Microbiology Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Aerobic

A

Requires oxygen for growth

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2
Q

Anaerobic

A

Able to grow and function in the absence of oxygen

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3
Q

Enriched Media

A

Nutrients that most pathogenic bacteria require outside the body are provided in enriched media

contain the nutrients required to support the growth of a wide variety of organisms

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4
Q

What can enriched media provide?

A

Can provide:

  • beef or yeast extracts
  • peptone (nitrogen compound)
  • mineral salts made of sodium
  • calcium, potassium, magnesium, chlorine, and. phosphorous.
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5
Q

Fastidious

A

require specific additional additives and conditions for growth

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6
Q

Media

A

contain essential nutritious substances that allow microorganisms to grow and multiply

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7
Q

Media can come in what forms?

A

solid, liquid, or semisolid

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8
Q

What does solid media contain?

A

contains agar

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9
Q

3 types of agar for growing specific bacteria…

A
  • Chocolate Agar
  • MacConkey Agar
  • Blood Agar
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10
Q

Agar

A

gelatinous substance obtained from seaweed that is liquid when heated and solid when cooled

used in culture media

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11
Q

Names of equipment used in a microbiology lab

A
  • Incubator
  • Safety Hood
  • Autoclave
  • Refrigerator
  • Microscopes
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12
Q

What should the incubator temperature be?

A

37 degrees Celsius (Body temperature)

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13
Q

Incubator

A

used for growing cultures at body temperature

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14
Q

Safety Hood

A

area with a fan to pull the airflow away from the operator

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15
Q

Autoclave

A

destroys microorganisms by applying steam under pressure

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16
Q

Refrigerator

A

for storage of culture plates and supplies

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17
Q

Microscopes

A

used to identify microorganisms

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18
Q

Collecting a Wound Specimen

A
  • Perform hand hygiene and put on your PPE.
  • inserting the swab into the area of the wound that contains the most drainage
  • Gently rotate the swab from side to side
  • swab is placed in the transport medium
  • process is repeated with a second swab
  • it is important to collect a specimen from within a wound
  • Label it and send it to the lab asap
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19
Q

Inoculation

A

Process of transferring microorganisms into or on a culture medium for growth

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20
Q

Inoculation Loops

A

have a bubble wand at the end in varying sizes that deliver different volumes of liquid such as urine

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21
Q

Inoculation Needles

A

pointed at the end and is used for picking up colonies of bacteria

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22
Q

Isolation Technique/Quadrant Technique

A

First quadrant is made with the swab and the sterilized loop spreads the last three quadrants on the plate to establish isolated colonies of bacteria that can be used for identification

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23
Q

Colony Count/Lawn Technique

A

Involves streaking the entire plate

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24
Q

what is the colony count/lawn technique used for?

A
  • antibiotic sensitivity testing

- counting colonies that form when applying a urine specimen using a calibrated loop.

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25
Q

urine colony count method

A

whole plate is streaked with a calibrated loop so that the colonies that grow on the plate can be counted

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26
Q

Culture plate incubation period

A

typically 24 hours

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27
Q

Sensitivity Testing

A

Determines which antibiotic to use to treat the bacterial infection

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28
Q

Criteria used by physicians when choosing an antibiotic

A
  • no growth around its disk
  • least toxic
  • most cost effective
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29
Q

zones of inhibition

A

no growth

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30
Q

what is the Kirby-Bauer method?

A

a type of sensitivity testing

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31
Q

5 steps to the Kirby Bauer method

A

Inoculate a liquid (water or nutrient broth) with a pure culture of the bacteria to a specified turbidity

Spread the bacteria over the whole plate (lawn method) of the appropriate media

With the Kirby Bauer apparatus, disks containing a specific amount of antibiotic are dropped on the inoculated plate

Incubate overnight

Each disk is then checked for zones of inhibition: no growth.

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32
Q

In the Kirby Bauer method what are the zones recorded as after they are measured?

A
  • S=sensitive
  • I= Intermediate
  • R=Resistant
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33
Q

Why is a urine culture commonly ordered?

A

to evaluate urinary tract infections

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34
Q

What kind of count is performed on urine?

A

Colony count

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35
Q

how must urine for a urine culture be collected?

A

midstream clean-catch method

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36
Q

What is the cause of urinary tract infections?

A

escherichia coli

37
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

most common cause of wound infections

38
Q

Appearance of Staphylococcus aureus

A

gram + cocci in clusters

39
Q

Reasons for emerging infectious diseases to rise in recent years

A
  • growth of human populations
  • increase in international travel
  • effect of environmental changes
40
Q

aerosols

A

fine particles suspended in air

41
Q

morbidity

A

the rate at which an illness occurs

42
Q

mortality

A

the rate of deaths

43
Q

Variola Major

A

is the most virulent strain, causing severe blistering and high fever, and kills approximately half of those affected.

44
Q

Variola Minor

A

milder form, with a death rate of less than 1%

45
Q

Variola Major/Minor are the cause of what disease?

A

smallpox

46
Q

Bacillus Anthracis

A

-Cause of Anthrax

47
Q

Anthrax

A

Bacterial spores are found in soil, animal feces, and carcasses

Forms endospores can live for 40 years

fifth plague of the bible

48
Q

What causes anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

49
Q

what is Bacillus Anthracis??

A

a gram-positive bacillus

50
Q

what are the 3 kinds of anthrax?

A

Cutaneous anthrax
Inhalation or pulmonary anthrax
Gastrointestinal anthrax

51
Q

Gastrointestinal anthrax

A

Intestinal eschars

52
Q

Inhalation or pulmonary anthrax

A

RARE

53
Q

Cutaneous anthrax

A

Blisters form and develop into blackened craters, called eschars

54
Q

How is anthrax contracted?

A

Human beings contract the disease mostly through contact with infected animals or animal products

55
Q

What is Tularemia caused by?

A

Francisella tularensis

56
Q

what is Francisella tularensis??

A

a gram-negative bacilli

57
Q

How do humans contract Tularemia?

A
  • by bites from ticks or deer flies

- skin contact with infected animals (skinning animals) -ingestion of contaminated water or inhalation of aerosols

58
Q

Tularemia symptoms..

A

fever and flulike symptoms

59
Q

Direct contact in Tularemia can cause what?

A

ulcerated skin lesions with localized lymph node enlargement as the result of direct contact

60
Q

what kind of Tularemia can result from exposure to aerosols?

A

Pneumonic Tularemia

61
Q

What is the causative agent of the plague?

A

Yersinia Pestis

62
Q

What is yersinia pestis?

A

gram negative bacilli

63
Q

how is plague transferred to humans mainly?

A

flea bites

64
Q

Forms of Plague..

A

Bubonic, Septicemic, Pneumonic

65
Q

Pneumonic Plague…

A

spread person to person by respiratory droplets

66
Q

Bubonic Plague…

A

from flea bites

67
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

produces botulinum

68
Q

what is botulinum?

A

neurotoxin that is the most poisonous natural substance known

69
Q

Symptoms of Botulinum…

A

dry mouth, dilated pupils, and progressive muscle weakness that leads to respiratory failure and death

70
Q

How many types of botulism toxin are there?

A

7

71
Q

What are the 3 botulism toxins most commonly associated with human disease?

A

A, B & E

72
Q

Which botulism toxin is the most potent?

A

Toxin A

73
Q

What is one of the causes of Viral Hemorrhagic fever?

A

The Ebola Virus

74
Q

what is the most lethal disease known to humans?

A

Viral Hemorrhagic Fever

75
Q

How is Viral Hemorrhagic fever spread?

A

Spread by direct contact with infected blood or body parts

76
Q

symptoms of Viral Hemorrhagic fever….

A

high fever, extensive bleeding, and destruction of internal organs

77
Q

Causative agent of HIV/AIDS…

A

HIV

78
Q

Causative agent of Hemolytic uremic syndrome….

A

E. coli 0157:H7

79
Q

Causative agent of Influenza-Avian…

A

Influenza A (H5N1)c

80
Q

Causative agent of SARS…

A

Coronavirus

81
Q

Causative agent of MRSA…

A

Staphylococcus aureus

82
Q

Causative agent of Influenza-Swine….

A

Influenza A (H1N1)

83
Q

Causative agent of Clostridium difficile colitis…

A

Clostridium difficile

84
Q

Causative agent of Hepatitis C…

A

HCV (bloodborne virus)

85
Q

Causative agent of MERS-CoV

A

New corona respir. virus

86
Q

Causative agent of Hemorrhagic disease

A

Ebola virus in infected blood

87
Q

Causative agent of Microencephaly & other disorders

A

Zika virus

88
Q

what does C&S stand for…

A

culture and sensitivity

89
Q

definition of C&S

A

a microscopic study of the urine culture performed to determine the presence of pathogenic bacteria in patients with suspected urinary tract infection.