Microbiology Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Aerobic

A

Requires oxygen for growth

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2
Q

Anaerobic

A

Able to grow and function in the absence of oxygen

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3
Q

Enriched Media

A

Nutrients that most pathogenic bacteria require outside the body are provided in enriched media

contain the nutrients required to support the growth of a wide variety of organisms

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4
Q

What can enriched media provide?

A

Can provide:

  • beef or yeast extracts
  • peptone (nitrogen compound)
  • mineral salts made of sodium
  • calcium, potassium, magnesium, chlorine, and. phosphorous.
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5
Q

Fastidious

A

require specific additional additives and conditions for growth

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6
Q

Media

A

contain essential nutritious substances that allow microorganisms to grow and multiply

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7
Q

Media can come in what forms?

A

solid, liquid, or semisolid

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8
Q

What does solid media contain?

A

contains agar

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9
Q

3 types of agar for growing specific bacteria…

A
  • Chocolate Agar
  • MacConkey Agar
  • Blood Agar
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10
Q

Agar

A

gelatinous substance obtained from seaweed that is liquid when heated and solid when cooled

used in culture media

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11
Q

Names of equipment used in a microbiology lab

A
  • Incubator
  • Safety Hood
  • Autoclave
  • Refrigerator
  • Microscopes
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12
Q

What should the incubator temperature be?

A

37 degrees Celsius (Body temperature)

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13
Q

Incubator

A

used for growing cultures at body temperature

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14
Q

Safety Hood

A

area with a fan to pull the airflow away from the operator

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15
Q

Autoclave

A

destroys microorganisms by applying steam under pressure

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16
Q

Refrigerator

A

for storage of culture plates and supplies

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17
Q

Microscopes

A

used to identify microorganisms

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18
Q

Collecting a Wound Specimen

A
  • Perform hand hygiene and put on your PPE.
  • inserting the swab into the area of the wound that contains the most drainage
  • Gently rotate the swab from side to side
  • swab is placed in the transport medium
  • process is repeated with a second swab
  • it is important to collect a specimen from within a wound
  • Label it and send it to the lab asap
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19
Q

Inoculation

A

Process of transferring microorganisms into or on a culture medium for growth

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20
Q

Inoculation Loops

A

have a bubble wand at the end in varying sizes that deliver different volumes of liquid such as urine

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21
Q

Inoculation Needles

A

pointed at the end and is used for picking up colonies of bacteria

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22
Q

Isolation Technique/Quadrant Technique

A

First quadrant is made with the swab and the sterilized loop spreads the last three quadrants on the plate to establish isolated colonies of bacteria that can be used for identification

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23
Q

Colony Count/Lawn Technique

A

Involves streaking the entire plate

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24
Q

what is the colony count/lawn technique used for?

A
  • antibiotic sensitivity testing

- counting colonies that form when applying a urine specimen using a calibrated loop.

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25
urine colony count method
whole plate is streaked with a calibrated loop so that the colonies that grow on the plate can be counted
26
Culture plate incubation period
typically 24 hours
27
Sensitivity Testing
Determines which antibiotic to use to treat the bacterial infection
28
Criteria used by physicians when choosing an antibiotic
- no growth around its disk - least toxic - most cost effective
29
zones of inhibition
no growth
30
what is the Kirby-Bauer method?
a type of sensitivity testing
31
5 steps to the Kirby Bauer method
Inoculate a liquid (water or nutrient broth) with a pure culture of the bacteria to a specified turbidity Spread the bacteria over the whole plate (lawn method) of the appropriate media With the Kirby Bauer apparatus, disks containing a specific amount of antibiotic are dropped on the inoculated plate Incubate overnight Each disk is then checked for zones of inhibition: no growth.
32
In the Kirby Bauer method what are the zones recorded as after they are measured?
- S=sensitive - I= Intermediate - R=Resistant
33
Why is a urine culture commonly ordered?
to evaluate urinary tract infections
34
What kind of count is performed on urine?
Colony count
35
how must urine for a urine culture be collected?
midstream clean-catch method
36
What is the cause of urinary tract infections?
escherichia coli
37
Staphylococcus aureus
most common cause of wound infections
38
Appearance of Staphylococcus aureus
gram + cocci in clusters
39
Reasons for emerging infectious diseases to rise in recent years
- growth of human populations - increase in international travel - effect of environmental changes
40
aerosols
fine particles suspended in air
41
morbidity
the rate at which an illness occurs
42
mortality
the rate of deaths
43
Variola Major
is the most virulent strain, causing severe blistering and high fever, and kills approximately half of those affected.
44
Variola Minor
milder form, with a death rate of less than 1%
45
Variola Major/Minor are the cause of what disease?
smallpox
46
Bacillus Anthracis
-Cause of Anthrax
47
Anthrax
Bacterial spores are found in soil, animal feces, and carcasses Forms endospores can live for 40 years fifth plague of the bible
48
What causes anthrax?
Bacillus anthracis
49
what is Bacillus Anthracis??
a gram-positive bacillus
50
what are the 3 kinds of anthrax?
Cutaneous anthrax Inhalation or pulmonary anthrax Gastrointestinal anthrax
51
Gastrointestinal anthrax
Intestinal eschars
52
Inhalation or pulmonary anthrax
RARE
53
Cutaneous anthrax
Blisters form and develop into blackened craters, called eschars
54
How is anthrax contracted?
Human beings contract the disease mostly through contact with infected animals or animal products
55
What is Tularemia caused by?
Francisella tularensis
56
what is Francisella tularensis??
a gram-negative bacilli
57
How do humans contract Tularemia?
- by bites from ticks or deer flies | - skin contact with infected animals (skinning animals) -ingestion of contaminated water or inhalation of aerosols
58
Tularemia symptoms..
fever and flulike symptoms
59
Direct contact in Tularemia can cause what?
ulcerated skin lesions with localized lymph node enlargement as the result of direct contact
60
what kind of Tularemia can result from exposure to aerosols?
Pneumonic Tularemia
61
What is the causative agent of the plague?
Yersinia Pestis
62
What is yersinia pestis?
gram negative bacilli
63
how is plague transferred to humans mainly?
flea bites
64
Forms of Plague..
Bubonic, Septicemic, Pneumonic
65
Pneumonic Plague...
spread person to person by respiratory droplets
66
Bubonic Plague...
from flea bites
67
Clostridium botulinum
produces botulinum
68
what is botulinum?
neurotoxin that is the most poisonous natural substance known
69
Symptoms of Botulinum...
dry mouth, dilated pupils, and progressive muscle weakness that leads to respiratory failure and death
70
How many types of botulism toxin are there?
7
71
What are the 3 botulism toxins most commonly associated with human disease?
A, B & E
72
Which botulism toxin is the most potent?
Toxin A
73
What is one of the causes of Viral Hemorrhagic fever?
The Ebola Virus
74
what is the most lethal disease known to humans?
Viral Hemorrhagic Fever
75
How is Viral Hemorrhagic fever spread?
Spread by direct contact with infected blood or body parts
76
symptoms of Viral Hemorrhagic fever....
high fever, extensive bleeding, and destruction of internal organs
77
Causative agent of HIV/AIDS...
HIV
78
Causative agent of Hemolytic uremic syndrome....
E. coli 0157:H7
79
Causative agent of Influenza-Avian...
Influenza A (H5N1)c
80
Causative agent of SARS...
Coronavirus
81
Causative agent of MRSA...
Staphylococcus aureus
82
Causative agent of Influenza-Swine....
Influenza A (H1N1)
83
Causative agent of Clostridium difficile colitis...
Clostridium difficile
84
Causative agent of Hepatitis C...
HCV (bloodborne virus)
85
Causative agent of MERS-CoV
New corona respir. virus
86
Causative agent of Hemorrhagic disease
Ebola virus in infected blood
87
Causative agent of Microencephaly & other disorders
Zika virus
88
what does C&S stand for...
culture and sensitivity
89
definition of C&S
a microscopic study of the urine culture performed to determine the presence of pathogenic bacteria in patients with suspected urinary tract infection.