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Cells: Form and Function > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

when regarding transport of lipids a _______ density means highest in proteins while ________ dense means highest in lipids

A

high, low

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2
Q

*would life be possible with a pure lipid bilayer?

A

No

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3
Q

simple diffusion rate of substance movement across the phospholipid part of a membrane is proportional to its ______, ________, and _______?

A

concentration gradient
hydrophobicity
size

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4
Q

what does a high K value mean when regarding hydrophobicity?

A

greater fraction found in oil, more hydrophobic and faster to cross bilayer

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5
Q

what are the 3 groups of membrane transport proteins?

A

Channels, transporters (uniporter, symporter, antiporter), atp powered pumps

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6
Q

non gated channels are always ______?

A

open

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7
Q

when are gated channels open?

A

open only in response to chemical or electrical signals

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8
Q

uiporters transport ____ molecule down its concentration gradient?

A

one

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9
Q

symporters and antiporters transport _____ molecules?

A

two

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10
Q

secondary active transport includes?

A

symporters and antiporters

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11
Q

primary active transport includes?

A

atp powered pumps

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12
Q

facilitated transport includes?

A

channels and uniporters (movement down [ ] gradient)

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13
Q

why are conformational changes essential for transport proteins?

A

cycles of change expose binding sites to one side of the membrane while another conformational change exposes the other side

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14
Q

Na/K pump pumps Na _____ the cell and K _____ the cell.

A

Na out, K in

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15
Q

Na/ lysine sympoter brings ______ in the cell along with ___ Na

A

lysine, 2 Na

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16
Q

K channel releases K _____ the gradient

A

down

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17
Q

what is the modern cell theory?

A

all living things ar emad eup of one or more cells

all cells arise from pre existing cells by division

the cell is the fundamental unit of structure and function in all living organisms

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18
Q

what are some common features of cells?

A

contain hereditary information

plasma membranes

energy molecules atp

small molecules

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19
Q

cells have ___ forms of amino acids and ____ forms of sugars

A

L amino acids

D sugars

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20
Q

what are two characteristics of prokaryotes?

A

no internal membrane compartments

no organelles

bacteria and archaea

generally smaller genomes

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21
Q

is eukaryota a monophyletic group?

A

yes

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22
Q

what is a main challenge for eukaryotes?

A

moving molecules between internal membrane compartments

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23
Q

transcription and translation are coupled in prokaryotes

to or f

A

fasle, they are not

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24
Q

processing occurs only in eukaryotes (t or f)

A

true

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25
Q

nuclear export occurs in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

( t or f)

A

false, only eukaryotes

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26
Q

what are the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle?

A 
G1 (gap phase)
 S ( synthesis)
 G2 ( gap 2)
 M (mitosis)
 G0 (out of cycle)
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27
Q

do mitochondria and chloroplasts replecate separately from nuclear dna?

A

yes

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28
Q

what is apicomplexa?

A

phylum of parasitic alveolates (protists)

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29
Q

what are 3 characteristics of apicomplexa?

A

unicellular, spore forming, complex life cycle, obligate endoparasites, unique organelle (apicoplast)

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30
Q

plasmodium is responsible for which disease?

A

malaria

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31
Q

what is the general target of antibiotics?

A

target bacterial or fungal process

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32
Q

what blocks the tunnel in the ribosome that the peptide exists from?

A

macrolides

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33
Q

plastids are an uncommon organelle ( t or f)

A

true

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34
Q

what are 3 common features of model organisms?

A

small, easy feeding, non dangerous, cheap, simple care, readily availible, short generation time, genome sequenced

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35
Q

can bacteria be model organisms?

A

yes but lack organelled of eukaryotes so there are limitations

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36
Q

what are the 3 common model bacterial organims?

A

ecoli, b subtilis caulobacter crescentus, pseudomonas fluorescens

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37
Q

why is yeast studied in classical genetics?

A

isolate and characterize mutants that lack the ability to do something that normal organism can do

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38
Q

mutations can occur randomly or be induced with a chemical or physical _______

A

mutagen

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39
Q

plant cells are interconnected by?

A

plasmodesmata

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40
Q

animal cells are interconnected by?

A

cell adhesion molecules, matrix called basal lamnia

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41
Q

what is collagen made up of?

A

polysacchides and proteins

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42
Q

the function of epithelium is ?

