Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PATH > Middy 3 > Flashcards

Middy 3 Flashcards

1
Q

an important early event in repair by scarring is:

A

debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

all of the following are potential complications of healing by second intention EXCEPT…
- inadequate development of granulation tissue
- increased risk of infection
- loss of functional tissue/organ cell types

A

inadequate development of granulation tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

arthropods can act as vectors for which of the following…
- viral diseases
- protozoal diseases
- both of the above

A

both of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

amyloid depositions seen in a wide variety of body tissues in association with chronic inflammatory diseases are termed:

A

reactive amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

amyloid deposition in renal glomeruli is associated with:

A

protein loss in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Amyloid is best defined as:

A

beta-plated fibrillar protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

angiogenesis is the process of new blood vessel formation, the process of capillary sprouting is initiated by:

A

the VEGF family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

an example of chronic viral infection, which causes necrosis and subsequent fibrosis over a long period is:

A

hepatitis C virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

bacteremia is diagnosed by…

A

blood culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

bacteria adhesins are…

A

molecules that bind bacteria in host cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

bacteremia in young children and animals most often leads to bacterial seeding of the…

A

growth plates (epiphyses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cytopathic viruses are those…

A

whose replication causes cell lysis or lethal changes in cell function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

complete the following sentence correctly: systemic fungal diseases…

A

are a particular problem in AIDS patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

clinically apparent infectious disease develops when the infectious organism:

A

survives, multiplies and produces tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cells which are reversibly post-mitotic and can divide if necessary to allow regeneration are:

A

parenchymal cells of the liver kidney and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

caseous necrosis in granulomas caused by microorganisms is related to…

A

delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

chronic suppurative inflammation is characterized by…

A

necrosis, pus formation, fibrosis and mononuclear cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

examples of stable cells, which can regenerate following necrosis are:

A

hepatocytes (liver parenchymal cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

examples of labile cells, which maintain their ability to actively divide throughout life are:

A

intestinal epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

enterotoxins attach to gut mucosal cell receptors causing…
- secretory diarrhea
- injury to enterocytes
- both of the above

A

both of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

epithelial cells have…

A

an increased ability to secrete lysozyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

facultative intracellular organisms grow…

A

both inside and outside cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

fungi causes tissue injury primarily by:

A

inducing delayed type hypersensitivity responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or false: granulation tissue has a role in healing by first intention

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

granulation tissue is composed of:

A

highly vascular immature connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

granulation tissue refers to which of the following:

A

fibrovascular tissue which has a role in healing of large wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

granulation tissue is more prominent in:

A

wound healing by second intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

granulomatous inflammation is characterized by:

A

aggregation of activated (epithelioid) macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

true or false: herpesviruses frequently cause persistent (chronic) viral infections

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

healing by second intention differs from healing by first intention in that:

A

healing by first intention is characterized by faster healing due to apposition (positioning) of tissue edges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

true or false: high levels of passively acquired maternal antibodies can prevent a primary immune response to vaccination

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

in toxin-type food poisoning…

A

bacteria multiply and produce toxin in food which is then ingested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

true or false: in prion-related disease, there is no inflammatory response to the agent

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

in prion-related spongiform encephalopathies, disease is related to:

A

accumulation of large amounts of abnormal prion protein in the brain tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

true or false: many of the normal or commensal bacteria help prevent colonization by more virulent organisms

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

true or false: many of the helminth infections cause little or no signs of of disease

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

most organisms gain access to the body vi…

A

natural passages

38
Q

non-granulomatous chronic inflammation is characterized by sensitized lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages, together with:

A

areas of necrosis and fibrosis

39
Q

non-granulomatous chronic inflammation is seen with:

A

chronic viral infections

40
Q

true or false: obligate intracellular pathogens induce a greater immune response than inflammatory response

A

true

41
Q

osteomyelitis is a classic example of:

A

chronic suppurative inflammation

42
Q

persistent (chronic) viral infection (such as Hepatitis B virus) cause

A

slow cell necrosis over an extended time

43
Q

parasitic diseases lead to tissue reactions characterized by:

A

eosinophils

44
Q

true or false: persistence of an antigen or injurious stimulus will cause chronic inflammation to develop

A

True

45
Q

quiescent cells enter the cell cycle phase from which phase?

A

G0

46
Q

rickettsial diseases such as typhus and Rocky Mountain spotted fever are transmitted by:

A

arthropod vectors

47
Q

repair by proliferation of connective tissue is the definition of

A

fibrosis or scarring

48
Q

true or false: second intention healing occurs when a wound is surgically debrided and sutured closed

A

False

49
Q

scarring is best defined as…

A

an area of dense collagen, due to healing by fibrosis

50
Q

true or false: suppuration is particularly likely to occur when anatomic factors inhibit drainage and the resolution of acute inflammation

A

true

51
Q

subclinical infection is defined as..

A

the development of an immune response, without clinically apparent disease

52
Q

septicaemia is defined as

A

multiplying bacteria and their toxins in blood

53
Q

suppurative inflammation is characterized by

A

bacterial infections

54
Q

the antiviral effects of cytokine, interferon, are due to

A

interference with viral translation (stops viral)

55
Q

the “scab” seen in association with skin wounds consists of:

A

clotted blood and some inflammatory cells

56
Q

the primary motivators for cell replication are the

A

cyclins

57
Q

the early contraction occurring in scar maturation is caused by:

A

contraction of actomyosin filaments in certain fibroblasts

58
Q

the finding of granulomatous inflammation in association with eosinophils in tissue would be most consistent with presence of

A

parasitic infection

59
Q

the proportion of a population with a particular disease that die from the disease is called:

A

case fatality

60
Q

the secretion of locally acting enzymes by certain bacteria allows:

A

tissue invasion

61
Q

true or false: the host’s inflammatory and immune response to the virus may cause some of the cellular and tissue injury associated with viral infection

A

true

62
Q

the acute response to viruses is characterized by:

A

lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages

63
Q

the prions differ from viruses because they:

A

lack nucleic acids

64
Q

the villi on the surface of gram-negative rods and cocci serve to:

A

mediate adherence of bacteria to host cells

65
Q

the viruses are:

A

obligate intracellular organisms

66
Q

the recurrent spikes of fever and chills seen in malaria relate to:

A

the release of parasitic forms from red blood cells

67
Q

true or false: the presence of an organism in association with the presence of disease is proof of causation

A

false

68
Q

the incidence of fungal infections is favoured by:
- immunosuppression (stress hormones)
- systemic use of antibiotics
- both

A

both

69
Q

the body response to rickettsia and chlamydia is characterized by:

A

mononuclear cells

70
Q

the lipopolysaccharide components of cell walls of gram negative bacteria, which are released into the blood of the host following bacterial death and lysis are termed…

A

endotoxins

71
Q

the role of T cells in granulomatous inflammation is to:

A

produce lymphocytokines which inhibit macrophage migration

72
Q

the most common cause of osteomyelitis is

A

bacterial seeding from the blood

73
Q

the effect of endotoxins on small blood vessels leads to

A

vasodilation and DIC

74
Q

tuberculosis is characterized by

A

granulomatous inflammation in lungs or other tissues

75
Q

the cell cycle has mechanisms to detect DNA or chromosomal damage. The G1/S checkpoint…

A

monitors the integrity of DNA before irreversibly committing to DNA replication

76
Q

the coagulase enzyme produced by staphylococcus aureus is an example of a:

A

locally acting enzyme

77
Q

viruses which damage the epithelial cells of the upper airways also injure cilia, and thus adversely affect ciliary clearance machinery. This leads to:

A

increased susceptibility to secondary bacterial infections

78
Q

which term is most appropriate for a formation of abnormal nodular masses of collagen that occasionally occur as a result of skin wounds?

A

keloid

79
Q

which of the following represents the appropriate stepwise progression of angiogenesis

A
  1. vasodilation
  2. Endothelial cell migration
  3. endothelial cell proliferation
  4. Remodelling into capillary tubes
  5. recruitment of periendothelial cells
80
Q

which of the following wounds is most likely to regenerate entirely

A

extensive necrosis of surface enterocytes (intestinal mucosal lining)

81
Q

which of the following changes in a complete blood count would be suggestive of a parasitic infection

A

eosinophilia

82
Q

when normal resident bacterial flora cause disease under certain conditions, it is termed:

A

opprotunistic infection

83
Q

which of the following statements about protozoal infections is false:

A

infection can be readily managed with appropriate medications

84
Q

which of the following about protozoal disease is false

A

they are usually opportunistic infections

85
Q

when inflammation and necrosis destroy permanent cells such as neurones in the brain tissue, the result is

A

scar tissue

86
Q

which of the following statements about disease caused by helminths is false?

A

there is often an associated neutrophilia

87
Q

when a micro-organism invades a tissue, the most likely outcome is that the invader will:

A

die due to both nonspecific and specific infections

88
Q

which of the following statements about fungal diseases is false?

A

the widespread use of antibiotics has decreased fungal disease

89
Q

which of the following is not an adverse effect caused by viruses

A

release of viral toxins

90
Q

which of the following represents the end stage of wound repair

A

dominance of fibrocytes and abundant collagen

91
Q

which of the following organ/cell types are most likely to heal by scarring

A

myocardial cells

PATH (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions