Cardiology-Table 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Most common endocrine/metabolic disorder of childhood

A

Type 1 DM

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2
Q

(adenoma/destructive lesions) are the more common cause of hypopituitarism

A

Destructive Lesions of the hypothalamus

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3
Q

Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are common S&S of

A

Type 1 DM

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4
Q

Acanthosis Nigricans is a S&S of

A

Type 2 DM

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5
Q

____have been shown to reverse/delay kidney damage when detected early

A

ACE inhibitors

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6
Q

___ is a complication of DKA that results from an osmolar shift of fluid into cells

A

Cerebral edema

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7
Q

Diagnostic tests for DKA

A

Blood gasses, CBC, BMP, A1C, UA, Ucx

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8
Q

DKA treatments include:

A

Restore fluid volume
Insulin
Replace body salts
Correction of acidosis

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9
Q

Emergency management of hypoglycemia includes

A

IV glucose
Bolus D10W
Then Constant Infusion

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10
Q

The most common presenting complaint in pediatric endocrinologist

A
Growth disturbances
(GH deficiency)
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11
Q

Workup for a GH deficiency includes:

A

X ray electrolytes
CBC karyotype
ESR thyroid fxn
Urinalysis, BUN/Cr

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12
Q

____ is the most common neonatal metabolic disorder

A

Congenital hypothyroidism

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13
Q

____ is the most common cause of goiter and thyroiditis in childhood

A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

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14
Q

Hypothyroidism has increased incidence in these 2 chromosomal disorders

A

Trisomy 21

Turner’s syndrome

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15
Q

Your patient presents with mental sluggishness, pale skin, non-pitting edema, hoarse voice, and dry skin. You suspect:

A

Hypothyroidism

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16
Q

The most common cause of excess thyroid hormone

A

Graves disease

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17
Q

Treatment for hyperthyroidism includes

A

B blockers

PTU, methimazole

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18
Q

CNS tumors and familial factors are causes of ____ precocious puberty.

A

Central

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19
Q

Treatment of central precocious puberty includes

A

Leuprolide (GnRH analog)

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20
Q

Most common cause of delayed puberty in boys

A

Kleinfelter syndrome

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21
Q

What is the most common cause of female pseudohermaphrodite

A

CAH (Congenital adrenal hyperplasia)

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22
Q

___ is the most frequent cause of ambiguous genitalia in the newborn

A

CAH

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23
Q

What is the most common cause of CAH?

A

Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase

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24
Q

____ help maintain BP by supporting vascular tone and promoting Na and H2O retention

A

Glucocorticoids

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25
Q

Most common cause of cushing’s in children

A

Prolonged administration of exogenous glucocorticoids

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26
Q

Poor feeding w/ lethargy in an infant could be a sign of

A

Cardiac disease or Infection

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27
Q

Chest X-rays are good for visualizing these heart characteristics:

A

Cardiomegaly
Pulmonary circulation
Heart shape

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28
Q

The size, shape, flow within, and pressures within the heart can be visualized with ____

A

ECHO

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29
Q

Later stage Heart failure can present with _____ on abdominal exam

A

Hepatomegaly

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30
Q

____ in the fingers is a response to hypoxia

A

Clubbing

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31
Q

Differential pulses could be a sign of ____

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

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32
Q

Bounding pulses could be due to L PDA shunt , or ___

A

Aortic Insufficiency

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33
Q

___ is the heart sound associated with the closing of aortic and pulmonic valves

A

S2

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34
Q

___ is the heart sound associated with closing of mitral and tricuspid valves

A

S1

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35
Q

S1 is best heard at

A

LLSB or apex

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36
Q

___ is heard in diastole & is related to rapid ventricular filling (splash)

A

S3

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37
Q

____ is never normal. Comes just before S1. Pathognomonic with heart failure and decreased ventricular compliance.

A

S4

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38
Q

Aortic or pulmonary stenosis present with this heart sound:

A

Ejection click

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39
Q

Mid-systolic clicks are usually due to

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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40
Q

Loud S2 can be due to

A

Pulmonary HTN

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41
Q

A fixed, split S2 could be due to pulmonary stenosis or ____

A

ASD

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42
Q

Truncus is associated with which heart valves?

A

Semilunar (only 1)

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43
Q

Murmurs are described based on:

A

Location/radiation
Relationship to cardiac cycle
Intensity
Quality

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44
Q

6 most common functional murmurs

A
Newborn
Peripheral pulmonary arterial stenosis (PPS)
Still murmur 
Pulmonary Ejection Murmur
Venous Hum
Innominate or carotid Bruit
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45
Q

Most common murmur of early childhood

A

Still murmur

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46
Q

Most common innocent murmur in older children

A

Pulmonary ejection murmur

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47
Q

Most common CHD presenting in the first week of life

A

Transposition of Great Arteries

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48
Q

Most common CHD presenting beyond infancy

Most common cyanotic lesion in childhood

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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49
Q

How do you know if a murmur is benign?

A

If they have other sx not benign

Kid OK? benign

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50
Q

Which murmur is best heard sitting at the R infraclavicular area?

A

Venous hum

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51
Q

Most causes of syncope in kids is due to this type of cause

A

Vasovagal or

Neurocardiogenic

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52
Q

Cardiac causes of syncope in kids includes:

A

Arrhythmia or Congenital Heart Disease

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53
Q

____ are a benign rhythm disturbance where there is a compensatory pause before the next beat

A

PAC

Premature Atrial Contract.

