Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Biology 211 > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Tissue

A

Groups of cells with the same function ( e.g. nerve cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define organ

A

Structure composed of several different types of tissues (e.g. heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nucleotide

A
  1. Adenine
  2. Guanine
  3. Thymine
  4. Cytosine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a gene?

A

Segments of DNA molecule that code for a particular protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the correct sequence of DNA to protein?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 domains that all living things can be grouped into?

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Archaea
  3. Euarya
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the main steps in the scientific method?

A
  1. Make observations
  2. Ask a question
  3. Form Hypotheses (multiple hypothesis) using inductive reasoning (based on observations)
  4. Make predictions using deductive reasoning (based on hypothesis)
  5. Test using controlled experiments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define independent variable

A

The variable that is manipulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define control treatment

A

Experimental subjects exposed to “normal” level of independent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define experimental treatment(s)

A

Experimental subjects exposed to different levels of independent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define dependent variable

A

After experiment has taken place, the dependent variable is what happens as a result of various levels of independent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define comparative test

A

Experimental subjects that were “naturally” exposed to various levels of independent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What if results are as predicted?
  2. What if results are not as predicted?
A
  1. Hypothesis is “consistent” with evidence
  2. Hypothesis is “rejected” and think up new hypotheses

Note: We can never PROVE that a hypothesis is true! All we can do is reject incorrect hypotheses, and find hypotheses that are consistent with the evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What makes a hypothesis “scientific”?

A

It has to be testable, that is, potentially able to be rejected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define macromolecule

A

“Big”, more than 1,000 atoms

Note: Most proteins, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates are macromolecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define Polymer

A

Long chainlike molecule consisting of monomers linked together by covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are monomers linked together to form a polymer?

A

Covalent Bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How are proteins polymers made?

A

Covalently bonded amino acid monomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many different types of amino acid monomers exist?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are nucleic acids polymers made?

A

Covalently bonded nucleotide monomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How are carbohydrate polymers made?

A

Covalently bonded monosacchardies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How are polymers built?

A

Dehydration reaction which removes an H2O molecule to form a new bond. Monomers are added to the chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are polymers broken down?

A

Hydrolysis reaction which breaks covalent bonds by adding an H2O molecule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define polypedtide

A

A polymer of up to 20 different kinds of amino acid monomers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What determines protein structure?

A

Side chain (R)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How are amino acids linked together?

A

By a covalent bond between an amino group and carboxy group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define Peptide Bond

A

A bond between an amino group and a carboxyl group.

Note: Two or more linked amino acids form a polypeptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the difference between a protein and polypeptide?

A

Polypeptide - a polymer of amino acids

Protein - one or more polypeptides that are folded or coiled into a complex 3-D shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Primary Structure (1º)

A

The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.

Note: The order of amino acids with their particular side chain determines the protein’s structure at next levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is secondary structure (2º)

A

Regular, repeating coiling or folding patterns in a polypeptide chain. Hydrogen bonds between parts of polypeptide backbone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is tertiary structure (3º)

A

3-D foldings of polypeptides existing secondary structure stabilized by interactions between the side-chains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Quaternary Structure (4º)

A

If protein consists of two or more polypeptides form this particular structure.

Note: Most proteins don’t have quaternary structure since they are composed of only one polypeptide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the main determanant of higher levels of structure, and thus function, of a protein?

A

Primary structure

Note: a difference in a single amino acid in primary structure will effect higher levels.

Example: Sickle Cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the 3 parts that make up a nucleotide?

A
  1. Nitrogen-containing Base (AGCTU)
  2. Pentose (5-carbon) Sugar (RNA-ribose, DNA-deoxyribose)
  3. Phosphate group
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the difference between a nucloside and a nucleotide?

A

Nucleoside = one base + one sugar

Nuclotide = one nucloside + a phosphate group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How are nucleotides linked to each other?

A

A covalent bond between a phosphate group of one and the sugar group of the next.

This bond is called a phosphodiester bond. Creating a “sugar-phosphate” backbone, with bases sticking out the side.

The 5’ end has a phosphate group and the 3’ end has a hydroxyl group (OH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is DNA composed of and how is it oriented?

A

DNA is composed of two strands of nucleotides oriented in opposite directions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How are two strands of DNA held together?

A

By hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs.

A-T

G-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Sort DNA bases into purines and pyrimidines.

A

Purines: Adenine (A) and Guanine (G)

Pyrimidines: Thymine (T) and Cytosine (C)

A-T

G-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the primary purpose of DNA?

A

Information-containing molecule which is encoded in the sequences of bases (ATGC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the products of DNA replication?

A

1 DNA double helix produces 2 identical double helices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is RNA and how is it formed?

A

A nucleic acid that contains same information as DNA. Formed by transcription from one of the two strands of a DNA double helix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is RNA different from DNA?

A
  1. Sugars are ribose, not deoxyribose
  2. Uracil (U) is used instead of thymine
  3. RNA is single-stranded thus does not form double helices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the products of RNA transcription?

A

1 DNA double helix produces 1 DNA double helix + 1 Single stranded RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

A
  1. DNA can reproduce itself (replication)
  2. DNA can copy its information into RNA (transcription)
  3. RNA can specify a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide (translation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

For the bond between two carbohydrate monomers (monosaccarides), how is it bonded and what is the bond called.

A

A covalent bond called a glycosidic bond.

Two linked sugars are disaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some main functions of lipids?

A
  1. Energy source
  2. Cell membrane structure
  3. Key base components of important hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are fats (triglycerides) composed of?

A

Glycerol + 3 fatty acids bound by ester bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are phospholipids composed of?

A

Glycerol + 2 fatty acids, bound by ester bonds, + 1 phosphate containing compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How is mRNA translated into polypeptides?

A

Amino acids attached to tRNA land on mRNA and then attach to the growing polypeptide. This is mediated by a ribososme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are tiplet codons?

A

Sequences of 3 nucleotides that code for a specific amino acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe the relationship between a protein, polypeptide and amino acid?

A

Amino acids are the basic unit of proteins.
Amino acids linked together by a peptide bond forms a chain of amino acids called a polypeptide. When the amino acids from different parts of the chain interact with each other and form hydrogen bonds, the polypeptide chain takes on a unique shape, forming a protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Why are most cells so small?

A

Surace area (ability)-r2 / Volume (need)-r3

So as r increases, the need for new material becomes too great for the ability to supply it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Name 3 things microscopes do

A
  1. Magnify - make image larger
  2. Increase resolution - minimum distance two points can be seen as two distinct objects
  3. Increase contrast - brightness difference between object and background
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the difference between light microscopy and electron microscopy?

A

Light Microscopy uses beams of light : max resolution = 0.2 micro meters

Electron Microscopy uses beams of electrons: max resolution = 0.002 micro meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Name two types of light microscopy

A
  1. Brightfield LM - light passes through specimen
  2. Fluorescence - light striking specimen excites fluorescent molecules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Name two types of electron microscopy

A
  1. Scanning EM - electron beam energizes electrons on specimen surface
  2. Transmission EM - electrons pass through a thin secion of specimen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Name some common features of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells

A
  1. All cells bounded by a selectively permeable plasma membrane (phospholipid bilayer with proteins and molecules embedded)
  2. All cells contain cytosol
  3. All cells contain ribosomes made of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is cytoplasm made of?

A

Cytosol + particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Name 7 unique featurs of prokaryotic cells

A
  1. Very small: 1-10 micro meters
  2. Unicellular (but often found in groups)
  3. Various shapes: baccillus, coccus, and spirals
  4. No membrane bound organelles
  5. DNA is nucleoid region (not membrane-enclosed)
  6. Have flagella for movement and fimbriae (pili) for attachment
  7. Rigid cell wall outside plasma membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the main difference between cell wall of Bacteria and Archaea

A

Bacteria - cell wall contains peptidoglycan (lysozyme effective on)

Archaea - cell wall contains pseudopeptidoglycan (lysozyme not effective)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Name unique features of Eukaryotic cells

A
  1. Large 10-100 micro meters
  2. Contains organelles
  3. Contains cytoskeleton (microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules)
  4. Contains a nucleus surrounded by 2 phospholipid bilayers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a chromosome

A

Each DNA molecule is called a chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Define chromatin

A

A double-stranded DNA molecule (chromosome) wrapped around histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus?

A

Make ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What happens to DNA inside the nucleus?

A
  1. DNA replicated
  2. DNA transcribed into mRNA (which exits to the cytoplasm via nuclear pores)
  3. Ribosomes are made (in nucleolus) and exit to cytoplasm via nuclear pores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Rough ER (ribosomes) - Protein synthesis

Smooth ER - Lipid synthesis, carbohydrate metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the Golgi aparatus?

