Microbiology-Parasitology Flashcards by Jehan Salapuddin

Jaindice, bleeding, uremia

Weil syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Test for monitoring treatment of sypholos and test of cure

RPR, VDRL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What part is usually affected in aortitis caused by syphilis?

Vasa vasorum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Seen in secondary syphilis

Condylomata lata

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Test for CNS syphilis

VDRL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Causative agent for Pinta

Treponema carateum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Gram-neg, causes skin and bone infections in human bites

Eikenella corrodens

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cat scratch fever

Bartonella henselae

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cellulitis after bitten by a cat. What is the most likely dominant organism

Pasteurella multocida

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Vector of Y. Pestis

Oriental rat flea (yeye the rat flea)
Xenopsylla cheopsis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Safety pin appearance, gram-neg rod; sudden fever, chills, multiple painful lymph nodes

Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Reservoir of F. Tularensis

Rabbits (francis the rabbit!)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Aerobic, Gram-neg bacillus, MDR and commonly associated with hospital environment and hospitalized patients

Acinetobacter baumanii

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Mechanism of action of exotoxin A of P. Aeruginosa

Tissue necrosis and inactivation of elongation factor 2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Etiologic agent of soft tissue infection on burn patients

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

29 yo female, recurrent UTI, nephrolithiasis; gram negative rods urease positive with swarming motility. What is the etiology?

Proteus mirabilis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Struvite stones formed by Proteus mirabilis composition

Magnesium-ammonium-phosphate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

59 yo, alcoholic male, productive cough with mucoid bloody sputum. Large capsules in gram stain

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cancers associated with H.pylori

Gastric carcinoma
MALT lymphomas

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Urease positive bacteria

Proteus mirabilis
Klebsiella pneumoniae
H.pylori
Ureaplasma urealyticum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Triple therapy for H.pylori

Amoxicillin
Clarithromycin
PPI

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Small, motile, non-spore forming with microarrophilic bacilli associated with GBS

Campylobacter jejuni
(GB jejuni)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

female, grayish vaginal discharge, stippled epithelial cells on wet mount

Bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Gram-neg rod associated with painful genital ulcers

Haemophilus ducreyi

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

DOC for rikettsial infections

Doxycycline

Drug contraindicated in Rikettsia because they stimulate Rikettsial growth

Sulfonamides

A type of rikketsial disease that does not present with fever or rash, has chronic onset and highest mortality

Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)

Types of Chlamydia trachomatis associated with lymphogranuloma venereum

Types L1-L3

Types of C.trachomatis that causes genital tract infections and associated with Reiter syndrome

Types D-K

Types of C.trachomatis associated with trachoma

Types A-C

Treatment for Chlamydia

Doxycycline 100mg BID x 7 days

22 yo, sexually active female with unilateral painful inguinal lymphadenopathy. Extensive enlargement of chains of nodes above and below the inguinal ligament.

Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3 (Lymphograneuloma venereum)

Round to oval cytoplasmic inclusion bodies near nuclei of conjunctival epithelial cells in trachoma

Halberstadter-Prowazek inclusion

MCC of atypical pneumonia, this bacteria has sterol in membrane and can cause to form cold agglutinins

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

DOC for erythema nodosum leprosum

Thalidomide

M.leprae can be cultured using

Mouse foot pad or in armadillo

Dx tool for latent TB not affected by prior BCG vax or infection with nontb mycobacteria

Interferon gamma release assays (IGRAs)

Pathognomonic finding of miliary tb

Choroidal tubercles

MC site of extraPTB

Lymph node (scrofula)

DNA viruses

Hepadnaviridae Herpes Adeno Pox Parvo Polyoma Papillomaviridae

All DNA viruses have double-stranded except

parvovirus

All DNA viruses have linear DNA except

Papilloma Polyoma Hepadna

All DNA viruses are icosahedral and replicates in the nucleus except

Poxvirus

DNA virus that causes aplastic anemia in sickle cell anemic patients

Parvovirus

Bright red macules on cheeks with lacy reticulated erythema over extremities

Erythema infectiosum (5th disease)

Histopath finding in adenovirus

Cowdry type B intranuclear inclusions

DNA virus that can cause hemorrhagic cystitis

Adenovirus

Most common viral STD worldwide

Human papilloma virus

HPV gene virus that Inhibits p53 gene

Inhibits Rb gene in HPV

Types of HPV strain associated with cervical cancer

HOC 16,18, 31, 33

HPV strain causing condyloma acuminata

6, 11

HPV strains in Gardasil vaccine (quadrivalent)

6,11,16,18

Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis in kidney transplant patients

Bk polyoma virus (Bad Kidney)

Site of latency of HSV-1

Trigeminal ganglia

Site of latency of HSV 2

Lumbosacral ganglia

Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis

HSV 1

Complication of VZV involving geniculate region causing facial paralysis

Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

28 year old pregnant with painful vesicles on genitalia. What positive diagnostic test would result to congenital anomalies risk?

Tzanck smear (varicella, herpes simplex)

What is the expected positive result in tzanck smear?

Giant multinucleated cells

Vesicular centrifugal rash, dewdrop on a rose petal

Varicella

Most common viral cause of congenital abnormalities

Cytomegalovirus

Owl's eye nuclear inclusionz

Cytomegalovirus

Treatment of choice for cytomegalovirus

Ganciclovir

Atypical cells in infectious mononucleosis

Downey cells

Malignancies associated with EBV

Burkitt lymphoma B-cell lymphoma Nasopharyngeal Hairy leukoplakia CNS lymphoma

Erythematous papules on soft palate and base of uvula on HHV 6 patients

Nagayama spots

HHV8 malignancy

Kaposi sarcoma

Papular skin lesion with umbilicated center with intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions, 6 yo

Molluscum contagiosum (henderson-paterson bodies)

Only DNA virus that produces DNA by reverse transcription with mRNA

hepa b virus

Most specific marker for acute HBV infection

IgM anti HBcAg

Marker for hepa b cure

Anti-HBsAg

Very infective hepa b marker

HBeAg

1st vaccine to prevent cancer

Hepatitis B virus vaccine

40 yo, grayish vaginal discharge, wet mount showed stippled epithelial cells

Bacterial vaginosis

Gram-neg rod, painful genital ulcers

Haemophilus ducreyi

All viruses are haploid except

Retrovirus

All RNA viruses have SSRNA except

Reovirus

All RNA viruses replicate in cytoplasm except

Influenza and retrovirus

Virus replicating in motor neurons in anterior horn of spinal cord causing paralysis

Poliovirus

Route of polio sabin vaccine

Oral

Most common viral cause of myocarditis and pericarditis

Coxsackie virus

8yo, tender vesicles on oropharynx, high fever, sore throat, odynophagia.

Coxsackie A virus

Rhinoviruses do not cause gastroenteritis. Why?

Acid-labile

Most common cause of common colds

Rhinovirus

Hepa virus with high mortality in pregnant

Hepatitis E

Hepa virus transmitted fecal-orally

Hepa A and E

Most common cause of viral diarrhea in adults

Norwalk virus

Gold standard for diagnosing HIV

Western blot analysis