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54
Q

PVC’s have a wide________ and NO compensatory pause

A

Wide QRS

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55
Q

3 PVCs in a row is considered ______

A

V-tach

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56
Q

Re-entrant tachycardia is characteristic of this syndrome caused by supraventricular tachycardia

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

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57
Q

Acute treatment for SVT includes IV _____

A

Adenosine

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58
Q

In babies, Ice on the face causes vagal stimulation for treatment of _______

A

SVT

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59
Q

Maternal lupus can lead to ____

A

Congenital heart block

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60
Q

Most common heart block in peds

A

3rd degree

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61
Q

Heart disease in peds is primarily due to _______ abnormalities

A

Structural

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62
Q

____ is the most common CHD presenting in the 1st week of life

A

Transposition of Great Arteries

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63
Q

3 shunts necessary for survival in baby:

A

Ductous venosus
Foramen ovale
Ductus arteriosus

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64
Q

Cyanotic shunts are ___ _____ and the blood bypasses the lungs

A

R L

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65
Q

Most common L R shunt

A

VSD

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66
Q

ASD, VSD, PDA, and blood flow obstructions all cause _____-_____ shunts

A

L R

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67
Q

ASD can cause _____heart enlargement

A

Right

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68
Q

Which heart condition is Pathognomonic with fixed split S2

A

ASD

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69
Q

Most common type of VSD

A

Peri-membranous

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70
Q

Over time, the _____ becomes enlarged in a VSD

A

Left Ventricle

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71
Q

_____ have a harsh holosystolic murmur

A

VSD

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72
Q

______ is an endocardial cushion defect

A

AVSD

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73
Q

AVSD is associated with this genetic condition

A

Trisomy 21

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74
Q

PDA murmurs are holosystolic and ________-like

A

Machine like

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75
Q

_____ is generally not progressive, and may result in decreased blood flow to the lungs depending on size

A

Pulmonary Stenosis

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76
Q

____ is an obstruction of LV output and may occur above or below the valve

A

Aortic Stenosis

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77
Q

___ is usually the first sign of aortic stenosis

A

Heart murmur

ejection click, basilar ejection murmur, precordial thrill

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78
Q

In older kids, Dizziness and fainting at a low threshold may suggest:

A

AS (aortic stenosis)

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79
Q

CoA (coarctation of the aorta) is commonly associated with this other structural abnormality:

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

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80
Q

CoA presents with a _______ systolic murmur heard best at the ____ axilla

A

“blowing” Left

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81
Q

___ presents with HTN, weak femoral pulses, leg cramps, HA, epistaxis

A

CoA in older children

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82
Q

In a __ ___ shunt, blue blood bypasses the lungs

A

R L

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83
Q

_____ can result in extreme pulmonary overcirculation

A

Truncus Arteriosis

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84
Q

4 components of Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Pulmonary Stenosis
Displaced aorta
VSD
RV hypertrophy

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85
Q

Your 1 week old pt presents with cyanosis, a systolic ejection murmur heard at the LSB, and hypoxemic spells. You suspect:

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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86
Q

_________ are the hallmark of severe tetralogy, where the child exhibits blue skin during episodes of crying or feeding

A

Hypoxemic spells

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87
Q

A child with Tet of Fallot might do this when they feel a tet spell coming on

A

Squat

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88
Q

Your patient presents with varying degrees of cyanosis, no murmur, tachypnea, and a normal ECG. What do you suspect?

A

Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA)

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89
Q

___ is an embryologic problem where the LV and aora/arch are misformed

A

Hypoplastic Left Heart

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90
Q

Which type of cardiomyopathy is associated with a prolonged QT interval

A

Hypertrophic

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91
Q

Most common type of cardiomyopathy in kids

A

Dilated

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92
Q

___ is best test for diagnosing pericarditis

A

ECHO

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93
Q

Polyarthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, and erythema marginatum are all systemic findings in _____

A

Rheumatic Fever

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94
Q

This is now the #1 cause of acquired heart disease in kids

A

Kawasaki disease

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95
Q

Treatment for Kawasaki disease includes

A

IVIG

High dose aspirin

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96
Q

Cardiomyopathies are more common in

A

Boys

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97
Q

Intestines formed outside the abdominal cavity is called

A

Gastroschesis

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98
Q

Gastroschesis is an _____ problem

A

Organic

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99
Q

An LFT consists of

A

ALT, AST, Alk Phos

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100
Q

Which lab tests are better indicators of liver function?

A

Coags: PT/PTT/ Fibrinogen

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101
Q

Most common abdominal imaging study

A

Xray

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102
Q

Microcolon is best visualized with ____

A

Barium swallow

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103
Q

The pylorus, GB, and appendix are best seen with ____

A

Ultrasound

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104
Q

Chronic abdominal pain in kids is usually ______

A

Functional

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105
Q

In young kids, acute abdominal pain is usually due to

A

Malrotation
Intussusception
Incarcerated hernia
Congenital abnormalities

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106
Q

In older kids, acute abdominal pain us usually due to

A

Appendicitis

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107
Q

Most common cause of vomiting in childhood

A

Viral gastroenteritis

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108
Q

Recurrent Abdominal Pain Syndrome of Childhood is also known as…

A

IBS

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109
Q

Your pt presents with projectile vomiting. Your first suspicion is:

A

Pyloric stenosis

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110
Q

Obstruction is more common, and of much greater concern, in ___

A

Neonates

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111
Q

In older kids, most vomiting is due to ____ illness

A

Viral

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112
Q

Your pt presents with bloody emesis. You should suspect:

A

Mallory Weiss tear

gastritis, peptic ulcer

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113
Q

Management for acute diarrhea in kids is usually:

A

Management

Fluids – oral rehydration

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114
Q

What is the effect of starvation on diarrhea in most kids?