A

Proteins from ER are sent to golgi aparatus in vesicles for modification/ packaging/ and are sent elsewhere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are lysosomes?

A

Membrane-bound vesicles used to digest food/recycle old cell components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are some key characteristics of mitochondria?

A
  1. Perform cellular respiration for energy
  2. Contain their own DNA and ribosomes (divide independently)
  3. Contain outer and inner membrane

Note: Found in most all eukaryotes (INCLUDING PLANTS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are plastids?

A
  1. Only found in plant cells
  2. Have their own DNA and ribosomes (replicate independently)
    eg. chloroplasts, chromoplasts, amyloplasts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Name 3 motor proteins involved in movement in eukaryotic cells

A
  1. Myosin - single cells
  2. Kinesin - organelles
  3. Dynein - cilia/flagella (9+2 arrangment)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the extracellular material in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

Animal cells: Extracellular matrix (ECM)

Plant cells: Cell wall made of cellulose

Prokaryotes: rigid cell well (some bacteria have a capsule of polysaccharides)

74
Q

What is serial endosymbiosis theory?

A

The theory that mitochondria and plastids originated by endosymbiosis - when and ancestral eukaryote engulfed a prokaryote but did not digest it. Mitochondria first then plastids

75
Q

What protein do microtubules mostly consist of?

76
Q

What protein do microfilaments mostly consist of?

77
Q

What is the endomembrane system and how can it expain how eukaryotes evolved from prokaryotes?

A

Endomembrane system just means the different membranes (organelles) suspended in cytoplasm. It may have originated from inward folds of the plasma membrane of prokaryotes. Compartmentalization is favored for various chemical reactions to take place simultaneously.

78
Q

What are the 4 events that must occur in ALL types of cell division?

A
  1. A reproductive signal
  2. Replicate DNA
  3. Segregation
  4. Cytokinesis
79
Q

How to prokaryotes divide?

A

Binary fission - parent cell divides to from 2 genetically identical daughter cells

80
Q

Can prokaryotic organisms be multicellular?

81
Q

Can eukaryotic organisms be unicellular?

A

Yes but it is rare

82
Q

What is the result of Mitosis

A

A parent cell divides to form 2 genetically identical daughter cells

83
Q

What is the result of Meiosis?

A

A parent cell divides to form 4 genetically different daughter cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent.

84
Q

What is the reproductive signal to initiate binary fission?

A

Cell size which is controlled mainly by environment (food, temperature)

85
Q

How does DNA replication occur during binary fission?

A

Ori - where replication starts

Ter - where replication ends

At ori site, the two strands of double helix DNA are seperated and replicated eventually ending at the ter site.

86
Q

How does segregation occur during binary fission?

A

When DNA replication beings, the 2 ori sites get attached to opposite ends of the plasma membrane

87
Q

How does cytokinesis occur during binary fission?

A

After replication, plasma membrane pinches in and cell wall is secreted between 2 new cells

88
Q

Describe chromosomes before and after the S phase?

A

Before: 1 DNA molecule (1 chromosome)

After: 2 joined DNA molecules, or sister chromatids (1 chromosome)

89
Q

What are two important signaling molecules at checkpoints in the eukaryotic cell cycle?

A

Cyclin and Cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdk)

Cdk is always present but is inactive until cyclin binds to it, which allows for Mitosis.

90
Q

Define nucleosome

A

A “bead” on the chain of chromatin

91
Q

Define centromere

A

Where two sister chromatids are attached

92
Q

Define centrosome

A

A region that organizes microtubules

Contains a pair of centrioles composed of 9 sets of 3 microtubules each.

Note: After S phase, there are two centrosomes present

93
Q

What happens during Prophase?

A
  1. Chromatin condenses
  2. Nucleolus disappears
  3. Centrosomes form asters and mitotic spindle and move toward opposite sides
94
Q

What happens during Prometaphase?

A
  1. Nulcear envolope breaks down
  2. Kinetochores from centromeres interact with kinetochore microtubules

Note: There are kinetochore microtubules and nonkinetochore microtubules

95
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

Centromeres align on metaphase plate

96
Q

What happens during Anaphase?

A

Sister chromatids pulled toward opposite sides by kinetochore microtubules

97
Q

Telophase

A
  1. Nuclear envolop re-forms
  2. Chromosomes uncoil
  3. Spindle dissapears
  4. Cytokinesis begins
98
Q

How does cytokinesis differ between animal and plant cells?

