MIDTERM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes someone with Cushing’s Syndrome?
It may manifest as excitability, difficulty falling asleep, and low blood pressure
It may manifest as osteoporosis in someone who takes dexamethasone 0.75mg per day for 7 days
It may manifest with fat deposits in the neck area along with high blood sugar
It may manifest in someone who received a prescription for prednisone 15mg per day for 1 week to help with otitis media
It may manifest with a rounded face and hyponatremia

A

It may manifest with fat deposits in the neck area along with high blood sugar

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2
Q

The adrenal glands will typically produce around 20mg of cortisol per day. What would be the equivalent amount if someone needed to replace this amount with a pharmacologic agent?
Triamcinolone 2.5mg
Methylprednisolone 5mg
Cortisone 20mg
Prednisone 5mg
Dexamethasone 7.5mg

A

Prednisone 5mg

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3
Q

Which of the following best describes the actions of insulin?
It causes decreased serum glucose and increased gluconeogenesis
It is released as a result of low glucagon levels and causes glycogenesis
It causes increased protein synthesis and increased blood glucose levels
It causes decreased gluconeogenesis and decreased glucagon secretion
It is released as a result of low blood glucose and excess cortisol

A

It causes decreased gluconeogenesis and decreased glucagon secretion

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4
Q

Which of the following statements about potency and HPA-axis suppression of corticosteroids is TRUE?
Cortisone 25mg daily for 4 weeks would be more likely to cause HPA-axis suppression than betamethasone 1mg daily for weeks
The duration of corticosteroid use is predictive of HPA-axis suppression rather than the dose
Prednisone 10mg twice daily is more potent than prednisone 20 mg once daily
Betamethasone has more sodium-retaining potency than prednisone
A topical corticosteroid suppresses the HPA-axis to a greater extent than an oral corticosteroid

A

Prednisone 10mg twice daily is more potent than prednisone 20 mg once daily

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5
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the thioamides?
They catalyze the coupling reaction of mono-iodotyrosine and di-iodotyrosine
They prevent iodine from binding to tyrosine
They stimulate conversion of T3 –> T4 in peripheral tissues
They increase metabolism of tyrosine
All of these statements are involved in the mechanism of action of the thioamides

A

They prevent iodine from binding to tyrosine

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6
Q

Which of the following patient factors would NOT be a determinant in deciding on a starting dose for Levothyroxine?
History of osteoporosis
All of these factors should be taken into account when choosing a starting levothyroxine dose
Age
Duration and severity of hypothyroidism
History of cardiovascular disease

A

History of osteoporosis

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7
Q

Which of the following is a correct description of the feedback loop and production of the thyroid hormones?
Iodine excess or deficiency does not influence production of T3 or T4
T4 causes release of thyrotropin releasing hormone, whereas T3 causes inhibition of thyrotropin releasing hormone
Insufficient circulating T3 and T4 will stimulate release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the pituitary gland
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone causes increased uptake iodine to increase production of T3 and T4
The thyroid mostly produces T3; creation of T4 is predominately through conversion of T3 to T4 in the kidney and liver.

A

Insufficient circulating T3 and T4 will stimulate release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the pituitary gland

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8
Q

Which of the following is a correct description of how hormones are transported in the blood?
A hormone in its free, unbound form, is not able to bind to a target receptor
Up-regulation of a hormone receptor is a homeostatic mechanism that occurs when there is too much hormone activity
When a hormone is protein-bound, the hormone’s potency is significantly increased
Protein binding of a hormone allows for a reservoir to form, allowing for fine control over circulating levels
A protein-bound hormone will have a decreased half-life

A

Protein binding of a hormone allows for a reservoir to form, allowing for fine control over circulating levels

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9
Q

The benefits of inhaled corticosteroids in the treatment of asthma include all of the following EXCEPT:
Reducing asthma mortality
Reducing frequency and severity of asthma attacks
Reducing inflammation
Reducing bronchoconstriction
Reducing airway remodelling

A

Reducing bronchoconstriction

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10
Q

What would happen to the VQ ratio if there was an obstructed airway?
The VQ ratio would decrease
The VQ ratio would increase
The VQ ratio would stay the same

A

The VQ ratio would decrease

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11
Q

Which structure is INCORRECTLY matched with its function?
The pleural cavity allows for expansion and contraction of the lungs during breathing
The bronchial vessels carry deoxygenated blood back to the lungs for gas exchange
Alveolar macrophages engulf foreign particles in lungs like dust, bacterial, carbon, and remove them
The bronchi can constrict or dilate to modify airflow
The larynx helps protect the lungs by preventing food and fluid from entering the lungs

A

The bronchial vessels carry deoxygenated blood back to the lungs for gas exchange

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12
Q

Side effects of oral corticosteroids include all EXCEPT:
Increased glucose levels
Osteoporosis
Oral thrush
Adrenal suppression

A

Oral thrush

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13
Q

A patient has the following arterial blood gases:
PH 7.30 (7.35-7.45), CO2 48 mmHg (35-45 mmHg), HCO3 29 mmol/L(22-26mmol/L)
Which best describes the situation?
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis

A

Respiratory acidosis

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14
Q

Based on the various pathological process that cause asthma, which of the following treatments would NOT be effective at targeting these processes which cause asthma symptoms?
Antihistamines
Corticosteroids
Leukotriene receptor agonist
An immunoglobulin E (IgE) inhibitor

A

Leukotriene receptor agonist

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15
Q

Side effects of beta-adrenergic agents include all EXCEPT:
Drowsiness
Dizziness
Tremors
Tachycardia

A

Drowsiness

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16
Q

Obstructive lung disease is characterized by:
A normal FEV1/FCV and low FCV
A low FEV1/FVC and low FVC
A normal FEV1/FCV and normal FCV
A low FEV1/FCV and normal FVC

A

A low FEV1/FCV and normal FVC

17
Q

Pembrolizumab is a monoclonal antibody against:
PD-L1
Her2
EGFR
ER
PD-1

A

PD-1

18
Q

T-DM1 is a conjugate drug formed between:
bevacizumab and carboplatin
trastuzumab and emtansine
pertuzumab and emtansine
trastuzumab and imatinib
pembrolizumab and gefitinib

A

trastuzumab and emtansine

19
Q

What is MOA for olaparib?
Inhibit the mitotic spindle formation
Block DNA repair
Block homodimerization of Her2 receptor
Alkylate DNA molecules
Intercalate DNA molecules

A

Block DNA repair

20
Q

Which type of immune response is attenuated if PD-L1 binds to PD-1?
Innate immune response by macrophages
None of the listed
Adaptive immune response by B cells
Adaptive immune response by T cells
Innate immune response by natural killer cells

A

Adaptive immune response by T cells

21
Q

What might be the consequence from a mutation in the protooncogene?
The protooncogene loses its normal functions.
The protooncogene is transformed into an oncogene.
The protooncogene may still encode the same protein.
The protooncogene maintains its normal function.
All of listed events are possible.

A

All of listed events are possible.

22
Q

Which of the following descriptions is correct for tumor suppressor gene “two hits” theory?
The chance of developing cancer is significantly increased when both copies of a tumor suppressor gene are damaged.
Once a protooncogene is transformed into an oncogene, it is easier for a tumor suppressor gene to be lost.
As long one copy of a tumor suppressor gene is damaged, it is much easier for second copy to be damaged.
Protooncogenes and tumor suppressor genes are usually working together during carcinogenesis.
The damage of a tumor suppressor gene is always associated with the transformation of a protooncogene.

A

The chance of developing cancer is significantly increased when both copies of a tumor suppressor gene are damaged.

23
Q

What is the MOA for bortezomib?
It inhibits PARP to block DNA repair.
It inhibits cell growth mediated by Her2 receptor.
It inhibits the tyrosine kinase domain of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR).
It inhibits the dimerization between Her2 and Her 3 receptors.
It inhibits proteosome-mediated degradation of pro-apoptotic factors.

A

It inhibits proteosome-mediated degradation of pro-apoptotic factors.

24
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the immune system?
Spleen
Thymus
Skin
Kidney
Bone marrow

A

Kidney

25
Q

Which radiation therapy uses the technique of dividing a big radiation beam into many beamlets?
Electron radiation therapy
Proton radiation therapy
3D conformal radiation therapy
Brachytherapy
Intensity-modulated radiotherapy

A

Intensity-modulated radiotherapy

26
Q

Which of the following is not a hallmark of malignant tumor?
Sustained angiogenesis
Loss of cell growth signals
Invade surrounding organs
Immortality
Resistant to cell apoptosis

A

Loss of cell growth signals

27
Q

Which of the following is true for busulfan?
It alkylates guanines and causes inter-cross link of DNA molecules.
It intercalates DNA molecules.
It inhibits DNA repair.
It is an antimetabolite for guanine.
It inhibits the formation of mitotic spindle.

A

It alkylates guanines and causes inter-cross link of DNA molecules.

28
Q

PARP inhibitors are used to treat cancers because:
they inhibit DNA repair in cancer cells.
they inhibit protein tyrosine kinases in cancer cells.
none of above.
they block the dimerization of HER2 receptors.
they bind to vascular endothelial growth factor and inhibit cancer metastasis.

A

they inhibit DNA repair in cancer cells.

29
Q

The transformation of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes may be due to:
chromosomal rearrangement
gene amplification
insertion of viral oncogene
point mutation
all of above

A

all of above

30
Q

Which of the following statements is true for the innate immune system?
Innate immune system is mainly formed by T cells and B cells.
Innate immune system recognizes specific antigens.
It normally takes about 4-7 days for the innate immune system to respond.
Innate immune system releases cytokines upon stimulation by T cells.
Response from the innate immune system is immediate.

A

Response from the innate immune system is immediate.