MID Ia Flashcards
1
Q
what percent of bugs can be cultured?
A
1.00%
2
Q
DNA hybridization (species), 16S rRNA sequencing (for PCR primers, builds phylogenetic trees)
A
genotyping/phylogenetic
3
Q
pulsed field gel electrophoresis, restriction fragment length polymorphism
A
molecular subtyping
4
Q
thick peptidoglycan layer, purple
A
Gram +
5
Q
thin peptidoglycan layer, red
A
Gram -
6
Q
intracellular bacteria, won’t stain
A
chlamydia, rickettsia
7
Q
really small, won’t stain
A
mycoplasma, legionella, helicobacter
8
Q
acid fast (mycolic acid repels CV+ crystal violet ions) won’t stain
A
mycobacteria (TB) nocardia
9
Q
have no outer membrane, make spores
A
gram positive
10
Q
have outer membrane with LPS, no spores
A
gram negative
11
Q
precursor made in cytoplasm, transferred to membrane pivot lipid (bactoprenol) via nylcoetide, chains crosslinked via transpepsidases
A
peptidoglycan synthesis
12
Q
blood, bladder, CNS, lower respiratory tract, sinuses
A
normally sterile
13
Q
typical exogenous bacteria: in water
A
legionella, cholera
14
Q
typical exogenous bacteria: air/fomites
A
TB, anthrax
15
Q
typical exogenous bacteria: food
A
salmonella, e. coli
16
Q
typical exogenous bacteria: insects/animals
A
borrelia, rickettsia
17
Q
do bacteria have recessive traits?
A
no, they are haploid
18
Q
conjugation is mostly performed by
A
gram positives
19
Q
F+ containing plasmid that only
A
sends unidirectionally
20
Q
CTX phage, cholerae toxin gene product, cholera
A
vibrio cholerae bacteria
21
Q
lamba phage, shigalike toxin gene product, hemorrhagic diarrhea
A
E. coli bacteria
22
Q
clostridial phage, botulinum toxin, botulism food poisoning
A
clostridium botulinum
23
Q
corynephage beta, diphtheria toxin, diphtheria
A
corynebacterium diphtheria
24
Q
T12 phage, erythrogenic toxins, scarlet fever
A
strep pyogenes
25
direct binder of TLR-5 and cmacrophages on outside, inflammasome on the inside. Increases virulence
flagella. Can be modified to not bind TLR
26
cleaves pro-caspase 1, leading to inflammation, and (perhaps) apoptosis
inflammasome
27
upregulates Nf-kB via TLR-4, different TLR-4 polymorphisms lead to different degrees of response
LPS
28
cause rho/ras GTPase cascades that alter membrane permeability and allow invasion
type III secretory system (injectosome)
29
close binding of many bacteria and laying down extracellular matrix
biofilm
30
common biofilm on catheters
pseudomonas
31
common biofilm on heart valves
s.epidermidis
32
staph is gram
positive cocci in clusters
33
staph grows in this shape
in clusters
34
this virulence factor in staph binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement activation and phagocytosis
protein A
35
staph commonly colonizes
the nose
36
causes inflammatory disease: skin infection, organ abscesses, pneumona (after influenza virus) endocarditis, osteomyelitis
staph
37
TSS, scalded skin syndrome, rapid onset food poisoning
Toxin-mediated disease from staph
38
resistant to methicillin and nafcillin because of altered penicillin binding protein
MRSA
39
due to superantigen that binds MHCII and T-cell receptor, results in polyclonal T cell activation: fever, vomiting, desquamation, shock, organ failure
TSS
40
due to ingestion of pre-formed toxin, short incubation (2-6 hours), enterotoxin in heat stable, not destroyed by cooking
S. aureus food poisoning
41
all staph makes ____, bad staph (aureus) makes ____as well
catalase, coagulase and toxins
42
infects prosethetic devices and IV catheters with biofilm, contaminates cultures
s. epidermidis
43
s. epidermidis is sensitive to
novobiocin
44
second most common cause of uncomplicated UTI in women
s. saphrophyticus
45
s. saphrophyticus is resistant to
novobiocin
46
s. pneumonia is gram
positive,
47
s. pneumoniae is shaped like
Lancet-shaped gram positive diplococci
48
s. pneumoniae is the most common cause of
MOPS: menigitis, otitis media (in children), Pneumonia, Sinusitis
49
s. pneumoniae MOPS are
Most Optochin Sensitive
50
associated with rusty sputum, sepsis in sickle cell anemia and splenectomy
s. pneumoniae
51
s. pneumoniae is not virulent without
capsule (and IgA protease?)
52
alpha hemolytic
strep pneumoniae, viridans group
53
cause dental caries, subacute bacterial endocarditis at damaged valves
viridans group streptococci
54
is viridans group strep optochin sensitive?
no, they live in the mouth because they are not afraid of-the-chin
55
causes pyogenics: pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo
strep pyogenes
56
causes toxigenics: scarlet fever, toxic shock-like syndrome, necrotizing fasciitis
strep pyogenes
57
causes immunologics: rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis
strep pyogenes
58
is strep pyogenes bacitracin resistant?
nope! Pyogenes is bacitracin sensitive
59
Antibodies to M protein may enhance defense against ____ but lead to ____
strep pyogenes, rheumatic fever
60
ASO titer detects
recent s. pyogenes infection
61
criteria for rheumatic fever
Joints (polyarthritis) Oheart (carditis) Nodules (subcutaneous) Erythema marginatum Sydenham chorea
62
Impetigo more commonly proceeds
glomerulonephritis than pharyngitis
63
scarlet rash with sandpaper texture, strawberry tongue, circumoral pallor
scarlet fever
64
is group B strep bacitracin resistant?
yep
65
beta hemolytic
group A and B strep, listeria, staph aureus
66
moms with strep B colonized vaginas receive
prophylactic penicillin (Group B for Babies)
67
produced by strep B, enlarges the area of hemolysis formed by s. aureus
CAMP
68
VRE
Vancomycin-resistant enterococci, important cause of nosocomial infections
69
colonizes the gut, can cause bacteremia in and subacute endocarditis in colon cancer patients
strep bovis (group D strep). “Bovis in the blood, Cancer in the colon”
70
Beta-hemolytic, catalase and coagulase positive
staph aureus
71
Beta-hemolytic, catalase negative and bacitracin sensitive
s. pyogenes
72
Beta-hemolytic, catalase negative and bacitracin resistant
s, agalactiae
73
Beta-hemolytic, tumbles, meningitis in newborns, unpasteurized milk products
listeria monocytogenes
74
forms clear area on blood agar
Beta-hemolytics
75
form green ring on blood agar
alpha hemolytics
76
Alpha-hemolytic, catalase negative and optochin sensitive
strep pneumoniae
77
Alpha-hemolytic, catalase negative and optochin resistant
viridans group streptococci
78
Novobiocin and Staph
NO StRESs: saprophyticus is resistance, epidermidis is sensitive
79
Streptococci and Optochin
OVRPS: viridans is resistant, pneumonia is sensitve
80
Streptococci and Bacitracin
B-BRAS: group B are resistant, group A are sensitive
81
endocarditis: most likely bugs
staph aureus, coag (-) staph, viridans strep, enterococcus
82
endocarditis: after dental procedure
viridans strep, HACEK
83
endocarditis: early complication from prosthetic valve
Coag (-) staph, S. aureus
84
endocarditis: late complication from prosthetic valve
Coag (-) staph, viridans strep
85
endocarditis: GI or GU source
enterococci, strep bovis (means colon cancer)
86
endocarditis: Nosocomial
s. aureus (+MRSA), G(-) bacteria, candida
87
endocarditis: Duke major criteria
two separate cultures positive for typical organism, persistent bacteremia with any organ, evidence of endocardial involvement on echo
88
endocarditis: Duke minor criteria
risk factors, fever, septic emboli, infarcs, janeway leasions, splinter hemorrhages, Roth spots, Osler's nodes
89
endocarditis definite diagnosis: 1. confirmation of vegetation or emboli, or 2.
2 major criteria, 1 major plus three minor, or 5 minor criteria
90
1 major, 1 major 1 minor, or 3 minor Duke criteria
possible diagnosis of infective endocarditis
91
prosthetic valve, congential heart disease, previous diagnosis of endocarditis, cardiac transplant with valvulopathy, dental procedures where gums are manipulated, procedures in respiratory tract
prophylaxis for infective endocarditis
92
most positive organisms in sepsis
gram positives
93
SIRS: temp
>100.4 or <96.8
94
SIRS: HR
>90
95
SIRS: RR or pCO2
RR>20 or pCO2<32mmHg
96
SIRS: WBC
WBC>12K or 10% bands
97
2 SIRS criteria + infection (suspected)
sepsis
98
Sepsis + organ hypoperfusion
severe sepsis
99
lactic acidosis, high Cr, low protein C, low platelets, high D dimer, jaundice
signs of organ involvement in sepsis
100
sever sepsis, hypotension despite resuscitation, SBP40
septic shock
101
with gram negatives, ____ start sepsis by triggering TNFs, with gram positives, ____
LPS, teichoic acid (endotoxins)
102
exotoxins implicated in sepsis
superantigens from s. aureus, and strep pyogens (strep A)
103
K flows out of cells, hyperpolarizes cell, causes vasodilation and increased lactate
activation of ATP sensitive K channels (sepsis)
104
increased NO causes vasodilation
activation of NO (sepsis)
105
vasopressin increased in early sepsis and then depletes, leading to vasodilation
fact!
106
Pulse bounding (high CO), skin warm
early sepsis
107
pulse thready (CO down), skin cold, urine output way down (oliguria), low pH, high lactate
late sepsis
108
blood cultures before antibiotics, antibiotics within ___ hours in ED, ____ & ____ if fluids don't bring up BP, increase lactate ordering
3 (1 on the floor), vasopressin and norepinephrine (sepsis bundle)
109
normal colonic flora, penicillin resistant, cause UTI, biliary tract infections, and subacute endocarditis (after GI/GU procedures)
Enterococci (group D strep)
110
Who has T3SS (injectosome)?
Some gram negatives: Shigella (causes bacillary dysentery), Salmonella (typhoid fever), Escherichia coli (food poisoning), Vibrio (gastroenteritis and diarrhea), Burkholderia (glanders), Yersinia (plague), Chlamydia (sexually transmitted disease), Pseudomonas (infects humans, animals and plants)