A

Prolongs diarrhea

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115
Q

Most common viral cause of diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

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116
Q

Rotavirus immunizations are recommended at __, __, and __ mo

A

2,4,6

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117
Q

Your patient has a high fever accompanying their diarrhea. You suspect it is caused by ______

A
Bacteria
Campylobacter
Salmonella
Shigella
E. coli
C diff
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118
Q

Chronic constipation is defined as 2 or more of the following for 2 months: (6 criteria)

Could be a “which of the following is NOT…” type of questions…

A
  1. 1 episode encoperesis per week
  2. impaction of rectum with stool
  3. stool that plugs toilet
  4. retentive posturing and fecal withholding
  5. pain with defecation
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119
Q

Most causes of childhood constipation are ____ in nature

A

Functional

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120
Q

Your patient presents with wt loss, growth failure, and is looking ILL with chronic diarrhea. You suspect an_____ cause

A

Organic

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121
Q

How to treat c. diff in peds

A

Flagyl
Metronidazole
Vanco ($$)

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122
Q

Hypothyroid and Hirschsprung disease are both ___ causes of constipation

A

Organic

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123
Q

___ are most common cause of minor bleeding in kiddos

A

Anal fissures

other causes: Mallory-weiss, swallowed nasopharyngeal blood

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124
Q

Rectal bleeding in infants is usually due to _____, anal fissures, or a milk protein allergy (or NEC in preemies)

A

Colitis

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125
Q

Rectal bleeding in older kids is usually due to Meckel’s diverticulum or ___

A

IBD

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126
Q

____ is an example of an intraluminal obstruction in a kid with CF

A

Meconium plug

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127
Q

Escalating pain is commonly associated with ____

A

Ischemia

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128
Q

Your newborn pt hasn’t passed a stool in the 1st 24 hours of life. You suspect:

A

Hirschsprung

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129
Q

Where to start a workup for a baby with possible obstruction

A

X-ray

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130
Q

____ is the best position for visualization of free air

A

LL decubitus Xray

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131
Q

Inflammation of the _____ presents as a warm, erythematous belly.

A

Peritoneum

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132
Q

____ in neonates presents as dusky blue/gray belly.

A

Gut perforation

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133
Q

Periumbilical blue discoloration in neonates is known ____ sign

A

Cullen’s sign

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134
Q

Blue discolorations on flank, groin, and scrotum is known as____

A

Gray-Turners sign

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135
Q

What is the key for evaluating acidosis?

A

Bicarb

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136
Q

____ is characterized by effortless non-projectile vomiting

A

Reflux

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137
Q

Reflux is usually due to a ____ problem in babies

A

Neuromuscular

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138
Q

T/F a negative barium swallow study can rule out GER

A

False. Cannot fully R/o

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139
Q

Metoclopramide (reglan) can lead to

A

Tardive Dyskinesia

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140
Q

Sx of _____ include copious oral secretions, choking, and aspiration

A

Esophageal atresia

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141
Q

Test for suspected TEF

A

Cannot pass NG tube

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142
Q

TEFs are associated with other ___________ anomalies

A

VACTERL

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143
Q

____ anomalies are the most common association with TEF

A

Vertebral

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144
Q

More (girls/boys) typically have umbilical hernias

A

Girls

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145
Q

More (girls/boys) typically have Inguinal hernias

A

Boys

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146
Q

You have a 4 wk old pt with cc of vomiting after feeding. Active bowel sounds w/ projectile vomiting. Afebrile w/ normal vitals. You suspect:

A

Pyloric stenosis

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147
Q

Test for suspected pyloric stenosis

A

Ultrasound

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148
Q

______ in a neonatal period has been associated with pyloric stenosis

A

Erythromycin

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149
Q

Palpable “olive” in epigastric region is a sign of:

A

Pyloric Stenosis

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150
Q

US of pyloric stenosis shows muscle thickening of ______

A

> 4mm

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151
Q

___ is the most common site of atresia and stenosis

A

Jejunum

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152
Q

PUD is more common in _____

A

boys

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153
Q

____ is most definitive test for PUD

A

UGI

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154
Q

H. pylori is (more/less) common in kiddos

A

LESS

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155
Q

_____ obstruction presents sooner with distension and possible emesis

A

Complete

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156
Q

The ____ is the most common site of atresia & stenosis

A

Jejunum

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157
Q

Duodenal atresia is seen on x-ray by the ______ sign

A

Double bubble

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158
Q

Bilious emesis, polyhydramnios, and abdominal distension are sx of ___

A

Duodenal Atresia

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159
Q

Kids with this chromosomal disorder often have duodenal atresia

A

Down Syndrome

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160
Q

Your pt presents looking SICK with a hard, distended belly and bilious vomiting. You suspect:

A

Malrotation

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161
Q

Study of choice for malrotation

A

Barium study

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162
Q

Gastroschisis, omphalocele, and CDH are all _______GI anomalies

A

Congenital

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163
Q

_____ is a herniation through the umbilical cord

A

Omphalocele

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164
Q

Your patient presents with an omphalocele. Your next step should include:

A

Evaluate for cardiac anomalies

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165
Q

80% of patients with congenital diaphragmatic hernias occur on the _____

A

Left

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166
Q

Your patient presents with painless GI bleeding (melena). You suspect

A

Meckel Diverticulum

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167
Q

A patient with meckel diverticulum is at risk for ____ or _____ as well

A

Intussusception & volvulus

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168
Q

Most infants with Hirschsprung’s fail to pass meconium within ____

A

First 24 hrs of life

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169
Q

Lack of gut innervation (ganglion cells) leads to this condition

A

Hirschsprung

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170
Q

Describe stool found in Hirschsprung dz

A

Foul smelling, ribbon like

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171
Q

_____ can result from untreated congenital megacolon

A

E. coli sepsis

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172
Q

Treatment for Hirschsprung disease includes

A

Diverting colostomy

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173
Q

Your 2 yo patient presents with colicky abdominal pain with intermittent fits of crying. Pt draws up legs as if they are bearing down. Pt is afebrile and lethargic. You suspect?

A

Intussusception

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174
Q

Common stool finding of intussusception

A

Currant jelly stool

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175
Q

Treatment for intussusception includes

A

Contrast enema

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176
Q

Pelviectasis may progress to

A

Hydronephrosis

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177
Q

Most common cause of vomiting/diarrhea in kids

A

Rotavirus

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178
Q

Most common cause of acute renal failure in kids

A

ATN dehydration

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179
Q

Most common abdominal mass on newborn exam

A

Enlarged kidney

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180
Q

Your peds patient presents with HTN and edema. What do you suspect?