A

Animal: A “contractile ring” of actin tightens due to myosin forming a cleavage furrow

Plant: Forms cell plate at midline

99
Q

What is the difference between the cell walls of plant and animal cells?

A

Animal: Non-rigid cell wall

Plant: Rigid cell wall

100
Q

How to interactions between motor proteins and cytoskeletal proteins facilitate movement?

A
  1. Myosin pulls on actin to make cells contract
  2. Kinesin attaches to organells and microtubules
  3. Dynein moves microtubules relative to each other in cilia/flagella
101
Q

What is asexual reproduction?

A

1 parents produces offspring that are genetically identical

102
Q

Somatic cells

A

Cells that make up the body of an organism and are NOT used for sexual reproduction. (eg. liver, heart)

Somatic cells contain two sets of homologous chromosomes - one maternal one paternal

103
Q

Define homologous chromosomes

A

Chromosomes that carry the same genes but may have different alleles (versions of that gene).

104
Q

Autosomes vs Sex chromosomes

A

Autosomes - chromosomes that have same set of genes

Sex chromosomes - may differ! X is different from Y

105
Q

Define locus

A

Position of a specific gene on a chromosome

106
Q

Diploid vs Haploid

A

Diploid: Total number of chromosomes (2n)

Haploid: Half the number of chromosomes (n)

107
Q

What is the Diplontic Life Cycle? (animals)

A
  1. Gametes (n) fertilize to make Zygote (2n)
  2. Zygote (2n) undergoes mitosis - forms multicellular organism (2n)
  3. Organism (2n) undergoes Meiosis to form gametes (n)

*The only haploid cells are gametes*

108
Q

What is the Haplontic Life Cycle? (fungi, protists)

A
  1. Gametes (n) fertilized to make diploid zigote (2n)
  2. Diploid zigote (2n) undergoes Meiosis to produce haploid cells (n)
  3. Haploid cells (n) undergo Mitosis forming a haploid unicellular or multicellular organism (n) and gametes (n)

*The only diploid cells are Zigote*

109
Q

What is the Alteration of Generations Life Cycle? (plants)

A
  1. Gametes (n) fertilized to make diploid zygote (2n)
  2. Diploid zygote (2n) undergoes mitosis to form a diploid multicellular sporophyte (2n)
  3. Sporophyte (2n) undergoes Meiosis to produce haploid spores (n)
  4. Spores (n) undergo Mitosis to form haploid multicellular gametophyte (n)
  5. Gametophyte (n) undergoes mitosis to produce gametes (n)
110
Q

What are the similarities and differences between Propahse (mitosis) and Prophase 1 (meiosis)?

A

Similarities: 1. chromosomes condense

  1. spindle forms
  2. nuclear envelope breaks
  3. kinetochores attach to spindle microtubules

Differences: Snyapsis and crossing over occurs

111
Q

What is the difference between synapsis and crossing over?

A

Synapsis: homologous pairs of chromosomes line up next to each other and physically attach via the “synaptonemal complex”

Crossing over: during synapsis, one paternal sister chromatid and one maternal sister chromatid break at same position and swap genetic information - this process is called recombination

112
Q

What is different between Metaphase and Metaphase I?

A

During metaphase (mitosis) - individual chromosomes (sister chromatids) line up

During metaphase I (meiosis) - homologous paris line up

113
Q

What is independent assortment?

A

Homologous pairs line up randomly on the metaphase plate during Metaphase I

114
Q

What is different between Anaphase (mitosis) and Anaphase I (meiosis)?

A

Anaphase - sister chromatids are pulled apart

Anaphase I - homologous chromosomes are pulled apart (sister chromatids remain attached)

115
Q

What is a nondisjunction?

A

An error in meiosis leading to aneuploidy - abnormal number of chromosomes

116
Q

Why is it extremely unlikely to yeild offspring identical to parents during sexual reproduction?

A
  1. Independent assorment during Meiosis I
  2. Crossing over during Meiosis I
  3. Random Fertilization
117
Q

What is random fertilization?

A

Sperm picks a random egg

Sperm (223 combinations) X Egg (223 combinations) = 70 trillion unique combinations

118
Q

What is chiasma?

A

The “crosses” formed when non-sister chromatids overlap during crossing over

119
Q

Why is genetic variation, produced by sexual reproduction, important for the survival of a given population?

A

Because the environment is not stable over time so a population must change over time in order to survive

Biology 211 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions