Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

National Boards Part I > Microbiology (Joe) > Flashcards

Microbiology (Joe) Flashcards

Microbiology (Joe)

1
Q

Neisseriaceae

A

Gram ( - ) Cocci

Genus: Neisseria

coffee bean shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vibrianaceae

A

Gram ( - ) Bacilli

Genus: Vibrio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Campylobacter

A

Gram ( - ) Bacilli

mcc of diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pseudomonas

A

Gram ( - ) Bacilli

blue/green pus

warm, moist places

mc pneumonia with cystic fibrosis patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Haemophilus

A

Gram ( - ) Bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Francisella

A

Gram ( - ) Bacilli

Rabbit Fever

bugs bunny is french

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Legionella

A

Gram ( - ) Bacilli

water droplets

Legionaire’s Disease

(minor form of Legionaire’s = pontiac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Spirochaetales

A

Treponema (syphillis)

Borrelia (Lyme disease)

Leptospira (Weil’s Disease/ hemorrhagic jaundice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mycoplasmataceae

A

Mycoplasma

Atypical pneumonia

  • lacks cell wall
  • penicillin is ineffective
    • penicillin inhibits peptidoglycan → stops cell wall synthesis → no cell wall present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chlamydia Trachomates

A

Reiter’s Disease

track mates write

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Chlamydophila psittaci

A

Parrot Fever

“the parrot sits low on the shoulder”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Rickettsiaceae Coxiella

A

Coxiella Burnetii causes Q fever - spread via milk

rickettsia rickettsii - spread by insects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hepadnaviridae

A

Hepatitis B Virus

DNA Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Paramyxoviridae

A

Measles virus, mumps virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Coronaviridae

A

Corona virus

Causes SARS - China Epidemic in 2002

sorry about coronas in china

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rhabdoviridae

A

Rabies virus

  • bullet-shaped virus*
  • hydrophobia

*hunt rabid animals with a bullet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Filoviridae

A

Ebola virus

  • 5 types, 4 will cause hemorragic diarrhea

filo fourfive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Reoviridae

A

Rotavirus

mcc of infantile diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Togaviridae

A

Rubella virus

German measles

german toga party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Calciviridae

A

Norwalk virus - causes gastroenteritis

associate w cruise ships

calnival cruises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

IgA Antibody

A

secretory (mucosal) antibody

mucous membrane (saliva, tears)

breast milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

IgD Antibody

A

Helps IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

IgE Antibody

A

Parasitic infections

Allergic reactions

increases in Hodgkin’s

  • puritis (intense itching)
  • Dx: biopsy for Reed Sternberg cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

IgG Antibody

A

First to increase (upon second exposure)

Most numerous

Crosses placenta (“Gee Ma, thanks”)

Anamnestic response - without amnesia = body remembers for next time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

IgM Antibody

A

Pentameter - 10 binding sitesLargest and heaviestFirst to increase (first exposure)

largest

m = muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Interleukin I

A

Made by macrophages

activates lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Interleukin II

A

Made by CD4 = T cell = QB of immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Interleukin III

A

Made by bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MHC/ Major Histocompatability Complex

A

self vs non-selfgraft and organ rejection

T-cells recognize MHC I

B-cells recognize MHC I and II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Diseases by Staph Aureus

(5: “STOIC”)

A

“STOIC” = S (scalded skin syndrome), T (toxic shock), O (OSTEOMYELITIS*), I (impetigo*→ honey crusted lesion around mouth), C (carbuncles: many infected hair follicles/furuncles “a carload of furuncles”)

  • ​MRSA: methicillin-resistant staph aureus
    • organism seen in athletic locker rooms
    • Vancomyosin = only effective antibiotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Diseases by Strep Pyogenes

(6: “SERGIS”)

A

group A, beta-hemolytic strep​

“SERGIS” = S (strep throat), E (erysipelas), *R (rheumatic fever), G (glomerulonephritis), I (impetigo - #2 cause), S (scarlet fever = strawberry tongue)

