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ASMPH Flashcards > Microbiology and Parasitology > Flashcards

Microbiology and Parasitology Flashcards

1
Q

What is deficient in ataxia telangiectasia?

A

IgA

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2
Q

What is the treatment of Di George syndrome?

A

Transplant of fetal thymus

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3
Q

How do you differentiate Scalded Skin Syndrome (Ritter’s Disease) from TEN (Lyell Disease)?

A

Separation occurs at STRATUM GRANULOSUM in Ritters disease vs. separation at DERMO EPIDERMAL JUNCTION at Lyell Disease

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4
Q

What 3 diseases present with a strawberry tongue?

A

Toxic shock syndrome, Kawasaki disease, Scarlet fever

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5
Q

What is the DOC for VRSA?

A

Linezolid

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6
Q

What is the 2nd most common cause of UTI in sexually active women?

A

Staph saprophyticus

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7
Q

Most common bacterial cause of sore throat?

A

Strep pyogenes (group A beta hemolytic streptococci)

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8
Q

What facilitates cellulitis caused by Strep pyogenes?

A

Hyaluronidase (spreading factor)

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9
Q

Rash begins in the trunk then spreads to the extremities but spares the face

A

Scarlet fever

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10
Q

What test is used to determine a patient’s susceptibility to scarlet fever?

A

Dick test

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11
Q

Most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis and meningitis

A

Strep agalactiae (GBS)

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12
Q

Differentiate Strep pyogenes from Strep agalactiae

A

B - BRAS: gBs Resistant, gAs Sensitive

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13
Q

Gram positive “lancet-shaped” cocci in pairs or short chains

A

Strep pneumoniae

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14
Q

What bacteria is sensitive to optochin and exhibits a (+) Quellung reaction?

A

Strep pneumoniae

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15
Q

Most common cause of subacute endocarditis?

A

viridans Streptococci (S. sanguis)

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16
Q

Aerobic, gram (+) box car like rods, spore forming

A

Bacillus anthracis

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17
Q

DOC for cutaneous anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin

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18
Q

The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is unique, what is it made of?

A

poly-D-glutamic acid

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19
Q

What gram (+) bacteria causes ophthalmitis described as no light perception within 48hrs of traumatic eye injury?

A

Bacillus cereus

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20
Q

What is the DOC for Bacillus cereus?

A

None. Symptomatic treatment only. (Tricky!!)

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21
Q

What anaerobic gram (+) bacteria looks like a tennis racket?

A

Clostridium tetani. Due to the presence of a terminal spore

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22
Q

What are the most common immunologic types of C. botulinum in humans?

A

Types A, B and E

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23
Q

What makes up the triad of Botulism?

A

Symmetric descending paralysis, absence of fever, and intact sensorium

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24
Q

Anaerobic, gram (+), non motile bacteria that grows on egg yolk agar

A

Clostridium perfringens

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25
Q

What toxin is involved in Gas Gangrene?

A

Alpha toxin - Clostridium perfringens

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26
Q

Gram (+) bacteria that exhibits double hemolysis on blood agar

A

Clostridium perfringens

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27
Q

What is the most common cause of antibiotic associated diarrhea?

A

Clindamycin

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28
Q

Non-motile, gram (+) club/comma shaped rods arranged in a V or L shape that looks like chinese characters

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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29
Q

What test do you use to detect toxigenicity of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

Modified Elek test

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30
Q

Metachromatic granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Babes-ernst granules or Volutin granules

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31
Q

Where do you culture Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

Tellurite plate

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32
Q

Gram (-), kidney bean diplococci with an insignificant capsule

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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33
Q

Gram (-) diplococci that ferments maltose and glucose

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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34
Q

Classic medium for culture of Neisseria meningitidis

A

Thayer - Martin VCN media

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35
Q

Most severe form of meningococcemia that results to adrenal insufficiency

A

Waterhouse - Friderichsen Syndrome

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36
Q

What do you call the rash in meningococcemia?

A

Purpura fulminans

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37
Q

DOC for Neisseria gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline

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38
Q

Perihepatitis associated with gonorrhea

A

Fitz - Hugh - Curtis Syndrome

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39
Q

What is the most common cause of epiglottitis?

A

H. Influenzae

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40
Q

Most common cause of COPD exacerbations?

A

H. Influenzae

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41
Q

2nd most common cause of otitis media

A

Non - typable H. Influenzae

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42
Q

Most common cause of septic arthritis in infants

A

H. Influenzae

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43
Q

Where do you culture Bordetella pertussis?

A

Bordet - Gengou agar or Regan Lowe charcoal medium

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44
Q

What toxin causes whooping in B. Pertussis infection?

A

Tracheal cytotoxin

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45
Q

What organism causes Pontiac Fever? Described as a mild flu-like illness

A

Legionella pneumoniae

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46
Q

What E. coli toxin causes bloody diarrhea?

A

Verotoxin (shiga-like)

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47
Q

What causes traveler’s diarrhea or Montezuma’s Revenge?

A

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli

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48
Q

What teat detects Salmonella antibodies in the patient’s serum?

A

Widal Tests

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49
Q

What causes Salmonella setpticemia?

A

Salmonella choleraesuid

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50
Q

Where does the chronic carrier state of Salmonella typhi occur?

A

Gallbladder - treated with Ampicillin or cholecystectomy

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51
Q

Where is Shigella and Salmonella cultured?

A

XLD (xylosine lysine deoxycholate) medium

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52
Q

Gram (-), non-lactose fermenting rod, non-motile. Humans are its only host.

A

Shigella

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53
Q

Most common cause of bacillary dysentery

A

Group D: Shigella sonnei - Duval’s bacillus

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54
Q

Most severe form of bacillus dysentery. Also the most common cause of epidemic dysentery.

A

Group A: Shigella dysenteriae type 1 - Shiga bacillus

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55
Q

Bacteria found in contaminated raw seafood and among shellfish handlers

A

V. parahaemolyticus and V. vulnificus

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56
Q

True or False: Shigella has a low infectious dose making it highly virulent

A

True

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57
Q

What is the toxin released by cholera?

A

Choleragen

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58
Q

What is the culture medium of cholera?

A

TCBS (thiosulfate citrate bile salts) agar

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59
Q

Short term immunity with the cholera vaccine may cause?

A

Herd immunity

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60
Q

Comma shaped, gram (-) rod that grows well on Skirrow’s agar

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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61
Q

True or false: V. Cholera is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis

A

False - most common is Campylobacter jejuni

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62
Q

What are the 2 disease associations of Campylobacter jejuni infection?

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Reiter’s Syndrome

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63
Q

Triad of Reiter’s Syndrome

A

Urethritis, Uveitis, and Arthritis

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64
Q

H. Pylori is the most common cause of?

A

Duodenal ulcers

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65
Q

What organism is associated with “currant jelly sputum”?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae - necrotizing pneumonia

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66
Q

What are struvite stones made of and what organism is this associated with?

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate, Proteus mirabilis

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67
Q

What is the medium used to culture Pseudomonas aureginosa?

A

Cetrimide agar

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68
Q

Gram (-) rod, obligate aerobe, non-lactose fermenting which gives a green-blue stain on wound dressings

A

Pseudomonas aureginosa

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69
Q

Organism responsible for malignant otitis externa among diabetics

A

Pseudomonas aureginosa

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70
Q

Predominant anaerobe of the human colon

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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71
Q

Only 2nd gen cephalosporin with good anaerobic coverage. Used to treat Bacteroides fragilis infections.

A

Cefoxitin

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72
Q

What is the treatment for undulating fever?

A

Brucella abortus (Brucellosis) - doxycycline plus rifampicin

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73
Q

Gram (-) rod with bipolar (safety pin) staining

A

Yersenia pestis

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74
Q

Assay used to determine drug resistance for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Luciferase assay

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75
Q

Most important virulence factor in TB

A

Cord factor

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76
Q

Radiologically detectable calcification in TB

A

Ranke’s complex

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77
Q

Differentiate primary complex TB from reactivation TB

A

Primary - middle or lower lobes. Reactivation - apices.

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78
Q

Culture medium of M. Leprae

A

Mouse footpads, armadillo

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79
Q

Most common presentation of TB in adults? In children?

A

Adults - cough. Children - weight loss.

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80
Q

DOC for acute flare-ups of Lepromatous Leprosy

A

Erythema nodosum leprosum - Thalidomide

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81
Q

Medium for the smallest free living organism

A

Eaton’s culture - Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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82
Q

Most common infectious cause of Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae (walking pneumoniae)

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83
Q

Gram (+), beaded, filamentous anaerobic organism that grows as normal flora in the mouth

A

Actinomyces israelii

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84
Q

Fite-Faraco stain can be used on what 2 organisms?

A

M. Leprae and Nocardia asteroides

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85
Q

Tiny gram (-) bacteria that look like corkscrews

A

Spirochetes

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86
Q

Specialized flagella of spirochetes that run sideways along the organism under the outer membrane sheath

A

Periplasmic flagella

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87
Q

Cause of death of congenital syphylis

A

Pulmonary hemorrhage

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88
Q

What is the Hutchinson Triad seen in congenital syphylis?

A

Hutchinson teeth, deafness, keratitis

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89
Q

Pupils that accommodate but do not react seen in Tertiary Syphylis

A

Argyll Robertson pupils or Prostitute’s Pupil

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90
Q

What is the screening test for syphylis?

A

RPR-VDRL

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91
Q

Confirmatory test for Syphylis

A

FTA-ABS

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92
Q

Diagnostic lesion in secondary Syphylis

A

Condyloma lata

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93
Q

Influenza-like symptoms few hours after receiving penicillin

A

Jarisch - Herxheimer Reaction

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94
Q

Organism responsible for a firm, ulcerated painless lesion with a punched out base and rolled edges

A

Treponema pallidum, chancre of primary syphylis

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95
Q

What 2 bacteria exhibit a CSF analysis with lymphocytic predominance?

A

Treponema pallidum, Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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96
Q

DOC for Treponema pallidum infection

A

Syphilis - Benzathine penicillin G

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97
Q

Largest medically important bacteria

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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98
Q

Lyme disease is caused by a bite from?

A

Deer tick (Ixodes scapularis)

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99
Q

DOC for Borrelia burgdorferi infection

A

Lyme Disease - Doxycycline

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100
Q

Pathognomonic lesion for Borrelia burgdorferi infection

A

Lyme disease - erythema chronicum migrans

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101
Q

DOC for Relapsing Fever

A

Borrelia recurrentis - Doxycyline or erythromycin

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102
Q

Transmission of relapsing fever is through?

A

Human body louse - Pediculus humanus

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103
Q

Obligate aerobe with a Shepherd’s crook appearance. In what medium does it grow?

A

Leptospira interrogans - EMJH or Fletcher’s Medium

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104
Q

Gold standard in diagnosing Leptospirosis

A

Leptospire Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT)

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105
Q

Pathogenesis of meningitis and glomerulonephritis in Leptospirosis

A

Immune complex mediated

106
Q

CXR finding in Leptospirosis pulmonary involvement

A

Snow flake lesion

107
Q

Weil’s Triad

A

Leptospirosis - jaundice, bleeding, uremia

108
Q

Most common COD in Leptospirosis

A

Massive pulmonary hemorrhage

109
Q

Most common STD overall. Obligate intracellular bacteria, uses host ATP

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

110
Q

Most common cause of infectious blindness

A

Trachoma - Chlamydia trachomatis

111
Q

Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies near the nuclei of conjunctival epithelial cells in trachoma

A

Halberstadter - Prowazek inclusions

112
Q

Characteristic cough in neonatal pneumonia caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Staccato cough

113
Q

Organism that causes Bird Fancier’s Disease

A

Chlamydia psittaci

114
Q

Test to confirm the diagnosis of Rickettsiae

A

Weil - Felix Reaction

115
Q

Gram (-) rod responsible for Cat Scratch Disease

A

Bartonella henselae

116
Q

What is the presentation of Cat Scratch Disease in immunocompetent patients? Immunocomprised?

A

Immunocompetent - cat scratch fever, Immunocompromised - bacillary angiomatosis

117
Q

Tick that transmits Ehrlichiosis

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis - Dermacentor (dog tick)

118
Q

Gram (-) rod presenting as a painful genital ulcer

A

Haemophilus ducreyi - Chancroid

119
Q

Gram (-) rod that causes Mesenteric Adenitis

A

Yersenia enterocolitica

120
Q

Encapsulated, pleomorphic gram (-) bacillus with bipolar densities

A

Klebsiella granulomatis (Donovanosis) - Donovan bodies that look like closed safety pins

121
Q

Clinical presentation of Granuloma inguinale

A

K. Granulomatis - beefy red ulcer, pseudobuboe formation

122
Q

Essential sterol in fungi

A

Ergosterol

123
Q

Toxin of Aspergillus flavia that causes Liver Ca

A

Aflatoxin, found in peanuts and grains

124
Q

Most common agar used to diagnose fungal infections

A

Sabourad’s agar

125
Q

Organism responsible for Tinea Versicolor or An-An. What is its appearance on KOH?

A

Malassezia furfur - spaghetti and meatballs appearance

126
Q

Treatment for Rose Gardener’s Disease

A

Sporotrichosis (Sporothrix schenckii) - Itraconazole or Potassium iodide

127
Q

Infection with Coccidioides immitis. What is the characteristic lesion?

A

Valley Fever - erythema nodosum or Desert Bumps

128
Q

Infective form of Histoplasma capsulatum. Common in bird and bat droppings

A

Inhaled Micronidia

129
Q

Fungal infection that mimics TB

A

Histoplasmosis - Histoplasma capsulatum

130
Q

DOC for all systemic mycoses

A

Itraconazole or Amphotericin B

131
Q

Round yeast with broad based bud. Most common cause of fungal pneumonia

A

Blastomycosis - Blastomycosis dermatitidis

132
Q

Yeast with multiple buds in wheel configuration. Found in Central and South America

A

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

133
Q

Organism that causes pseudomembranous esophagitis in immunocompromised hosts

A

Candida albicans

134
Q

Abundant in pigeon droppings, most common cause of meningoencephalitis in AIDS patients

A

Cryptococcus neoformans - oval yeast with a narrow base bud

135
Q

Exist only as molds. Hyphae form V shaped branches in acute angles (<90)

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

136
Q

Fungus that commonly infects patients with diabetic ketoacidosis, burn patients, leukemia

A

Mucormycosis - Rhizopus oryzae and Mucor spp. Rhino-orbital-cerebral infection.

137
Q

DOC for PCPo

A

Trimethroprim-sulfamethoxazole

138
Q

Diagnostic methods for PCP

A

Broncheoalveolar washings (toluidine blue and methenamine silver stain) - hat shaped cells. CXR - ground glass infiltrates (ARDS).

139
Q

Causes spongiform encephalopathies and pathogenic as beta pleated sheets

A

Prions

140
Q

True of False: Among viruses, purified nucleic acids of most dsDNA and (+) strand genome ssRNA viruses are infectious

A

True

141
Q

Enzyme required by (-) strand RNA virus to undergo translation in the host cell

A

RNA - dependent RNA polymerase

142
Q

Only live attenuated vaccine that can be given to HIV (+) patients

A

MMR

143
Q

Smallest icosahedral virus with a single strand of DNA

A

Parvovirus

144
Q

Erythema infectiosium

A

Parvovirus B19 - Fifth disease

145
Q

Hydrops fetalis is common among infants with what viral infection and during what trimester

A

Parvovirus B19 - 2nd trim

146
Q

Only virus with fiber. Causes URTI symptoms and hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Adenovirus - Cowdry type B intranuclear inclusions on histopathology

147
Q

Condition caused by JC Polyoma virus among immunocompromised patients

A

Progressive Multifocal Encephalopathy - affects oligodendrocytes

148
Q

Inactivate tumor suppressor genes in HPV infection

A

Genes E6 and E7

149
Q

DOC for herpes simplex virus

A

Acyclovir

150
Q

Site of latency of HSV 1? HSV 2?

A

HSV 1 - trigeminal ganglia. HSV 2 - lumbosacral ganglia.

151
Q

Histopathology finding in HSV

A

Cowdry Type A - large, pink to purple intranuclear inclusion cyts

152
Q

Smear used to diagnose HSV

A

Tzanck smear - multinucleated giant cells

153
Q

VZV affecting geniculate ganglion causing facial nerve paralysis

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

154
Q

Virus that is cultured in shell tubes with a (-) heterophil test

A

Cytomegalovirus

155
Q

Histopathology of the virus reveals giant cells with owl’s eye nuclear inclusions

A

Cytomegalovirus

156
Q

Virus that infects B lymphocytes

A

Epstein - Barr Virus

157
Q

Rare complication of Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Splenic rupture - EBV (kissing disease)

158
Q

Cancers associated with EBV

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma, Nasopharyngeal Ca

159
Q

Malignancy of vascular endothelial cells. Lesions are dark purple, flat to nodular, and appear at multiple sites.

A

Human herpesvirus 8 - Kaposi’s sarcoma

160
Q

Histopathology of Smallpox

A

Variola virus - Guarnieri bodies

161
Q

DOC for CMV infections

A

Ganciclovir

162
Q

Virus that produces papular skin lesions with an umbilicated center and Henderson - Peterson bodies on histopathology

A

Molluscum contagiosum

163
Q

Only DNA virus that produces DNA by reverse transcription with mRNA as the template

A

Hepa B

164
Q

Autoimmune vasculitides associated with Hepa B infection

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

165
Q

Hepatitis virus associated with Hepatocellular Ca

A

Hepatitis B

166
Q

Virus that replicates in motor neurons in the anterior horn of the spinal cord causing paralysis

A

Poliovirus

167
Q

Histopathologic findings in Poliomyelitis

A

Cowdry type B intranuclear inclusions

168
Q

Most common cause of viral myocarditis and pericarditis

A

Coxsackie B

169
Q

Organisms responsible for the common cold

A

Rhinovirus, Coronaviridae

170
Q

Most common cause of non bacterial diarrhea in adults

A

Norwalk Virus

171
Q

Most common cause of childhood diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

172
Q

Virulent spikes in Influenza virus

A

Hemagglutinin, Neuraminidase

173
Q

Type of Influenza that does not cause outbreaks

A

Influenza C

174
Q

The only human Influenza virus, there is no animal source

A

Influenza B

175
Q

DOC for Influenza B and C

A

Oseltamivir or Zanamivir

176
Q

DOC for Influenza A

A

Amantadine or Rimantidine

177
Q

Pathognomonic histopathologic finding in Measles (Rubeola)

A

Multinucleated giant cells - Warthin Finkeldey Bodies

178
Q

True or False: A patient with Rubeola presenting with rash is still infective

A

False

179
Q

DOC for a virus with fusion proteins as surface spikes and is the most important cause of pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants

A

RSV - Ribavirin

180
Q

CXR finding in Croup

A

Parainfluenza 1 and 2 - Steeple sign

181
Q

Bullet shaped enveloped virus

A

Rabies virus

182
Q

Histopathologic finding in Rabies Virus

A

Intracytoplasmic Negri Bodies

183
Q

Vector of Breakbone Fever

A

Dengue virus - Aedes aegypti

184
Q

Most prevalent blood borne pathogen

A

Hepatitis C virus

185
Q

Most common indication for liver transplantation

A

Cirrhosis secondary to Hepa C infection

186
Q

Group specific antigen that serves as an important serologic marker of infection

A

p24

187
Q

Reason behind the numerous antigenic variants of HIV

A

gp120

188
Q

HIV regulatory gene that decreases CD4 and class I MHC proteins

A

nef

189
Q

Main immune response against HIV

A

Cytotoxic CD8+ lymphocytes

190
Q

Definitive diagnostic test for HIV

A

Western blot

191
Q

Laboratory exam in HIV patients that is used for prognostication

A

PCR - can determine viral load

192
Q

Define HAART

A

2 nucleoside inhibitors (zidovudine and lamivudine) and 1 protease inhibitor (indinavir)

193
Q

Histopathology finding of malignant T cells with flower shaped nucleus

A

Human T Cell Lymphocytic Virus

194
Q

Thread-like viruses with 100% mortality rate due to profound capillary leak and hemorrhage

A

Ebola Virus

195
Q

Flavivirus with a bird-mosquito-man cycle. May progress to neuroinvasive disease

A

West Nile Virus

196
Q

Most common cause of epidemic encephalitis, transmitted by Culex mosquitoes

A

Japanese B Virus

197
Q

CT scan findings on Japanese B Encephalitis

A

Thalamic infarcts

198
Q

Free living organism that passes through the digestive tract without infecting the host

A

Spurious parasite

199
Q

True or False: The definitive host harbors the larval/asexual stage

A

False - the definitive host is where the parasite attains sexual maturity, the intermediate host is where the you can find the larval/asexual stage of the parasite

200
Q

Protozoa that exhibits Brownian movement

A

Entamoeba histolytica

201
Q

Characteristic lesion in Amebic colitis

A

Flask shaped colon ulcers

202
Q

DOC for E. histolytica cyst carrier state? Amebic colitis?

A

Cyst - Filoxanide furoate, Colitis - Metronidazole

203
Q

Protozoa with a falling leaf motility, adheres to the SI and causes malabsorption

A

Giardia lamblia - diarrhea and flatus that smells like rotten eggs

204
Q

Acid fast protozoa that causes diarrhea in immunocompromised patients, with thick walled oocysts. . Treatment?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum, treat with Nitazoxanide

205
Q

Sexually transmitted protozoa that exists only as a pear shaped, flagellated trophozoite

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

206
Q

Most important parasitic disease in man

A

V. Plasmodium

207
Q

True or false: Individuals with RBC defects are immune to malaria

A

True

208
Q

Which malarial vector has the worst clinical scenario

A

P. falciparum

209
Q

What malarial species causes Recrudescence?

A

P. falciparum and malariae - recurrence of symptoms after 2 to 4 weeks

210
Q

Diagnostic exam for Malaria

A

Thin and thick smears with Giemsa stain

211
Q

What malarial dots are seen in the different species?

A

Schuffner - ovale and vivax, Maurer - falciparum, Ziemann - malariae

212
Q

Organism that causes hemolytic anemia, Durck granulas, blackwater fever, and septic shock (algid)

A

Malaria - cerebral

213
Q

Vector of Trypanosa cruzi

A

Reduviid bug

214
Q

Infective stage of Trypanosoma cruzi

A

Trypomastigotes

215
Q

Diagnosis and treatment for Chagas Disease

A

Trypanosoma cruzi - Xenodiagnosis, treat with Nifurtimox

216
Q

Organism responsible for African Sleeping Sickness

A

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and rhodesiense

217
Q

Posterior cervical lymph node enlargement seen in African Sleeping Sickness

A

Winterbottom Sign

218
Q

Plasma cells with cytoplasmic immunoglobulin globules seen in encephalitis caused by African Sleeping Sickness

A

Mott Cells

219
Q

Most common cause of red tide in the Phil

A

Pyrodinium bahamense var compressum

220
Q

Transmission of red tide

A

Dinoflagellates in bivalve mollusks

221
Q

Only ciliated protozoan to cause human disease

A

Balantidium coli

222
Q

Classic maltese cross on blood smear. Vector?

A

Babesia microti. Ixodes rick, can have a co-infection with Lyme disease

223
Q

Vector of Leishmaniasis

A

Sandfly (Phlebotomus)

224
Q

DOC for Leishmaniasis infections

A

Antimony compounds - Stinogluconate

225
Q

Treatment for all cestodes

A

Praziquantel - except E. granulosus (Albendazole)

226
Q

Which tapeworm can cause neurocysticercosis and worms in vitreous humor?

A

Taenia solium (pork tapeworm)

227
Q

Cestode infection that causes megaloblastic anemia due to Vit B12 deficiency

A

Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm)

228
Q

Organism that causes Hydatid cysts in the liver which may lead to an anaphylactic reaction if ruptured

A

Echinococcus granulosus

229
Q

Treatment for hydatid cysts

A

Albendazole, PAIR procedure

230
Q

Most common tapeworm in developed countries. Contain polar filaments and six hooked larva

A

Hymenolepsis nana

231
Q

DOC for all trematodes

A

Praziquantel

232
Q

Intermediate host of Schistosoma japonicum

A

Snail - Oncomelania hupensis quadrasi

233
Q

Diagnosis of Schistosoma

A

Circumoval precipitin test - demonstrates ovoid egg with small hook

234
Q

Illness caused by Schistosoma that presents with fever, hives, headache, weight loss, cough

A

Katayama Fever

235
Q

Trematode with melon-like ridges on Potassium permanganate stain (KMnO4)

A

Clonirchis sinensis

236
Q

Ca associated with Clonorchis sinensis chronic disease

A

Cholangiocarcinoma (Klatskin’s Tumor)

237
Q

Sheep liver fluke presenting with objstructive jaundice and painful pharyngitis

A

Fasciola hepatica - Halzoun (from eating watercress)

238
Q

Intestinal fluke that mimics peptic ulcer disease

A

Heterophyes heterophyes

239
Q

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis seen in ascaris infection

A

Loeffler’s syndrome

240
Q

Nematodes that causes microcytic hypochromic anemia and cutaneous larva migrans

A

Necator and Ancylostoma

241
Q

Kato katz reveals barrel shaped eggs with bipolar plugs

A

Trichuris trichiura

242
Q

Whipworm infection results to this disease from increased peristalsis to expel the worms

A

Trichuris trichiura - rectal prolapse

243
Q

Pinworm that causes pruritus ani. What is the appearance of the eggs on Graham’s scotch tape technique?

A

Enterobius vermicularis - D shaped eggs

244
Q

DOC for pinworm

A

Enterobius vermicularis - Pyrantel pamoate

245
Q

Medium for the diagnosis of Strongyloides stercoralis

A

Harada - Mori Culture

246
Q

DOC for Strongyloides stercoralis infection

A

Ivermectin

247
Q

Only nematode whose life cycle involves a migratory bird

A

Capillaria philippinensis

248
Q

Diagnostic findings of Capillaria philippinensis in Kato katz

A

Peanut shaped eggs with flattened bipolar plugs

249
Q

Clinical presentation of Wuchereria and Brugia

A

Wuchereria - hydrocoele, Brugia - elephantiasis

250
Q

Most debilitating nematode infection, common among abaca farmers

A

Wuchereria and Brugia

251
Q

Infective stage of hydrocoele and elephantiasis

A

Wuchereria and Brugia - 3rd stage larvae

252
Q

Small epithelioid granulomas in Wuchereria and and Brugia

A

Meyers - Kouvenaar Bodies

253
Q

Nematode that invades striated skeletal muscle and is encysted within a host derived cell

A

Trichinella spiralis - Nurse cell

254
Q

DOC for Trichinella spiralis

A

Thiabendazole

255
Q

Vector of Onchocerca volvulus

A

Female blackfly (Simulium) - river blindness

256
Q

DOC of Onchocerca volvulus and SE of lysis of worms

A

Ivermectin - Mazzotti Reaction

257
Q

Transmitted by deer or mango fly (Chrysops)

A

Loa Loa - worm crawling across conjuctiva and Calabar swellings (subcutaneous edema)

258
Q

Guinea fir worm, live worm in skin ulcer

A

Dracunculus medinensis - ingestion of copepods in water

259
Q

Visceral larva migrans, dog ascaris

A

Toxocara canis

260
Q

Most common cause of parasitic eosinophilic meningitis

A

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

261
Q

Etiology of eosinophilic gastroenteritis

A

Anisakis simplex

ASMPH Flashcards (9 decks)

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