A

separates external environment, barrier and protective surface

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43
Q

only about ____ % of human dna encode proteins while the rest plays a regulatory role

A

10%

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44
Q

why are c elegans a good model organism?

A

small, short generation of 3 days, transparent, hermaphroditic, simple body plan, model human disease

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45
Q

these transgenic worms (c elegans) are commonly used for the expression of what?

A

GFP , green fluorescence protein

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46
Q

what is syteny?

A

occurence of genes in the same order on a chromosome in two or more different species

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47
Q

regulatory proteins include ______ factors

A

transcription

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48
Q

how do proteosomes differ from deutereosomes?

A

proteosomes (mouth near blastopore and ventral nerve cord)

deutereosomes ( anus near blastopore and dorsal ventral nervous system

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49
Q

patterning genes do what?

A

encode master transcription factors that control other genes and specify the body axes and body segments of an animal

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50
Q

monogenic is?

A

mutation in single gene encoding a single protein

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51
Q

the most common hereditary muscle wasting disease is?

A

muscular dystrophy

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52
Q

culturing cells can be done in what two ways?

A

suspension and solid surface

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53
Q

suspension is best for?

A

bacteria archaea and yeast

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54
Q

solid surface is best for?

A

most animal cells

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55
Q

what are two differences between suspension and solid surface media?

A

suspension:

  • minimal media, inorgamic salts, carbon source, water
  • faster growing
  • contamination less of issue

solid surface:

  • antibiotics added
  • provide 9 essential amino acids
  • vitamins, salts, fatty acids, glucose
  • serum provides insulin, transferin and growth factors
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56
Q

In_______ media omly the temperature must be controlled while in _______ media temperature atmosphere and humity must be controlled

A

suspension, solid

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57
Q

_______ cells are isolated directly from tissue

A

primary

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58
Q

spontaneous oncogenic mutations lead to oncogenic _________

A

transformation

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59
Q

what type of cells are considered immortal and called a cell line?

A

transformed cells

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60
Q

aneuploidy is?

A

abnormal number of chromosomes

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61
Q

what are the 3 main steps to isolating cells?

A
  1. lyse the cells
  2. separate organelles based on key characteristics
  3. use isolated organelles for further study
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62
Q

lysis means?

A

breaking open the cells

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63
Q

what are the 3 techniques used to disrupt the cell membrane?

A

high speed blending, sonication, and tissue homogenizer

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64
Q

swelling cells in a _________ solution weakens the plasma membrane making it easier to rupture.

A

hypotonic

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65
Q

passive transport is the movement of molecules ________ the concentration gradient

A

along

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66
Q

simple diffusion is?

A

allows molecules to freely cross the plasma membrane along the [ ] gradient

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67
Q

facilitated diffusion is?

A

channels and carriers, allows molecules to move through a membrane protein along the [ ] gradient

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68
Q

hypertonic solutions have a ____ solute concentration than the cell while hypotonic solutions have a _______ concentration than the cell

A

higher, lower

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69
Q

what is the homogenate?

A

after lysis a mix of suspended cellular componants

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70
Q

centrifugation separates particles based on _______ or ________

A

mass or density

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71
Q

sequential differential centrifugation?

A

yeilds fractions of organelles that differ in mass and density

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72
Q

equilibrium density gradient centrifugation?

A

separates cellular components by density

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73
Q

during differential centrifugation large cell fragments form the ________ while soluble proteins remain in the _______

A

pellet, supernatant

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74
Q

what is proteomic analysis?

A

can identify all protein components in a preparation of a purified organelle

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75
Q

monoclonal antibodies recognize what?

A

an organelle specific membrane protein

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76
Q

proteomic analysis requires 3 things

A
  1. isolation at a high purity
  2. method to identify all proteins in the organelle
  3. genome sequence for reference comparison
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77
Q

what is the hematocrit?

A

volume of blood cells packed by centrifugation in a given volume of blood

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78
Q

what is flow cytometry?

A

machine flows cells past a laser beam that measures the light that they scatter and the fluorescence that they emit

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79
Q

in order to identify recombinant cells that are expressing GFP a good method would be?

A

flow cytometry

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80
Q

what is FACS?

A

fluorescence activated cell sorter, based on flow cytometry

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81
Q

what is this describing?

cells are mixed with a buffer and forced through a nozzle, droplets dont contain cells, some only contain one

A

FACS

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82
Q

separating white blood cells would be an example of ?

A

flow cytometry

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83
Q

monoclonal antibodies are made by?

A

identical clonal immune cells

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84
Q

what is monovalent affinity?

A

all bind to the same epitope

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85
Q

monoclonal antisera is?

A

single epitope recognized

86
Q

polyclonal antisera is?

A

multiple epitopes recognized

87
Q

what are hybridoma cells?

A

produce monoclonal antibodies that bind one antigen epitope and are used for basic research therapeutics

88
Q

what is the target based approach for drug development?

A

start with target selected from biochemical pathway linked to specific disease state

89
Q

in light microscopy _________ is limited by ________

A

resolution, wavelength

90
Q

what are the 3 optical microscopes?

A

bright field, phase contrast, fluorescence

91
Q

what is the most important property of optical microscopes?

A

resolution

92
Q

what does “D” represent ?

A

distance between two objects, the smaller the D the better the resoluton

93
Q

alpha represents what when calculating resolution?

A

angular aperture

94
Q

N represents what when calculating resolution?

A

refractive index

95
Q

what is the other limitation to light microscopy other than resolution?

A

light must be able to pass through the sample

96
Q

chemical cross linking of proteins and nucleic acids and proteins is known as?

A

fixing

97
Q

cutting parafin embedded tissue into 50nm thin slices is known as?

A

sectioning

98
Q

dye certain molecules is known as?

A

staining

99
Q

what is an HE stain?

A

uses hematoxylin and eosin

100
Q

hematoxcylin binds to basic_____ _____ while eosin binds to ________ molecules

A

amino acids, acidic

101
Q

how can an organism be classified as fluorescent?

A

if it absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light at a longer wavelength

102
Q

green fluorescing dye is specifically bound to?

A

mitochondria

103
Q

red fluorescing dye is incorporated into?

A

lysosomes

104
Q

indirect immunofluorescence because the fluorochrome is on the _________ ____________

A

secondary antibody

105
Q

what are the advantages of indirect immunofluorescence?

A

amplified signal, secondary antibodies are cheaper

106
Q

do fluorochromes have to be attached to antibodies?

A

no

107
Q

what are the two main drawbacks of fluorescence microscopy?

A

blurring of images causes by fluorescence outside plane of focus, cant visualize thick specimens

108
Q

what is confocal microscopy?

A

illuminate and collect emitted fluorescent light from one small area of a focal plane at a time, collect many images and build up final figure

109
Q

what improves image clarity by removing out of focus light?

A

deconvolution and confocal microscopy

110
Q

what is FRAP?

A

fluorescence recovery after photobleaching

111
Q

what is FRET?

A

forster resonance energy transfer

112
Q

what is this describing?

starts with gfp tagged transmembrane protein in a cell, uses high intensity light to bleach gfp in a certain patch until it no longer fluoresces

A

FRAP

113
Q

what is this describing?

measures distance between fluorochromes

A

FRET

114
Q

what reveals protein interactions?

A

FRET

115
Q

the short wavelength of electron microscopy high energy electrons yeilds ______ resolution images

A

high

116
Q

what are the two main types of EM?

A

transmission electron microscopy and scanning electron microcopy

117
Q

electrons pass through sample in?

A

TEM

118
Q

electrons are scattered off sample in?

A

SEM

119
Q

how does TEM work?

A

specimens are prepared before, tick material is fixed, dehydrated, plastic embedded, stained with electron dense heavy metals

120
Q

how does SEM work?

A

metal shadowed material reveals surface features of specimens, molecules are excited and release secondary electrons that are focused into scintillation detector

121
Q

which em method has less revolving power, SEM or TEM?

A

SEM

122
Q

ampipathic phospholipids have ________ faces and ________ cores?

A

hydrophilic faces and hydrophobic cores

123
Q

individual phospholipids spin and diffuse _______ within the plane of the membrane

A

laterally

124
Q

how do we measure lateral diffusion?

A

FRAP

125
Q

chain disorder _______ bilayer thickness

A

decreases

126
Q

the cytosolic face always faces the _______

A

cytoplasm

127
Q

the expolasmic face faces the _____ _________ or _______

A

cell exterior or lumen

128
Q

what are two reasons membrane fluidity and flexability are important?

A

enables organelles to assume typical shapes

provides dynamic property that enables mebrane budding and fusion

129
Q

when phospholipids are disperse in an aqueous solution they form what 3 things?

A

liposomes, micelles, and bilayer sheets

130
Q

what are the phospholipid arrangements governed by?