  • Rheumatic Fever:
    • mnemonic: “Can Sammy Suck Ethyl’s Polyp’s?”
      • C = carditis
        • MacCallum Patch in posterior left atrium
      • S = Syndenham’s Chorea*
        • ​strep-related chorea affecting kids
      • S = subcutaneous nodule
      • E = erythemia marginatum
      • P = migratory polyarthritis
  • Nephritic Syndrome
  • Vegetation on mitral valve
    • Aschkoff Bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Rheumatic fever

A

strep pyogenes - group A beta hemolytic strep

carditis (MacCullum patch in post left atrium), sydenhams chorea, subcutaneous nodule, erythema marginatum, migratory polyarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Complement System

(Purpose and Pathways)

A

Purpose: enhance phagocytosis/cellular lysis

Pathways:

  • Classical (Ag-Ab)
  • Alternate (Sheep RBC’s?)​
  • Both pathways meet at C3B
  • C5b-C9 = MAC (Membrane Attack Complex)
    • C9 → “terminal complement”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Inclusion Bodies

A

Bodies present in nucleus or cytoplasm of certain cells in infection by filterable viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

Aschoff Bodies

A

Rheumatic Fever

extensive = MacCallum’s Patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Inclusion Bodies

Babes Ernst Granules

A

Metachromatic granules seen in diptheria

(pseudomembrane in throat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Inclusion bodies

Downey Cell

A

mononucleosis → “don’t let mono get you down”

atypical lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Inclusion Bodies

Epithelioid Histiocyte

A

TB

Giant epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

Gohn Complex

A

TB (inactive phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

Guarneri Bodies

A

Small pox (variola)

  • “eradicated in 1977 from vaccines”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Inclusion Bodies

Gummas

A

tertiary syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

Koplik Spots

A

Measles

on buccal mucosa

white/bluish spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

*Lipofuscin

A

“old age pigment”

buildup of lipofuscin in organs = *Brown’s atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

Lewy Bodies

A

Parkinson’s (AKA pa**ralysis agitans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

*Mallory Bodies

A

Hepatitis (alcoholism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

Negri Bodies

A

Rabies (hydrophobia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

*Reed Sternberg

A

Hodgkin’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

*Russell Bodies

A

found in plasma cells, consists of antibodies

  • from chronic inflammation and malignant disorders

associated with multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Inclusion Bodies:

Plummer Vincent

A

esophageal webbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Active vs Passive Immunity

A

Active = must actively make own antibodies (Ab)

Passive = given antibodies (Ab), received from outside→in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Natural Active Immunity

A

exposure to disesase → body reacts

ex) measles, chicken pox triggers antibody production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Artificial Active Immunity

A

injection of attenuated organism

ex) tetanus toxoid = inactivated protion triggers immune system to make antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Natural Passive Immunity

A

Given antibodies…

  • in utero: IgG (“gee thanks, ma”)
  • breastfeeding: IgA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Artificial Passive Immunity

A

injection of preformed antibodies

  • ex) tetanus antitoxin = premade antibody, attacks circulating toxins, not bound toxins*
  • Tetanus antitoxin cannot cross blood-brain barrier
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Endotoxin

A

toxin from lipopolysaccharide layer of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Exotoxin

A

Toxin from outside cell from waste products

Heat labile

(ex: staph)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Fomite

A

vector is inanimate object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hapten

A

partial antigen/half antigen

does not stimulate immune response

(must combine with protein to be toxic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Neurotoxin

A

affects nervous system

Botulism, tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Opsonin

A

enhance phagocytosis by marking target for strike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Prion

A

cannot be autoclaved/sterilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity

A
  • anaphylactic (immediate, acute)
  • allergy
  • IgE, mast cells, basophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity

A
  • cytotoxic
  • Goodpasteur’s
    • (lung and kidney)
      • “You go outside in the Good-pasture, take a deep breath, then you have to pee”
    • caused by group A beta-hemolytic strep
  • Erythroblastosis Fetalis
    • ​Rh(+) baby, Rh(-) mother
    • Mothers worry, have negative thoughts
  • blood transfusions
  • Myasthenia Gravis
    • ​weakness and rapid fatigue of muscles under voluntary control
  • IgG targets cell for phagocytosis
  • Type II = 2 things
    • antigen + antibody
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Type III Hypersensitivity

A
  • immune-complex mediated
  • Glomerulonephritis, lupus, RA
  • Arthus rxn = local necrosis
  • Serum Sickness = systemic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity

A
  • Delayed
  • Cell-mediated (only one NOT antibody-mediated)
  • TB, contact dermatitis (poison ivy, poison oak, etc.)
  • Transplant rejection via MHC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Autotroph

A

eats inorganic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Heterotroph

A

eats organic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Saprophyte

A

eats dead/decaying material (organic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Parasite

A

eats off living organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Zoonosis

A

transfer of disease from animal to human

ex) Anthrax

  • woolsorter’s disease”
  • Gram ( + ) rod
  • sporulates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Microaerophilic

A

Lives in areas of reduced O2

high-altitude plants

grown in Candle Jar culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Flagella Arrangement

A

Monotrichus = single flagella, one pole

Lophotrichus = multiple flagella on one pole (tuft at end)

Amphitrichus = “both” flagella, both poles

Peritrichus = “around”, flagella everywhere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Lab Tests:

Ames Test

A

Salmonella typhimurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Lab Tests:

ASO Titer

A

Antistreptolysin O Titre

Strep pyogenes test

Rheumatic Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Lab Tests:

BOD

A

Biological Oxygen Demand

best test for water pollution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Lab Tests:

Catalase

A

Staph vs. Strep

(cat + ) (cat - )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Lab Tests:

Chick Embryo Culture

A

virus culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Lab Tests:

Chocolate Agar*

A

AKA Thayer Martin Agar
AKA Heated Blood Agar

for Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Lab Tests:

Coagulase

A
  • *Staph Aureus** vs other Staph
  • (pathogenic vs non-pathogenic staph)*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Lab Tests:

Coombs

A

Erythroblastosis Fetalis (TII hypersensitivity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Lab Tests:

Dick Test

A

Scarlet Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Lab Tests:

HLA B27

A

Seronegative arthridities

(PEAR = psoriatic, enteropathic arthorpathy, AS, Reiter’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Lab Tests:

Giemsa Stain

A

protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Lab Tests:

HLA DR5/CD4

A

AIDS

ELISA test checks DNA
Western Blot checks proteins

If 2 ELISA (+), do WB.
If WB (+) = AIDS Dx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Lab Tests:

Mannitol Salt

A

Staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Lab Tests:

Nuchal Rigidity

A

Meningitis

(low glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Lab Tests:

Paul Bunnel

A

Heterophile Agglutination test for mononucleosis

Mononucleosis

  • heterophile antibody = Ab seen in microscopy
  • heterophile agglutination = Paul Bunnel
  • Downey cell = atypical lymphocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Lab Tests:

Quellung Reaction

A

Strep Pneumoniae
(mcc of meningitis)

“quellung is swelling”
(**of strep capsule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Lab Tests:

Sabouraud Agar

90
Q

Lab Tests:

Tissue culture

A

virus culture

91
Q

Lab Tests:

*Weil Felix

A

Positive for all Rickettsia except Coxiella Burnetii (Q fever)

92
Q

Lab Tests:

*Widal

A

Typhoid Fever

93
Q

Lab Tests:

*Tzank Test

A

Herpes Zoster

94
Q

Syphilis Testing

(Treponema, spirochete)

A

Wasserman

VDRL = Venereal Disease Research Lab

Darkfield

95
Q

Tuberculosis Testing

A
  • BEST TB TEST = Sputum Culture (shows active)
  • Tine Test = skin prick
  • PPD/Mantoux Test = purified protein derivative
  • Delayed Hypersensitivity Test
  • Ziehl Nielson Staining
    • ​acid fast organisms
    • “my ass is fast” = _my_cobacterium _ac_id fast
  • ​Chest x-ray = Gohn Complex in Lung
  • BCG vaccine = uses mycobacterium bovis
96
Q

Pasteurization Methods:

