q

The _____ exam looks at neuromuscular and physical maturity to verify or estimate gestational age

A

Ballard Exam

329
Q

____ infants are at higher risk for meconium aspiration

A

Post-term

330
Q

____infants are at higher risk for necrotizing enterocolitis

A

Pre-term

331
Q

A _____ deficiency puts pre-term infants at high risk for respiratory distress syndrome.

A

Surfactant

332
Q

True/False: early ultrasound is more accurate than ballard scores

A

TRUE

333
Q

When SGA = FOC, it is called _______. When SGA = FOC >10% it is called _____.

A

Symmetric

Asymmetric

334
Q

Is “brain-sparing SGA” symmetric or asymmetric?

A

Asymmetric

335
Q

Birth trauma, jaundice, and hypoglycemia are common problems for ______ newborns

A

Term

336
Q

______ occurs in bili encephalopathy, where irreversible damage to the basal ganglia occurs

A

Kernicteris

337
Q

A PDA can lead to _________ due to a right-to-left shung

A

Pulmonary HTN

338
Q

______ infants commonly have trouble thermoregulating and may have Respiratory Distress Syndrome

A

Premature

339
Q

“ground glass” and air bronchograms are signs of ______

A

RDS (resp. distress. Syn)

340
Q

______is common in premies d/t immaturity of the gut.

A

Necrotizing Enterocolitis

341
Q

The most common congenital infection is

A

CMV

342
Q

Thrombocytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly, IUGR, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, and MR are all findings of ______ infections

A

TORCH

343
Q

Aplastic anemia may be a result of _____ infection

A

Parvo (human parvovirus B19)

344
Q

_____ appear just after birth and can be mistaken for bruises

A

Mongolian spots

345
Q

The ____ reflex is when you stroke a fingernail along the baby’s spine and they curve laterally to that side

A

Gallant

346
Q

Genetic disorder found almost exclusively in NM/Spain

A

Recombinant 8

347
Q

Disorder associated with hypogonadism and gynecomastia

A

Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)

348
Q

Disorder associated with hypergonadism, poor social skills

A

Fragile X Syndrome

349
Q

Inborn Errors of Metabolism are inherited through this mode of inheritance

A

Recessive

350
Q

What kind of disorder would lead to low-ketone low-blood-sugar?

A

Fatty Acid Oxidation Disorders

351
Q

Kid shows up in ER looking septic or shock-ish. What do you suspect?

A

Sepsis Heart disease

Inborn error of metabolism

352
Q

What condition might masquerade like an IEM?

specifically, vomiting

A

Pyloric stenosis

353
Q

Acidosis is characterized by _________ respirations

A

Kussmaul’s

354
Q

Blood tests for IEM work up

A

ABGs, Electrolytes, Glucose, Ammonia, LFT, CBC/diff

355
Q

Urine tests for IEM work up

A

Glucose, Ketones

356
Q

A single malformation leads to other structural changes. Found in otherwise normal child. Not a genetic factor.

A

Sequence

357
Q

Recognizable pattern of abnormalities that result from a single identifiable cause. Includes malformations and deformations.

A

Syndrome

358
Q

Recognizable pattern of malformations with no common unifying cause

A

Association

359
Q

The mnemonic “VACTERL” is useful in identifying

A

Associations

360
Q

Chemical, physical, biologic, drug, or disease finding that disrupts fetal development is a/an ____

A

Teratogen

361
Q

A 12 hr old infant for a “large abdomen and spots”.
Baby was IUGR, but the delivery was uncomplicated. Mom’s health otherwise normal. On exam you note an SGA infant with a palpably large liver, microcephaly, and petechiae over trunk and extremities
Based on these findings you suspect:

A

Congenital TORCH infection

362
Q

What is the most common congenital infection?

A

CMV

363
Q

What TORCH disease causes brain calcifications?

A

CMV

364
Q

Aplastic anemia is characteristic of which TORCH infection?

A

Human Parvovirus

365
Q

What genetic lab work would you order if you suspected a child had Di George Syndrome?

A

FISH

366
Q

Marfan’s, Huntington’s, Achondroplasia, and Neurofibromatosis are all ________ disorders

A

Autosomal Dominant

367
Q

Inborn errors of metabolism are usually due to ______ disorders

A

Autosomal Recessive

368
Q

Sickle cell anemia, CF, and PKU are all _______ disorders

A

Autosomal Recessive

369
Q

This syndrome is X-linked and affects mostly girls, causing MR.

A

Rett Syndrome

370
Q

_____ refers to a combination of chromosomes that deviates from multiples of haploid.

A

Aneuploidy

371
Q

This type of chromosomal anomaly is characterized by a normal karyotype, but with 2 copies of 1 chromosome from only 1 parent

A

Uniparental Disomy

372
Q

_____ and _____ are examples of Uniparental Disomy

A

Angelmann & Prader Willi

373
Q

____ is also known as “Happy Puppet”

A

Angelmann

374
Q

This chromosomal disorder is characterized by an insatiable appetite:

A

Prader Willi

375
Q

XXY is known as:

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

376
Q

XO is known as:

A

Turner Syndrome

377
Q

You may have to rule out this chromosomal disorder and metabolic disorders when evaluating for Autistic Disorder

A

Fragile X

378
Q

The “mongoloid slant” is characteristic of which chromosomal abnormality?

A

Down Syndrome

379
Q

Atrio-ventricular Canal, Duodenal Atresia, Hypothyroidism, Leukemia, and developmental delay/MR are common in _____

A

Down Syndrome

380
Q

True/False: Most trisomy disorders are compatible with life.

A

False. 13/18 most die in utero

381
Q

This syndrome is characterized by rocker-bottom feet

A

Patau Syndrome (tri 13)

382
Q

A cleft palate may inhibit the growth of this important gland

A

Pituitary

383
Q

This critical period defect results from the failure of the brain to grow beyond the rhombencephalon.

A

Anencephaly

384
Q

Defects like NTDs, Cleft lip, pyloric stenosis, and obstructive uropathies are usually due to a ______ deficiency

A

Folic acid

385
Q

This congenital syndrome includes a “blueberry muffin” rash

A

Congenital Rubella Syndrome

386
Q

What immunologic lab would you order for Rubella?

A

IgM

387
Q

This virus can cause aplastic anemia in children

A

Human Parvovirus (Parvo)

388
Q

Thelarchy occurs approximately ____ years before menarche

A

2

389
Q

What is the HEADDS acronym all about?

A
Home
Education
Alcohol
Drugs
Diet
Sex
Suicide/Depression
390
Q

Acidosis is characterized by _________ respirations

A

Kussmaul’s

391
Q

Blood tests for IEM work up

A

ABGs, Electrolytes, Glucose, Ammonia, LFT, CBC/diff

392
Q

Urine tests for IEM work up

A

Glucose, Ketones

393
Q

A single malformation leads to other structural changes. Found in otherwise normal child. Not a genetic factor.

A

Sequence

394
Q

Recognizable pattern of abnormalities that result from a single identifiable cause. Includes malformations and deformations.

A

Syndrome

395
Q

Recognizable pattern of malformations with no common unifying cause

A

Association

396
Q

The mnemonic “VACTERL” is useful in identifying

A

Associations

397
Q

Chemical, physical, biologic, drug, or disease finding that disrupts fetal development is a/an ____

A

Teratogen

398
Q

A 12 hr old infant for a “large abdomen and spots”.
Baby was IUGR, but the delivery was uncomplicated. Mom’s health otherwise normal. On exam you note an SGA infant with a palpably large liver, microcephaly, and petechiae over trunk and extremities
Based on these findings you suspect:

A

Congenital TORCH infection

399
Q

What is the most common congenital infection?

A

CMV

400
Q

What TORCH disease causes brain calcifications?

A

CMV

401
Q

Aplastic anemia is characteristic of which TORCH infection?

A

Human Parvovirus

402
Q

What genetic lab work would you order if you suspected a child had Di George Syndrome?

A

FISH

403
Q

Marfan’s, Huntington’s, Achondroplasia, and Neurofibromatosis are all ________ disorders

A

Autosomal Dominant

404
Q

Inborn errors of metabolism are usually due to ______ disorders

A

Autosomal Recessive

405
Q

Sickle cell anemia, CF, and PKU are all _______ disorders

A

Autosomal Recessive

406
Q

This syndrome is X-linked and affects mostly girls, causing MR.

A

Rett Syndrome

407
Q

_____ refers to a combination of chromosomes that deviates from multiples of haploid.

A

Aneuploidy

408
Q

This type of chromosomal anomaly is characterized by a normal karyotype, but with 2 copies of 1 chromosome from only 1 parent

A

Uniparental Disomy

409
Q

_____ and _____ are examples of Uniparental Disomy

A

Angelmann & Prader Willi

410
Q

____ is also known as “Happy Puppet”

A

Angelmann

411
Q

This chromosomal disorder is characterized by an insatiable appetite:

A

Prader Willi

412
Q

XXY is known as:

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

413
Q

XO is known as:

A

Turner Syndrome

414
Q

You may have to rule out this chromosomal disorder and metabolic disorders when evaluating for Autistic Disorder

A

Fragile X

415
Q

The “mongoloid slant” is characteristic of which chromosomal abnormality?

A

Down Syndrome

416
Q

Atrio-ventricular Canal, Duodenal Atresia, Hypothyroidism, Leukemia, and developmental delay/MR are common in _____

A

Down Syndrome

417
Q

True/False: Most trisomy disorders are compatible with life.

A

False. 13/18 most die in utero

418
Q

This syndrome is characterized by rocker-bottom feet

A

Patau Syndrome (tri 13)

419
Q

A cleft palate may inhibit the growth of this important gland

A

Pituitary

420
Q

This critical period defect results from the failure of the brain to grow beyond the rhombencephalon.

A

Anencephaly

421
Q

Defects like NTDs, Cleft lip, pyloric stenosis, and obstructive uropathies are usually due to a ______ deficiency

A

Folic acid

422
Q

This congenital syndrome includes a “blueberry muffin” rash

A

Congenital Rubella Syndrome

423
Q

What immunologic lab would you order for Rubella?

A

IgM

424
Q

This virus can cause aplastic anemia in children

A

Human Parvovirus (Parvo)

425
Q

Thelarchy occurs approximately ____ years before menarche

A

2

426
Q

What is the HEADDS acronym all about?

A
Home
Education
Alcohol
Drugs
Diet
Sex
Suicide/Depression
427
Q

Acidosis is characterized by _________ respirations

A

Kussmaul’s

428
Q

First sign of puberty in girls

A

Height spurt

429
Q

First sign of puberty in boys

A

Scrotal and testicular growth

430
Q

_____ are the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhea in both girls and boys

A

Prolactinoma

431
Q

What is the #1 cause of secondary amenorrhea?

A

Pregnancy

432
Q

This symptom is the hallmark of Anorexia

A

Amenorrhea

433
Q

______ may be used to prevent relapse in adolescents with eating disorders

A

SSRIs

434
Q

Initiation continuation Maintenance Progression

These describe the 4 stages of _____

A

Substance abuse

435
Q

Is a 11 y/o female with a tanner stage of 2 normal or abnormal?

A

Normal

436
Q

_____ is a form of treatment that focuses on examining the relationships between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.

A

CBT

437
Q

_____ is a type of somatoform disorder where the patient manifests neurologic symptoms

A

Conversion Reaction

438
Q

____is a somatoform disordere where the patient consciously or unconsciously presents with symptoms to gain reward

A

Malingering

439
Q

Treatment of Somatoform disorders includes ______ + _______

A

CBC + SSRI

440
Q

This medication is the only SSRI approved by the FDA for use in children for treatment of anxiety

A

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

441
Q

_____ is a form of treatment that focuses on examining the relationships between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.

A

CBT

442
Q

True/False: Anxiety is characterized as a mood disorder

A

FALSE. Anxiety disorder

443
Q

__________ is a diagnosis that requires a minimum of 2 weeks of symptoms, including depressed mood and loss of interest or pleasure in nearly all activities.

A

Major Depression

444
Q

The Beck Inventory screens for ______

A

Depression

445
Q

______ is a chronic, milder form of depression where symptoms present for at least 1 year. Is usually liked to an event.

A

Dysthymic Disorder

446
Q

This is the most common depressive mood disorder in children and adolescents

A

Adjustment Disorder with Depressed Mood

447
Q

Treatment for bipolar disease includes

A

Mood stabilizers (Lithium)

448
Q

Are boys or girls more likely to be successful in attempting suicide?

A

Boys

449
Q

Ideas are the subject of ______________, while _________ are manifested in behaviors.

A

Obsessions

Compulsions

450
Q

Are children more likely to engage in obsessions or compulsions?

A

Compulsions

451
Q

This term is used to describe a subset of children who have OCD and/or tic disorders and in whom symptoms worsen following strep infection.

A

PANDAS

pediatric autoimmune neuro-psychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections

452
Q

If a child has impaired communication AND impaired social interactions AND impaired behavior, they may have ______

A

Autism

453
Q

If a child has impaired behavior and social skills, they may have _______

A

Asperger Syndrome

454
Q

A child with ________ may present with Echolalia and nonsensical speech

A

Autistic Disorder

455
Q

____ is characterized by typical development followed by regression

A

Childhood Disintegrative Disorder

456
Q

_____ is a genetic disease due to a mutation on the X chromosome, where the child has regression of skills in the 1st year of life w/ characteristic hand-wringing

A

Rett Syndrome

457
Q

_____ is defined by an IQ score

A

Mental Retardation

458
Q

If a child has structural and myelination abnormalities, what type of imaging is best for visualization?

A

MRI

459
Q

Why is it important to diagnose children with developmental disabilities before the age of 3?

A

Qualify for at-home therapies

460
Q

True/False: psychotic symptoms are a common symptom of childhood and do not usually warrant further investigation.

A

FALSE. Not normal! Evaluate for neurologic disease, metabolic disease, wilsons disease (copper storage)

461
Q

_______ is the most common neurodevelopmental disorder in children

A

ADHD

462
Q

What are the 3 subtypes of ADHD?

A

Hyperactive Impulsive
Inattentive
Combined

463
Q

Side effects of this type of medication include wt loss and sleep disturbances

A

Stimulants

464
Q

Medications that treat ADHD act on this part of the brain:

A

Frontal lobe

465
Q

Comorbidity in ADHD increases _______ at least 5-13 fold.

A

Substance abuse

466
Q

__________ is a diagnosis that requires a minimum of 2 weeks of symptoms, including depressed mood and loss of interest or pleasure in nearly all activities.

A

Major Depression

467
Q

The Beck Inventory screens for ______

A

Depression

468
Q

______ is a chronic, milder form of depression where symptoms present for at least 1 year. Is usually liked to an event.

A

Dysthymic Disorder

469
Q

This is the most common depressive mood disorder in children and adolescents

A

Adjustment Disorder with Depressed Mood

470
Q

Treatment for bipolar disease includes

A

Mood stabilizers (Lithium)

471
Q

Are boys or girls more likely to be successful in attempting suicide?

A

Boys

472
Q

Ideas are the subject of ______________, while _________ are manifested in behaviors.

A

Obsessions

Compulsions

473
Q

Are children more likely to engage in obsessions or compulsions?

A

Compulsions

474
Q

This term is used to describe a subset of children who have OCD and/or tic disorders and in whom symptoms worsen following strep infection.

A

PANDAS

pediatric autoimmune neuro-psychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections

475
Q

If a child has impaired communication AND impaired social interactions AND impaired behavior, they may have ______

A

Autism

476
Q

If a child has impaired behavior and social skills, they may have _______

A

Asperger Syndrome

477
Q

A child with ________ may present with Echolalia and nonsensical speech

A

Autistic Disorder

478
Q

____ is characterized by typical development followed by regression

A

Childhood Disintegrative Disorder

479
Q

_____ is a genetic disease due to a mutation on the X chromosome, where the child has regression of skills in the 1st year of life w/ characteristic hand-wringing

A

Rett Syndrome

480
Q

_____ is defined by an IQ score

A

Mental Retardation

481
Q

If a child has structural and myelination abnormalities, what type of imaging is best for visualization?

A

MRI

482
Q

Why is it important to diagnose children with developmental disabilities before the age of 3?

A

Qualify for at-home therapies

483
Q

True/False: psychotic symptoms are a common symptom of childhood and do not usually warrant further investigation.

A

FALSE. Not normal! Evaluate for neurologic disease, metabolic disease, wilsons disease (copper storage)

484
Q

_______ is the most common neurodevelopmental disorder in children

A

ADHD

485
Q

What are the 3 subtypes of ADHD?

A

Hyperactive Impulsive
Inattentive
Combined

486
Q

Side effects of this type of medication include wt loss and sleep disturbances

A

Stimulants

487
Q

Medications that treat ADHD act on this part of the brain:

A

Frontal lobe

488
Q

Comorbidity in ADHD increases _______ at least 5-13 fold.

A

Substance abuse