A

Renal disease

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181
Q

You suspect renal disease in your patient. What other physical findings might increase your suspicion?

A

Ear deformities

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182
Q

What is the most reliable indicator of glomerular function?

A

SrCr

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183
Q

___ is the most common identifiable cause of hematuria in kids

A

UTI

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184
Q

___ is defined as the ratio of urine Cr compared to serum Cr

A

Creatinine clearance

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185
Q

Cr should be less than _____ in most kiddos

A
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186
Q

____ and ____ are most common imaging studies for kidneys

A

US, VCUG

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187
Q

Which commonly used imaging technique DOES have inherent radiation exposure?

A

VCUG

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188
Q

If your pt has hematuria AND dysuria, think:

A

Infection

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189
Q

If your pt has hematuria AND associated back pain, think:

A

pyelonephritis

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190
Q

If your pt has hematuria AND proteinuria, think:

A

Nephropathy

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191
Q

____ is the most common form of glomerulonephritis in childhood

A

APSG

acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephrnitis

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192
Q

___ is the most common CHRONIC form of GN in children and is typically treated using steroids

A

Membranoproliferative GN

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193
Q

The abnormal immune response of membranoproliferative GN includes these 3 findings:

A

Proteinuria
Hematuria
Hypocomplementemia

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194
Q

Treatment of chronic GN includes

A

Steroids

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195
Q

Bergers Disease is a nephropathy caused by ______ deposition

A

IgA

196
Q

This autoimmune cause of vasculitis presents with a purpuritic rash

A

Henoch-Schonlein GN

197
Q

An early sign of glomerular injury is ____

A

Proteinuria

198
Q

Most mild proteinuria in kids is (normal/abnormal)

A

Normal

199
Q

____ is most common form of primary nephrotic syndrome

A

Minimal Change Disease

200
Q

Poor bebe presents with orbital edema. Mom states that he recently had some flu-like symptoms. You suspect:

A

MCNS (minimal change nephrotic syndrome)

201
Q

____ is produced by E. coli and can cause hemolytic-uremic syndrome

A

Verotoxin (VT)

202
Q

____ usually follows a GI infection (diarrhea) and causes endothelial damage in glomeruli and interstitial vessel thrombosis

A

Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

203
Q

Workup for HUS includes

A

Blood smear, CBC, Retic count, UA, Stool studies

204
Q

These 2 types of meds should be avoided in pts with suspected HUS

A

Antibiotics

Antidiarrheals

205
Q

____ is appropriate treatment for rental failure that does not respond to conventional treatments

A

Peritoneal dialysis

206
Q

Hypovolemia leads to underperfusion which leads to _____

A

Acute renal failure

207
Q

Dehydration, hemorrhage, and burns are all ____ causes of acute renal failure

A

Pre-renal causes

208
Q

Post-renal causes of acute renal failure are typically due to ____

A

Obstruction

209
Q

____ is characterized by marked bilateral renal enlargement, interstitial tubular atrophy, and renal failure in early childhood

A

ARPKD

210
Q

_____ is usually associated with cysts in other parts of the body, such as the liver, pancreas, ovaries, and cerebellar arteries.

A

ADPKD

211
Q

Between ARPKD and ADPKD, which is usually worse?

A

Recessive is always worse

212
Q

Most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in males

A

Posterior urethral valves

213
Q

An obstruction at the uretero-pelvic junction

A

Hydroneprhosis

214
Q

An obstruction at the uretero-vesical junction

A

Hydroureter & Hydronephrosis

215
Q

Grades _____ of vesicoureteral reflux typically do not cause damage

A

I-III

216
Q

Suspected reflux can be confirmed with these imaging studies

A

Renal US or VCUG

217
Q

When would you do a VCUG on a kiddo?

A

Chronic UTIs to check for reflux

218
Q

Bilateral renal agenesis is also known as

A

Potter’s syndrome

219
Q

Prune Belly Syndrome is most often caused by

A

Posterior urethral valves

220
Q

Malposition of the urethral opening in males is called:

A

Hypospadias

221
Q

How do you tell a hernia from a hydrocele?

A

LIGHT!

222
Q

HTN + abdominal bruits + diminished leg pulses =

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

223
Q

HTN + café au lait spots =

A

NF

224
Q

HTN + flank mass =

A

Whilm’s tumor

225
Q

HTN + ataxis/ opsoclonus =

A

Neuroblastoma

226
Q

HTN + tachycardia + flushing + diaphoresis =

A

Pheochromocytoma (?)

227
Q

HTN + truncal obesity + acne + striae =

A

Cushing’s

228
Q

Most common secondary etiology of HTN in childhood is ____

A

Real

229
Q

Renal stones in kids are usually caused by:

A

Inborn errors of metabolism

230
Q

Vomiting, fever or hypothermia, poor wt gain, strong urine odor are common S&S of UTI in ________

A

Neonates

231
Q

Vomiting, abdominal or flank pain, fever, frequency, urgency, dysuria, and enuresis are common S&S of UTI in ______

A

Children

232
Q

Vomiting, diarrhea, fever, poor wt gain, strong urine odor are common S&S of UTI in ____

A

Infants

233
Q

Fever, abdominal or flank pain, frequency, urgency, and dysuria are common S&S of UTI in_____

A

Adolescents

234
Q

Gold standard for UTI diagnosis is

A

Ucx

235
Q

Tx for complicated UTI involve:

A

Hospitalization

IV Amp + Gent

236
Q

Tx for uncomplicated UTI involve:

A

Cephalosporins
Trimethoprim/sulfa
Augmentin

237
Q

Malposition of the urethral opening in males is referred to as:

A

Hypospadias

238
Q

Severe hypospadias with undescended testes is a form of:

A

Ambiguous genitalia

239
Q

Adherance of the foreskin is referred to as ____ and is not necessarily abnormal in babies and should resolve by adolescence.

A

Phimosis

240
Q

___ is an abnormality of the male genitalia where the structure of the penis is curved

A

Chordee

241
Q

How should you go about locating undescended testes?

A

Abdominal US

242
Q

If undescended testes are left intra-abdominally, the patient is at an increased risk of ____ and _____

A

Infertility

Cancer

243
Q

Major cause of acute scrotum in boys

A

Testicular torsion

244
Q

Most common endocrine/metabolic disorder of childhood

A

Type 1 DM

245
Q

(adenoma/destructive lesions) are the more common cause of hypopituitarism

A

Destructive Lesions of the hypothalamus

246
Q

Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are common S&S of

A

Type 1 DM

247
Q

Acanthosis Nigricans is a S&S of

A

Type 2 DM

248
Q

____have been shown to reverse/delay kidney damage when detected early

A

ACE inhibitors

249
Q

___ is a complication of DKA that results from an osmolar shift of fluid into cells

A

Cerebral edema

250
Q

Diagnostic tests for DKA

A

Blood gasses, CBC, BMP, A1C, UA, Ucx

251
Q

DKA treatments include:

A

Restore fluid volume
Insulin
Replace body salts
Correction of acidosis

252
Q

Emergency management of hypoglycemia includes

A

IV glucose
Bolus D10W
Then Constant Infusion

253
Q

The most common presenting complaint in pediatric endocrinologist

A
Growth disturbances
(GH deficiency)
254
Q

Workup for a GH deficiency includes:

A

X ray electrolytes
CBC karyotype
ESR thyroid fxn
Urinalysis, BUN/Cr

255
Q

____ is the most common neonatal metabolic disorder

A

Congenital hypothyroidism

256
Q

____ is the most common cause of goiter and thyroiditis in childhood

A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

257
Q

Hypothyroidism has increased incidence in these 2 chromosomal disorders

A

Trisomy 21

Turner’s syndrome

258
Q

Your patient presents with mental sluggishness, pale skin, non-pitting edema, hoarse voice, and dry skin. You suspect:

A

Hypothyroidism

259
Q

The most common cause of excess thyroid hormone

A

Graves disease

260
Q

Treatment for hyperthyroidism includes

A

B blockers

PTU, methimazole

261
Q

CNS tumors and familial factors are causes of ____ precocious puberty.

A

Central

262
Q

Treatment of central precocious puberty includes

A

Leuprolide (GnRH analog)

263
Q

Most common cause of delayed puberty in boys

A

Kleinfelter syndrome

264
Q

What is the most common cause of female pseudohermaphrodite

A

CAH (Congenital adrenal hyperplasia)

265
Q

___ is the most frequent cause of ambiguous genitalia in the newborn

A

CAH

266
Q

What is the most common cause of CAH?

A

Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase

267
Q

____ help maintain BP by supporting vascular tone and promoting Na and H2O retention

A

Glucocorticoids

268
Q

Most common cause of cushing’s in children

A

Prolonged administration of exogenous glucocorticoids

269
Q

Poor feeding w/ lethargy in an infant could be a sign of

A

Cardiac disease or Infection

270
Q

Chest X-rays are good for visualizing these heart characteristics:

A

Cardiomegaly
Pulmonary circulation
Heart shape

271
Q

The size, shape, flow within, and pressures within the heart can be visualized with ____

A

ECHO

272
Q

Later stage Heart failure can present with _____ on abdominal exam

A

Hepatomegaly

273
Q

____ in the fingers is a response to hypoxia

A

Clubbing

274
Q

Differential pulses could be a sign of ____

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

275
Q

Bounding pulses could be due to L PDA shunt , or ___

A

Aortic Insufficiency

276
Q

___ is the heart sound associated with the closing of aortic and pulmonic valves

A

S2

277
Q

___ is the heart sound associated with closing of mitral and tricuspid valves

A

S1

278
Q

S1 is best heard at

A

LLSB or apex

279
Q

___ is heard in diastole & is related to rapid ventricular filling (splash)

A

S3

280
Q

____ is never normal. Comes just before S1. Pathognomonic with heart failure and decreased ventricular compliance.

A

S4

281
Q

Aortic or pulmonary stenosis present with this heart sound:

A

Ejection click

282
Q

Mid-systolic clicks are usually due to

A

Mitral valve prolapse

283
Q

Loud S2 can be due to

A

Pulmonary HTN

284
Q

A fixed, split S2 could be due to pulmonary stenosis or ____

A

ASD

285
Q

Truncus is associated with which heart valves?

A

Semilunar (only 1)

286
Q

Murmurs are described based on:

A

Location/radiation
Relationship to cardiac cycle
Intensity
Quality

287
Q

6 most common functional murmurs

A
Newborn
Peripheral pulmonary arterial stenosis (PPS)
Still murmur 
Pulmonary Ejection Murmur
Venous Hum
Innominate or carotid Bruit
288
Q

Most common murmur of early childhood

A

Still murmur

289
Q

Most common innocent murmur in older children

A

Pulmonary ejection murmur

290
Q

Most common CHD presenting in the first week of life

A

Transposition of Great Arteries

291
Q

Most common CHD presenting beyond infancy

Most common cyanotic lesion in childhood

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

292
Q

How do you know if a murmur is benign?

A

If they have other sx not benign

Kid OK? benign

293
Q

Which murmur is best heard sitting at the R infraclavicular area?

A

Venous hum

294
Q

Most causes of syncope in kids is due to this type of cause

A

Vasovagal or

Neurocardiogenic

295
Q

Cardiac causes of syncope in kids includes:

A

Arrhythmia or Congenital Heart Disease

296
Q

____ are a benign rhythm disturbance where there is a compensatory pause before the next beat

A

PAC

Premature Atrial Contract.