Sterilization/Autoclave

A

steam heat under pressure, denatures membranes
274°F, 15 mins

ineffective against prions

97
Q

Vaccinations

Inactivated

A

SALK = poli vaccine

rabies

98
Q

Vaccinations

Live Attenuated

A

measles, mumps, rubella

Sabin = oral

99
Q

Studies

A

Case Control: IDs risk factors

Double Blind: eliminates placebo

Retrospective/Cohort: go back in time

100
Q

Blue/Green pus

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

  • open burn infection, unsanitized hot tub, contact lenses
  • hot, warm places
  • flouresces blue under UV light, procyanin
  • #1 cause of pneumonia in Cystic Fibrosis patients
101
Q

Red Pus

A

Serratia marcenscens

102
Q

White Pus

103
Q

Yellow/gold pus

A

staph aureus

Au = gold

104
Q

Yellow/green pus

105
Q

Acid Fast Stain

A

Mycobacterium

“My ass is fast”

106
Q

Blood Agar Stain

Alpha Hemolysis

A

Alpha = partial (green ring)

  • strep pneumoniae
    • mcc meningitis
  • strep viridans
    • ​SBE/ subacute bacterial endocarditis
      • splinter hemorrhages under fingernails
    • must have Rheumatic Fever first
107
Q

Blood Agar Stain

Gamma Hemolysis

A

gamma = none, red ring

Strep Mutans

  • cavities/ “dental caries”
108
Q

Giemsa Stain

109
Q

Gram Stain Procedure

A

Primary = crystal violet or methylene blue

  • (Gram + stains purple/blue)

Fixer = Iodine, “mordant”

Decolorizer = alcohol wash

Counterstain = saffarin

110
Q

Drugs:

Iodine

A

pre-op disinfectant

111
Q

Drugs:

MRSA

A

Methycilline-Resistant Staph Aureus

Hospitals use Vancomycin now

112
Q

Drugs:

Penicillin

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

(glycoproteins)

113
Q

Drugs:

Sulfa

A

competes with PABA

(Para-aminobenzoic acid)

114
Q

Drugs:

Tetracycline

A

for gram negative and positive (broad spectrum)

inhibits protein synthesis

turns teeth gray or yellow brown

115
Q

Famous People:

Ehrlich

A

Sulfa drugs

First treatment for Syphilis

116
Q

Famous People:

Flemming

A

Discovered Penicillin (1928)

117
Q

Famous People:

Koch

A

“proved bacteria causes disease”

Koch’s 4 postulates

Anthrax Vaccine

118
Q

Famous People:

Lister

A

Antiseptis

sterilization of surgical instruments

119
Q

Famous People:

Pasteur

A

Father of Pathology

Father of GErm Theory

Rabies vaccine

120
Q

Famous People:

Walter Reed

A

Yellow Fever

(spread by ades egypti mosquito)

121
Q

Famous People:

Sabin

A

Live Polio vaccine

given orally

122
Q

Famous People:

Salk

A

Dead Polio vaccine

given by injection, before Sabin

123
Q

Famous People:

Semmelweiss

A

handwashing before delivering a baby

reduced Puerperal Fever (aka Childbed Fever)

124
Q

Colony Variation

A

Description of morphology upon examination of an agar plate:

**R = rough
S = smooth**
D = dwarf
H = spreading
M = mucoid capsule forming: related to virulence
O = compact (O vs H)
125
Q

Koch’s Postulates

A
  1. Find microorganism in patients
  2. Isolate and grow
  3. Observe: should cause disease in healthy individual
  4. Reisolate microorganism from inoculated people
126
Q

Cell Sex Life

A
  • *Conjugation***
  • *plasmid DNA,** transfer via sex pilus (little penis!)

Transduction
transfer of genetic material from between bacteria
bacteriophage: altered virus

Transformation*
direct uptake of free DNA

127
Q

Governmental Agencies:

CDC
Center for Disease Control

A

Statistics, NOT RESEARCH
(compiles morbidity and epidemiological statistics)

Branch of US Navy
Part of US Health Services

128
Q

Governmental Agencies:

EPA
Environmental Protection Agency

A

monitors quality of soil, air and water

129
Q

Governmental Agencies:

FDA
Food and Drug Administration

A

regulates health products released to public

Monsanto(?)

(regulates product misrepresentation, promotion, advertising)

130
Q

Governmental Agencies:

NIH
National Institute of Health

A

research, not statistics

Located in Bethesda, Maryland

131
Q

Governmental Agencies:

OSHA
Occupational Safety and Health Administration

A

makes rules regarding occupational toxicity levels of hazardous materials

powerful agency

132
Q

“Emerging”

A

new disease or rapid increase in incidence or in geographic range

Ex) AIDS, Ebola… in USA: TB, MRSA, H1N1/Swine Flu

133
Q

“Endemic”

A

small number of cases in specific location

present all the time

134
Q

“Incidence”*

A

number of NEW cases in a given time period

ex) how many new cases last year?

135
Q

“Pandemic”

A

more than expected # of cases of a disease worldwide

136
Q

“Prevalence”*

A

total # of cases at a particular point in time

ex) total cases right now

137
Q

Leading Causes of Death

(infants, adults/US, adults/worldwide)

A

Infants

  • *1. Congenital malformations
    2. Prematurity**

Adults (United States)​

  • *1. Heart Disease
    2. Cancer
    3. Stroke**
    4. Respiratory infection
    5. Accidents

Adults (Worldwide)

  • *1. Tuberculosis**
    2. Malaria
138
Q

Water Purification Process

A

Primary (Sewage) Treatment
filtration → flocculation → sedimentation → sludge digestion

Secondary Treatment
sand filtration → aeration*→ chlorination → possible fluoridation

*aeration decreases BOD/ biological oxygen demand

139
Q

Helminth Types

A

“_T_ry _R_onnie _F_irst”

_T_apeworm / _R_oundworm / _F_luke
_C_estodes / _N_ematodes / _T_rematodes
(alphabetical order match)

Tapeworms: “Cestodes”

  • long, ribbon-like body
  • Head = “scolex” (attaches to intestine)
  • Body = proglottids

Roundworms: “Nematodes”

  • cylindrical, unsegmented
  • Spongebob

Flukes: “Trematodes”

  • flat, ovoid body
140
Q

Tapeworms/Cestodes

Hymenolepis Nana

A

Dwarf tapeworm

Bethanie says her Nana is a dwarf

141
Q

Tapeworms/Cestodes

Diphyllobothrium latum

A

Fish tapeworm

may cause B12 deficiency

Pacific NW Salmon

Channing Latum looks like a fish? Idfk

142
Q

Flukes/Trematodes

Shistosoma Japonicum

A

Blood

Host = snail

S/Sx:

  • Swimmer’s itch
  • mcc of death by a helminth (parasitic worm)
143
Q

Flukes/Trematodes

Paragonimus Westermani

A

Pulmonary (lung)

Crayfish

144
Q

Roundworms/Nematodes

Ascaris lumbricoides

A

most common roundworm

most common helminthic infection worldwide

Roundworm: “my ass is round”

145
Q

Roundworms/Nematodes

Wuchereria Bancrofti
(Filiariasis)

A

mosquitoes

S/Sx:

  • Elephantitis
  • lymphatic Blockage
146
Q

Rondworms/Nematodes

Necator Americanus
(Hookworm)

A

Fecal-contaminated soil

wear shoes to prevent

mc hookworm in US

147
Q

Roundworms/Nematodes

Enterobius vermicularis
(Pinworm/threadworm)

A

anus-finger-mouth

Scotch-Tape Test/ Anal Cellophane Test

mc helminth in the US

148
Q

Roundworm/Nematode

Onchocerca volvulus
(River blindness)

A

African flies

149
Q

Roundworm/Nematodes

Loa loa
(River eye worm)

A

Flies

“African Eyeworm”

150
Q

Roundworm/Nematodes

Trichonella spiralis
(Trichinosis)

A

raw pork

lives in striated muscles

Dx on xray, mm biopsy to confirm

151
Q

Roundworms/Nematodes

Trichuris trichura
(whipworm)

A

“whip those T’s together”

oral-fecal

weight loss

152
Q

Virus Transmission

A

Most commonly transmitted or acquired via the respiratory system.