A

hydrophobic affect

131
Q

type of aggregate formed by phospholipids depends on?

A

temp, and length or saturation of fatty acyl tails

132
Q

small polar head favours?

A

inverted micelles or cubic structures

133
Q

similar polar head and hydrophobic region favours?

A

bilayers

134
Q

bulky polar head and one acyl chain favours?

A

micelles

135
Q

what are the most common phospholipids?

A

phosphoglycerides, derivatives of glycerol 3 phosphate

136
Q

what are sphingolipids?

A

derivatives of sphingosine

137
Q

the 3 sterols are?

A

cholesterol (animal)
ergosterol (fungal)
stigmasterol (plant

138
Q

sterols are made up of?

A

polar head- single polar hydroxyl

tail- conjugated 4 ring hydrocarbon and short hydrocarbon chain

139
Q

what are flipases used for?

A

for phospholipids to move between leaflets

140
Q

sphingomyelin is synthesized where?

A

on expolasmic face of golgi complex

141
Q

phospholipids are synthezised where?

A

cytosolic face of ER

142
Q

cholesterol helps maintain______

A

fluidity

143
Q

what are the 3 membrane proteins?

A

integral, lipid anchored, peripheral

144
Q

what does this describe?

fatty acyl chains pack tightly against the hydrophobic outer surface of protein form shell around the protien and rearely exchange with other phospholipids?

A

annular phospholipids

145
Q

what is the function of transmembrane helices?

A

guide assembly and stabalize multimeric membrane proteins

146
Q

porins are found where?

A

in outer membrane of gram negative bacteria , mitochondria and chloroplasts

147
Q

lipid anchored proteins can be attached to either the ___ or _____ terminus?

A

N or C terminus of polypeptide

148
Q

what are two functions of phospholipases?

A

degrade damaged/ aged cellular membranes

generate signaling molecules

149
Q

detergents are used for?

A

to solubilize lipids and membrane proteins

150
Q

ion detergents contain a ____ _______ and do what?

A

charged group, denature protiens

151
Q

non ionic detergents lack a charged group and do what?

A

extract transmembrane proteins in folded active form

152
Q

when can detergents form micelles?

A

low concentrations but dissolce as isolated molecules

high concentrations form micelles

153
Q

what is the critical micelle concentration?

A

breakpoint at which micelles form

154
Q

light energy occurs in the ________ membrane of chloroplasts

A

thylakoid

155
Q

what is the soluble portion of the chloroplast?

A

stroma

156
Q

what occurs in light reactions?

A

associated with the thylokoid membrane,, capture light energy and convert it to chemical energy in the form of NADPH and ATP

157
Q

what occurs in dark reactions?

A

located in the stroma uses NADPH and atp to drive the endergonic process of hexose sugar formation from co2

158
Q

light reactions use ______ to capture solar energy

A

chlorophyl

159
Q

chlorophyl is a ?

A

photoreactive isoprene based pigment

160
Q

what is coordinated with the centre of the planar conjugated ring structure in chlorophyl?

A

mg2+

161
Q

what confers membrane solubility in chlorophyl?

A

phytol

162
Q

what are the 4 main steps of photosyntheis?

A
  1. light absorption
  2. electron transport and reduction of NAD+ and NADPH
  3. synthesis of ATP
  4. carbon fixation
163
Q

where is DCPIP used?

A

etc reduces dcpip instead of NADP+

164
Q

______ replaces the final electron carrier in photosynthesis?

A

DCPIP

165
Q

where are phospholipids synthesized?

A

ER

166
Q

what is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?

A

fatty acids have no carbon carbon double bonds (saturated with H)

unsaturated fatty acids do have at least one C=C or triple bomds

167
Q

what transports fatty acids?

A

cytosolic proteins, FABP

168
Q

lipid transport is done by what 3 things?

A

vesicle transport, membrane bridges, lipid transfer proteins

169
Q

a pure lipid bilayer is impermeable to what?

A

ions
amino acids
sugars
water soluble molecules

170
Q

rate of diffusion across a pure phospholipid barrier is proportional to _________ ________, _______ and _______

A

concentration gradient

hydrophobicity and size

171
Q

what does a high K value mean when regarding diffusion?

A

greater fraction found in oil therfore more hydrophobic and faster to cross a bilayer

172
Q

uniporters transport _____ molecule

A

1

173
Q

symporter and antiporters transport _____ moleucles

A

2 molecules

174
Q

atp powered pumps use what type of transport?

A

primary active transport

175
Q

what forms of transport do not need energy?

A

simple diffusion

channels and uniporters (facilitated transport)

*** movement down gradient

176
Q

what types of transport use energy?

A

symporters and antiporters (secondary active transport)

atp powered pumps (primary active transport)

*** movement up gradient

177
Q

what is the fastest transport?

A

glucose transport

178
Q

*what cell monomers form covalent bonds?

A

amino acids, nucleotides, phospholipds and monosaccharides

179
Q

*the information dictating the proper folded conformation of a nascent protein is contained with?

A

primary amino sequence of the nascent protein

180
Q

*proteins preform numerous functions including ?

A
  • controlling protein activity (regulation)
  • monitoring the environment and transmitting information (signalling)
  • moving small molecules and ions across membrane (transport)
  • catalyzing chemical reactions (enzymes)
181
Q

*what would cause diploid yeast to form haploid yeast spores?

A

nutrient limitation

182
Q

*what can occur when researches inactivate a gene in a model organism?

A

all of the above

abolish production of a protein encoded

study effects of loss of function

they can produce animal versions of human disease

they exhibit symptoms of disease in model organisms

183
Q

*why can we not use bacteria to study organelle deficiencies in higher eukaryotes?

A

bacteria lack the organelles found in eukaryotes

184
Q

*if a detergent was added to the homogenate what would happen?

A

cellular material would migrate randomly throughout the tube

185
Q

*which enzyme would be the best marker for chloroplasts?

A

photosystem II

186
Q
  • transformed cells have a finite life span?
A

false

187
Q

*hybridoma cells:

A
  • grow rapidly
  • are immortal
  • produce monoclonal antibody

all of the above

188
Q
  • does the magnification of a microscope affect the resolution?
A

no

189
Q

*an oil immersion lens is specialized to focus through a droplet of oil placed on top of the coverslip, which parameter is changed?

A

N, refractive index

190
Q
  • is detecting a FLAG epitope tag with a fluorochrome coupled anti flag monoclonal antibody an example of direct or indirect immunofluorescence?
A

indirect

191
Q

*you have bright field light microscope and want to re tool it to make a fluorescence microscope. what parts do you need?

A

filter

192
Q

*imagine you want to determine the location of a protien. your hypothesis is that the transmembrane protein is located in the mitochondria membrane. which technique would you choose?

A

any of the above

immunofluorescence, GFP, FLAG

193
Q

*you need a control stain to detect mitochondria? what would you choose?

A

FLAG

194
Q

*FRAP is based on?

A

the dynamics of proteins in a membrane

195
Q

*what sample would transmission electron microscopy be the best choice?

A

internal structure of fixed cells

196
Q

*for what sample is scanning electron microscopy the best choice?

A

surface structure of fixed cells

197
Q

*which technique is best viewed for living unstained cells?

A

phase contrast

198
Q

which membrane leaflet of the inner membrane faces the chloroplast stroma?

A

cytoplasmic face

199
Q

*in a receptor mediated endocytosis what features end facing into the cytoplasm on the final coated vesicle?

A

clathrin

200
Q

*what type of membrane protein is shown?

A

integral is throughout the cell

201
Q

*what are common features of most integral membrane proteins?

A

hydrophobic alpha helices and one or two hydrophilic domains

202
Q

*you wish to extract a transmembrane tyrosine kinase and assay its function. which of the following detergents would you use for the extraction?

A

octylglucoside

203
Q

*you attempted to isolate chloroplasts and tested the results usin DCPIP. If purification of chloroplasts was innefective so that there was very little PSII present, what would occur?

A

DCPIP would remain blue

204
Q

*chloroplasts?

A

all of the above

205
Q

*what is not a challenge pertaining to phospholipid synthesis that cells overcome?

A

all are challenges

  • lipid must insert into membrane
  • many membranes cannot carry out lipid synthesis
  • phosholipids cannot be transported by vesicles
206
Q

*phospholipids and cholesterol are transported by what mechanisms?

A

all of the above, vesicular transport, direct, individual or carrier

207
Q

*which bloodstream lioprotein trasnports the greatest proportion of cholesterol?

A

LDL

208
Q

*would cells survive if their membranes were pure lipid bilayers?

A

nope

209
Q

*active transport does not include?

A

diffusion and uniport

210
Q

*pumps include?

A

atpases

Cells: Form and Function (6 decks)

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