297
Q

PVC’s have a wide________ and NO compensatory pause

A

Wide QRS

298
Q

3 PVCs in a row is considered ______

A

V-tach

299
Q

Re-entrant tachycardia is characteristic of this syndrome caused by supraventricular tachycardia

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

300
Q

Acute treatment for SVT includes IV _____

A

Adenosine

301
Q

In babies, Ice on the face causes vagal stimulation for treatment of _______

A

SVT

302
Q

Maternal lupus can lead to ____

A

Congenital heart block

303
Q

Most common heart block in peds

A

3rd degree

304
Q

Heart disease in peds is primarily due to _______ abnormalities

A

Structural

305
Q

____ is the most common CHD presenting in the 1st week of life

A

Transposition of Great Arteries

306
Q

3 shunts necessary for survival in baby:

A

Ductous venosus
Foramen ovale
Ductus arteriosus

307
Q

Cyanotic shunts are ___ _____ and the blood bypasses the lungs

A

R L

308
Q

Most common L R shunt

A

VSD

309
Q

ASD, VSD, PDA, and blood flow obstructions all cause _____-_____ shunts

A

L R

310
Q

ASD can cause _____heart enlargement

A

Right

311
Q

Which heart condition is Pathognomonic with fixed split S2

A

ASD

312
Q

Most common type of VSD

A

Peri-membranous

313
Q

Over time, the _____ becomes enlarged in a VSD

A

Left Ventricle

314
Q

_____ have a harsh holosystolic murmur

A

VSD

315
Q

______ is an endocardial cushion defect

A

AVSD

316
Q

AVSD is associated with this genetic condition

A

Trisomy 21

317
Q

PDA murmurs are holosystolic and ________-like

A

Machine like

318
Q

_____ is generally not progressive, and may result in decreased blood flow to the lungs depending on size

A

Pulmonary Stenosis

319
Q

____ is an obstruction of LV output and may occur above or below the valve

A

Aortic Stenosis

320
Q

___ is usually the first sign of aortic stenosis

A

Heart murmur

ejection click, basilar ejection murmur, precordial thrill

321
Q

In older kids, Dizziness and fainting at a low threshold may suggest:

A

AS (aortic stenosis)

322
Q

CoA (coarctation of the aorta) is commonly associated with this other structural abnormality:

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

323
Q

CoA presents with a _______ systolic murmur heard best at the ____ axilla

A

“blowing” Left

324
Q

___ presents with HTN, weak femoral pulses, leg cramps, HA, epistaxis

A

CoA in older children

325
Q

In a __ ___ shunt, blue blood bypasses the lungs

A

R L

326
Q

_____ can result in extreme pulmonary overcirculation

A

Truncus Arteriosis

327
Q

4 components of Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Pulmonary Stenosis
Displaced aorta
VSD
RV hypertrophy

328
Q

Your 1 week old pt presents with cyanosis, a systolic ejection murmur heard at the LSB, and hypoxemic spells. You suspect:

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

329
Q

_________ are the hallmark of severe tetralogy, where the child exhibits blue skin during episodes of crying or feeding

A

Hypoxemic spells

330
Q

A child with Tet of Fallot might do this when they feel a tet spell coming on

A

Squat

331
Q

Your patient presents with varying degrees of cyanosis, no murmur, tachypnea, and a normal ECG. What do you suspect?

A

Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA)

332
Q

___ is an embryologic problem where the LV and aora/arch are misformed

A

Hypoplastic Left Heart

333
Q

Which type of cardiomyopathy is associated with a prolonged QT interval

A

Hypertrophic

334
Q

Most common type of cardiomyopathy in kids

A

Dilated

335
Q

___ is best test for diagnosing pericarditis

A

ECHO

336
Q

Polyarthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, and erythema marginatum are all systemic findings in _____

A

Rheumatic Fever

337
Q

This is now the #1 cause of acquired heart disease in kids

A

Kawasaki disease

338
Q

Treatment for Kawasaki disease includes

A

IVIG

High dose aspirin

339
Q

Cardiomyopathies are more common in

A

Boys

340
Q

Intestines formed outside the abdominal cavity is called

A

Gastroschesis

341
Q

Gastroschesis is an _____ problem

A

Organic

342
Q

An LFT consists of

A

ALT, AST, Alk Phos

343
Q

Which lab tests are better indicators of liver function?

A

Coags: PT/PTT/ Fibrinogen

344
Q

Most common abdominal imaging study

A

Xray

345
Q

Microcolon is best visualized with ____

A

Barium swallow

346
Q

The pylorus, GB, and appendix are best seen with ____

A

Ultrasound

347
Q

Chronic abdominal pain in kids is usually ______

A

Functional

348
Q

In young kids, acute abdominal pain is usually due to

A

Malrotation
Intussusception
Incarcerated hernia
Congenital abnormalities

349
Q

In older kids, acute abdominal pain us usually due to

A

Appendicitis

350
Q

Most common cause of vomiting in childhood

A

Viral gastroenteritis

351
Q

Recurrent Abdominal Pain Syndrome of Childhood is also known as…

A

IBS

352
Q

Your pt presents with projectile vomiting. Your first suspicion is:

A

Pyloric stenosis

353
Q

Obstruction is more common, and of much greater concern, in ___

A

Neonates

354
Q

In older kids, most vomiting is due to ____ illness

A

Viral

355
Q

Your pt presents with bloody emesis. You should suspect:

A

Mallory Weiss tear

gastritis, peptic ulcer

356
Q

Management for acute diarrhea in kids is usually:

A

Management

Fluids – oral rehydration

357
Q

What is the effect of starvation on diarrhea in most kids?

A

Prolongs diarrhea

358
Q

Most common viral cause of diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

359
Q

Rotavirus immunizations are recommended at __, __, and __ mo

A

2,4,6

360
Q

Your patient has a high fever accompanying their diarrhea. You suspect it is caused by ______

A
Bacteria
Campylobacter
Salmonella
Shigella
E. coli
C diff
361
Q

Chronic constipation is defined as 2 or more of the following for 2 months: (6 criteria)

Could be a “which of the following is NOT…” type of questions…

A
  1. 1 episode encoperesis per week
  2. impaction of rectum with stool
  3. stool that plugs toilet
  4. retentive posturing and fecal withholding
  5. pain with defecation
362
Q

Most causes of childhood constipation are ____ in nature

A

Functional

363
Q

Your patient presents with wt loss, growth failure, and is looking ILL with chronic diarrhea. You suspect an_____ cause

A

Organic

364
Q

How to treat c. diff in peds

A

Flagyl
Metronidazole
Vanco ($$)

365
Q

Hypothyroid and Hirschsprung disease are both ___ causes of constipation

A

Organic

366
Q

___ are most common cause of minor bleeding in kiddos

A

Anal fissures

other causes: Mallory-weiss, swallowed nasopharyngeal blood

367
Q

Rectal bleeding in infants is usually due to _____, anal fissures, or a milk protein allergy (or NEC in preemies)

A

Colitis

368
Q

Rectal bleeding in older kids is usually due to Meckel’s diverticulum or ___

A

IBD

369
Q

____ is an example of an intraluminal obstruction in a kid with CF

A

Meconium plug

370
Q

Escalating pain is commonly associated with ____

A

Ischemia

371
Q

Your newborn pt hasn’t passed a stool in the 1st 24 hours of life. You suspect:

A

Hirschsprung

372
Q

Where to start a workup for a baby with possible obstruction

A

X-ray

373
Q

____ is the best position for visualization of free air

A

LL decubitus Xray

374
Q

Inflammation of the _____ presents as a warm, erythematous belly.

A

Peritoneum

375
Q

____ in neonates presents as dusky blue/gray belly.

A

Gut perforation

376
Q

Periumbilical blue discoloration in neonates is known ____ sign

A

Cullen’s sign

377
Q

Blue discolorations on flank, groin, and scrotum is known as____

A

Gray-Turners sign

378
Q

What is the key for evaluating acidosis?

A

Bicarb

379
Q

____ is characterized by effortless non-projectile vomiting

A

Reflux

380
Q

Reflux is usually due to a ____ problem in babies

A

Neuromuscular

381
Q

T/F a negative barium swallow study can rule out GER

A

False. Cannot fully R/o

382
Q

Metoclopramide (reglan) can lead to

A

Tardive Dyskinesia

383
Q

Sx of _____ include copious oral secretions, choking, and aspiration

A

Esophageal atresia

384
Q

Test for suspected TEF

A

Cannot pass NG tube

385
Q

TEFs are associated with other ___________ anomalies

A

VACTERL

386
Q

____ anomalies are the most common association with TEF

A

Vertebral

387
Q

More (girls/boys) typically have umbilical hernias

A

Girls

388
Q

More (girls/boys) typically have Inguinal hernias

A

Boys

389
Q

You have a 4 wk old pt with cc of vomiting after feeding. Active bowel sounds w/ projectile vomiting. Afebrile w/ normal vitals. You suspect:

A

Pyloric stenosis

390
Q

Test for suspected pyloric stenosis

A

Ultrasound

391
Q

______ in a neonatal period has been associated with pyloric stenosis

A

Erythromycin

392
Q

Palpable “olive” in epigastric region is a sign of:

A

Pyloric Stenosis

393
Q

US of pyloric stenosis shows muscle thickening of ______

A

> 4mm

394
Q

___ is the most common site of atresia and stenosis

A

Jejunum

395
Q

PUD is more common in _____

A

boys

396
Q

____ is most definitive test for PUD

A

UGI

397
Q

H. pylori is (more/less) common in kiddos

A

LESS

398
Q

_____ obstruction presents sooner with distension and possible emesis

A

Complete

399
Q

The ____ is the most common site of atresia & stenosis

A

Jejunum

400
Q

Duodenal atresia is seen on x-ray by the ______ sign

A

Double bubble

401
Q

Bilious emesis, polyhydramnios, and abdominal distension are sx of ___

A

Duodenal Atresia

402
Q

Kids with this chromosomal disorder often have duodenal atresia

A

Down Syndrome

403
Q

Your pt presents looking SICK with a hard, distended belly and bilious vomiting. You suspect:

A

Malrotation

404
Q

Study of choice for malrotation

A

Barium study

405
Q

Gastroschisis, omphalocele, and CDH are all _______GI anomalies

A

Congenital

406
Q

_____ is a herniation through the umbilical cord

A

Omphalocele

407
Q

Your patient presents with an omphalocele. Your next step should include:

A

Evaluate for cardiac anomalies

408
Q

80% of patients with congenital diaphragmatic hernias occur on the _____

A

Left

409
Q

Your patient presents with painless GI bleeding (melena). You suspect

A

Meckel Diverticulum

410
Q

A patient with meckel diverticulum is at risk for ____ or _____ as well

A

Intussusception & volvulus

411
Q

Most infants with Hirschsprung’s fail to pass meconium within ____

A

First 24 hrs of life

412
Q

Lack of gut innervation (ganglion cells) leads to this condition

A

Hirschsprung

413
Q

Describe stool found in Hirschsprung dz

A

Foul smelling, ribbon like

414
Q

_____ can result from untreated congenital megacolon

A

E. coli sepsis

415
Q

Treatment for Hirschsprung disease includes

A

Diverting colostomy

416
Q

Your 2 yo patient presents with colicky abdominal pain with intermittent fits of crying. Pt draws up legs as if they are bearing down. Pt is afebrile and lethargic. You suspect?

A

Intussusception

417
Q

Common stool finding of intussusception

A

Currant jelly stool

418
Q

Treatment for intussusception includes

A

Contrast enema

419
Q

Pelviectasis may progress to

A

Hydronephrosis

420
Q

Most common cause of vomiting/diarrhea in kids

A

Rotavirus

421
Q

Most common cause of acute renal failure in kids

A

ATN dehydration

422
Q

Most common abdominal mass on newborn exam

A

Enlarged kidney

423
Q

Your peds patient presents with HTN and edema. What do you suspect?

A

Renal disease

424
Q

You suspect renal disease in your patient. What other physical findings might increase your suspicion?

A

Ear deformities

425
Q

What is the most reliable indicator of glomerular function?

A

SrCr

426
Q

___ is the most common identifiable cause of hematuria in kids

A

UTI

427
Q

___ is defined as the ratio of urine Cr compared to serum Cr

A

Creatinine clearance

428
Q

Cr should be less than _____ in most kiddos

A
429
Q

____ and ____ are most common imaging studies for kidneys

A

US, VCUG

430
Q

Which commonly used imaging technique DOES have inherent radiation exposure?

A

VCUG

431
Q

If your pt has hematuria AND dysuria, think:

A

Infection

432
Q

If your pt has hematuria AND associated back pain, think:

A

pyelonephritis

433
Q

If your pt has hematuria AND proteinuria, think:

A

Nephropathy

434
Q

____ is the most common form of glomerulonephritis in childhood

A

APSG

acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephrnitis

435
Q

___ is the most common CHRONIC form of GN in children and is typically treated using steroids

A

Membranoproliferative GN

436
Q

The abnormal immune response of membranoproliferative GN includes these 3 findings:

A

Proteinuria
Hematuria
Hypocomplementemia

437
Q

Treatment of chronic GN includes

A

Steroids

438
Q

Bergers Disease is a nephropathy caused by ______ deposition

A

IgA

439
Q

This autoimmune cause of vasculitis presents with a purpuritic rash

A

Henoch-Schonlein GN

440
Q

An early sign of glomerular injury is ____

A

Proteinuria

441
Q

Most mild proteinuria in kids is (normal/abnormal)

A

Normal

442
Q

____ is most common form of primary nephrotic syndrome

A

Minimal Change Disease

443
Q

Poor bebe presents with orbital edema. Mom states that he recently had some flu-like symptoms. You suspect:

A

MCNS (minimal change nephrotic syndrome)

444
Q

____ is produced by E. coli and can cause hemolytic-uremic syndrome

A

Verotoxin (VT)

445
Q

____ usually follows a GI infection (diarrhea) and causes endothelial damage in glomeruli and interstitial vessel thrombosis

A

Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

446
Q

Workup for HUS includes

A

Blood smear, CBC, Retic count, UA, Stool studies

447
Q

These 2 types of meds should be avoided in pts with suspected HUS

A

Antibiotics

Antidiarrheals

448
Q

____ is appropriate treatment for rental failure that does not respond to conventional treatments

A

Peritoneal dialysis

449
Q

Hypovolemia leads to underperfusion which leads to _____

A

Acute renal failure

450
Q

Dehydration, hemorrhage, and burns are all ____ causes of acute renal failure

A

Pre-renal causes

451
Q

Post-renal causes of acute renal failure are typically due to ____

A

Obstruction

452
Q

____ is characterized by marked bilateral renal enlargement, interstitial tubular atrophy, and renal failure in early childhood

A

ARPKD

453
Q

_____ is usually associated with cysts in other parts of the body, such as the liver, pancreas, ovaries, and cerebellar arteries.

A

ADPKD

454
Q

Between ARPKD and ADPKD, which is usually worse?

A

Recessive is always worse

455
Q

Most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in males

A

Posterior urethral valves

456
Q

An obstruction at the uretero-pelvic junction

A

Hydroneprhosis

457
Q

An obstruction at the uretero-vesical junction

A

Hydroureter & Hydronephrosis

458
Q

Grades _____ of vesicoureteral reflux typically do not cause damage

A

I-III

459
Q

Suspected reflux can be confirmed with these imaging studies

A

Renal US or VCUG

460
Q

When would you do a VCUG on a kiddo?

A

Chronic UTIs to check for reflux

461
Q

Bilateral renal agenesis is also known as

A

Potter’s syndrome

462
Q

Prune Belly Syndrome is most often caused by

A

Posterior urethral valves

463
Q

Malposition of the urethral opening in males is called:

A

Hypospadias

464
Q

How do you tell a hernia from a hydrocele?

A

LIGHT!

465
Q

HTN + abdominal bruits + diminished leg pulses =

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

466
Q

HTN + café au lait spots =

A

NF

467
Q

HTN + flank mass =

A

Whilm’s tumor

468
Q

HTN + ataxis/ opsoclonus =

A

Neuroblastoma

469
Q

HTN + tachycardia + flushing + diaphoresis =

A

Pheochromocytoma (?)

470
Q

HTN + truncal obesity + acne + striae =

A

Cushing’s

471
Q

Most common secondary etiology of HTN in childhood is ____

A

Real

472
Q

Renal stones in kids are usually caused by:

A

Inborn errors of metabolism

473
Q

Vomiting, fever or hypothermia, poor wt gain, strong urine odor are common S&S of UTI in ________

A

Neonates

474
Q

Vomiting, abdominal or flank pain, fever, frequency, urgency, dysuria, and enuresis are common S&S of UTI in ______

A

Children

475
Q

Vomiting, diarrhea, fever, poor wt gain, strong urine odor are common S&S of UTI in ____

A

Infants

476
Q

Fever, abdominal or flank pain, frequency, urgency, and dysuria are common S&S of UTI in_____

A

Adolescents

477
Q

Gold standard for UTI diagnosis is

A

Ucx

478
Q

Tx for complicated UTI involve:

A

Hospitalization

IV Amp + Gent

479
Q

Tx for uncomplicated UTI involve:

A

Cephalosporins
Trimethoprim/sulfa
Augmentin

480
Q

Malposition of the urethral opening in males is referred to as:

A

Hypospadias

481
Q

Severe hypospadias with undescended testes is a form of:

A

Ambiguous genitalia

482
Q

Adherance of the foreskin is referred to as ____ and is not necessarily abnormal in babies and should resolve by adolescence.

A

Phimosis

483
Q

___ is an abnormality of the male genitalia where the structure of the penis is curved

A

Chordee

484
Q

How should you go about locating undescended testes?

A

Abdominal US

485
Q

If undescended testes are left intra-abdominally, the patient is at an increased risk of ____ and _____

A

Infertility

Cancer

486
Q

Major cause of acute scrotum in boys

A

Testicular torsion