Exceptions:

  • *Arboviruses = mosquitoes
    • encephalitis, yellow fever, dengue
  • Polio = oral/fecal
  • *Hepatitis
    • HepA: oral/fecal
    • HepB: sexual transmission, IV drugs
    • HepC: transfusions, tattoos
153
Q

Herpes Simplex

(two types)

A

Viral Diseases and Skin Reactions

Type 1

  • ​fever blisters (cold sores) - “above the belt”
  • Trigeminal/ “Gasserion” ganglion

Type 2

  • Genital Herpes - “below the belt”
154
Q

Herpes Zoster

A

viral disease with skin reaction

  • Shingles in adults
  • does not cross midline
  • hides in DRG
  • follows dermatome
  • stress-induced
155
Q

Molloscum contagiosum

A

viral disease with skin reaction

pink cauliflower lesion on female genitalia

156
Q

Rubella

A

Viral disease with skin reaction

German Measles “3-day measles”

most susceptible in 1st trimester

157
Q

Rubeola

A

viral disease with skin reaction

Red Measles (“Ruby Red”)

Koplik spots on buccal mucosa

  • white/blue spots
158
Q

Varicella (chicken pox)

A

viral disease with skin reaction

maculopapularvesicular rash = red, elevated fluid-filled lesions

159
Q

Variola

A

viral disease with skin reaction

Small Pox*

guarneri bodies

(*eradicated in 1977 via vaccine)

160
Q

Coxsackie Virus B

A

viral disease with enteric reaction

childhood dysentery
(hand, foot and mouth disease)

161
Q

Adenovirus

A

viral disease with respiratory reaction

conjunctivitis, pharyngitis

162
Q

Influenza Virus

A

antigenic shift and/or drift

  • small mutation = drift
  • big mutation = shift

causes the flu no fuckin shit

163
Q

Mumps

A
  • viral disease w respiratory reaction
  • caused by sidomegalic paramyxoid virus
  • causes parotiditis
  • leads to LMN disease of CN7 (Bells Palsy)
  • Complications
    • sterility from oophritis or orchitis
164
Q

RSV
Respiratory Syncytial Virus

A

causes croup and bronchiolitis

165
Q

Rabies

A
  • bullet-shaped
  • RNA, rhabdovirus
    • negri bodies in brain
    • hydrophobia
166
Q

Reyes Syndrome

A

fatty liver (hepatomegaly)

encephalopathy

167
Q

AIDS

A
  • caused by retrovirus (HIV)
  • reverse transcriptase (RNA → DNA)
  • CD4 cells affected
    • ​T-helper cells
  • Complications
    • pneumocystis carinii
    • toxoplasmosis
    • Kaposi sarcoma
    • Giardia Lamblia
168
Q

AIDS Complications

Pneumocystis carinii

A

#1 fungal infection in AIDS

#1 cause of death in AIDS (from pneumonia)

169
Q

AIDS Complications

Toxoplasmosis

A

1 parasitic infection in AIDS

spread by cat feces → birth defects

170
Q

AIDS Complications

Kaposi Sarcoma

A

1 cause of death by cancer in AIDS

171
Q

Hepatitis A

A
  • fecal/oral
  • NOT a carrier for life *ONLY ONE
  • no sequelae (B,C,D = liver cancer)
  • RNA virus
  • “get it and get over it”
172
Q

Hepatitis B

A
  • sexual transmission, IV drugs
  • carrier for life
  • sequelae: liver cancer (also true for: Hep’s B/C/D)
  • DNA ONLY* (only one DNA, A/C/D = RNA)
  • most lethal in acute phase
  • Endemic in asian cultures
173
Q

Hepatitis C

A
  • blood transfusion, tattoos
  • carrier for life
  • seq: liver cancer
  • RNA
  • AKA “non-A, non-B hepatitis”
174
Q

Hepatitis D

A
  • co-infectious with Hep B
  • carrier for life
  • liver cancer
  • RNA
  • aka “Dane” particle - only replicates in presence of Hep B
175
Q

Arboviruses

Group A

A

causes all equine encephalitis diseases:
Western, Eastern, St. Louis

​(Eastern Equine Encephalitis = West Nile Virus)

​all spread by mosquitoes

176
Q

Arboviruses

Group B

A

Yellow Fever
“yellow” = jaundice
discovered by Walter Reed
ades agypti mosquito
viscerotropic virus (affects liver)

Dengue Fever
vector: mosquito
develop backbone fever or “bone crusher disease”

177
Q

Yersinia pestis

(Pasteurella pestis)

A

Bubonic Plague, “black death”

arthropod-borne bacteria

Rat flea = xenopsylla cheopis

Bubos = neck and axillary lymph node enlargement

178
Q

Francisella Tularensis

A

Tuleremia

Rabbits
(Rabbit Fever)

Hunters at risk

“The _Fr_ench Rabbits smell _Tul_ips”

179
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Botulism

  • food-borne bacteria
  • vector: home-canning
  • Prevents ACh release → Floppy Baby Syndrome
  • Nitrates added to meat to prevent botulism
    ​

1st symptom: diplopia (double-vision)
2nd symptom: death

180
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

A
  • food-borne bacteria
  • mcc gastritis
  • # 1 cause of food poisoning
181
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

A
  • Listeria
  • food-borne bacteria
  • deli meats and soft cheeses
182
Q

Salmonella entrides

A

Salmonella

  • eggs and poultry
  • 12-24 hours after ingestion
  • Fever
183
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus

A

Staphylococcus

  • food-borne bacteria
  • creams and custards
  • 2-4 hours after ingestion
  • no fever
  • stable toxin
184
Q

Salmonella typhi

A

Typhoid

  • rose-colored spots on abdomen
  • Peyer’s patches in ileum
185
Q

Brucella abortus

A

Brucellosis

Bang’s Disease = undulant fever

Spontaneous abortions in cattle

186
Q

Vibrio Cholera

A

Cholera

  • comma-shaped
  • rice water stools (massive diarrhea)
  • no lymph enlargement
187
Q

Shigella

A

Shigella

  • water and soil borne
  • bacterial dysentery (w. blood in stool)
188
Q

E. coli
(enterotoxigenic form
& enterohemorrhagic form)

A
  • enterotoxigenic form → Montezuma’s Reveng
    • ​“Traveler’s Diarrhea”
  • enterohemorrhagic form → E. coli OH157
    • Hamburger’s Disease
    • fatal
      ​
  • # 1 cause Otitis Externa
189
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A

Anthrax, AKA “Woolsorter’s Disease”

  • Gram (+) rod
  • sporulates
  • Zoonosis (infectious dzs of animals naturally spread to humans)
190
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Tetanus

  • trismus (lockjaw)
  • inhibits GABA and Glycine (blocks inhibitory neurotransmitter’s)
191
Q

Clostridium perfingins

A

AKA Clostridium wlichi

192
Q

Haemophilus influenza

A
  • *#1 cause of otitis media**
  • (middle-ear infection)*

#2 cause = strep pneumoniae

193
Q

Leptospira interrogans
Leptospira ictohemorrhagica

A

Weil’s Syndrome

(hemorrhagic jaundice)

194
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Lyme’s Disease

  • vector = deer tick (Lxodes scapularis)
  • Erythema Chronicum Migricans
  • AKA* bullseye rash
195
Q

Borrelia recurrentis

A

Relapsing Fever (recurrent)

fever comes and goes (relapsing)

196
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

STD: Venereal Syphilis

  • Primary = hard, painLESS chancre
  • Secondary = maculopapular rash w condylomata lata
  • Latency = may/may not show symptoms
  • Tertiary = neurosyphilis, gummas, Argyll Robertson pupil, tabes dorsalis
    • (“tabes” = wasting, “dorsalis” = back) posterior columns affected

*Treponema differentiation: Dark Field Microscopy

197
Q

Treponema pertenue

A

Non-venereal syphilis

casual contact

*Treponema differentiation: Dark Field Microscopy

198
Q

Dysentery

A

Childhood = Coxsackie virus B (hand, foot and mouth dz)

Bacterial = shigella

Amoebic = entamoeba histolytica (infective stage = cyst)

199
Q

Bacterial Types

A

Pleomorphic = many shapes (diptheria)

Rabies = bullet-shaped

Vibrio = comma-shaped (curved)

200
Q

Bacterial Enzymes that add virulence:

Coagulase

A

Staph

makes thicker

catalyses breakdown of fibrinogen to form fibrin

201
Q

Temperatures for Bacterial Growth

A

Psychrophilic: 15°C or lower

  • Mesophilic: 20-4*0°C, optimal=37°C (human temp)
  • **killed by fevers**

Thermophilic: 45°C or above

202
Q

mcc Meningitis by age group

A

Newborns: E. coli (“little shits”)

Infants/older children: strep pneumoniae

Adults: strep pneumoniae

*Most lethal meningitis = Naegleria Fowleri
causes 1° amoebic meningoencephalitis

203
Q

Entamoeba histolytica

(trophozoite and cyst)

A

Amebiasis

infective form = cyst

Protozoal infection (Giemsa stain)

204
Q

Leishmania donovani

A

Kala-Azar (Leishmaniasis)

sandflies

viscerotropic

Dehli Boil

205
Q

Giardia lamblia
(trophozoite and cyst
4 pairs of flagella)

A

Giardiasis, “beaver fever”

infective form = cyst

hikers, drinking stream water

4 pairs of flagella

Protozoal infection (Giemsa stain)

206
Q

Plasmodium vivax

A

Malaria (most common form of malaria)

female anopheles mosquito

Merozoite stage

  • propogation through body
  • becomes pathogenic at this stage*
207
Q

Plasmodium Falciparum

A

Malaria (most fatal form)

anopheles mosquito

Black Water Fever (urinating oxidized blood)

Protozoal Infection (Giemsa Stain)

208
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Toxoplasmosis

cat feces

miscarriages if 1st exposure and in first trimester

Protozoal Infection (Giemsa Stain)

209
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi*

A

Trypanosomiasis

Kissing “reduviid” bug

Chaga’s Disease

Protozoal Infection (Giemsa Stain)

210
Q

Trypanosoma gambiense*

A

Trypanosomiasis

Tsetse fly

African sleeping sickness

neurological problems affecting the brain

Protozoal Infection (Giemsa Stain)

211
Q

Virulence Factors of Fungi

A

Keratinase = attacks skin

Proteinase = attacks muscle

Elastase = attacks connective tissue

212
Q

Aspergillus fumigatus*

A

Fungal infection

Aspergillosis

nuts and grains

fungus ball in lungs

213
Q

Endemic fungus
Histoplasmosis

A

Mississippi/Ohio Valley Fevers

Calcific lesions in lung, similar to TB

214
Q

Pneumocystis carinii

A
  • *AIDS Pneumonia**
    vector: pigeon droppings (assoc. w/all birds) 
#1 fungal infection in AIDS
#1 cause of death in AIDS (from pneumonia)

fungal

215
Q

Sporotherix schenckii

A

Sporotrichosis

flowers

gardeners at risk

fungal

216
Q

Cutaneous Mycoses

“ringworm, dermatophytoses”
superficial fungal infection of the skin

A

Detection:

  • Woods Lamp = UV light
  • skin scrapings from periphery of lesion,
    • tested in KOH/ potassium hydroxide
    • no blood tests
217
Q

Cutaneous Mycoses

A

tinea barbae = ringworm of beard

tinea capitis = scalp

tinea corporis = body

tinea cruris = groin, “jock itch”

tinea pedis = foot, “athlete’s foot”

tinea unguinum = nail

218
Q

Coxiella burnetti*

A

Rickettsia

Q-fever

milk

  • *Weil-Felix (-)***
  • *all rickettsia W-F(+) except coxiella burnetti*
219
Q

Rickettsia prowazeki

A

Epidemic typhus, aka “Bril-Zinsser’s dz”

head louse

220
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

A
  • *Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever**
  • “Dermacenter andersoni”*

rash on wrists and ankles

Wood tick

National Boards Part I (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions