Anatomy and Surgery 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Boundary between CNS and PNS

A

Anterior horn cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Connects the R and L brain

A

Corpus callosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most inferior part of the brain

A

Cerebellar tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Broca’s Area

A

Brodmann 44,45 - opercular/triangular parts of inferior frontal gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Wernicke’s Area

A

Brodmann’s Area 22 - superior temporal gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Major arteries in 4 vessel angiography

A

R and L internal carotids, R and L vertebral arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

White matter and Gray matter: brain vs spinal cord

A

Brain - white inside, grey outside. Spinal Cord - white outside, grey inside.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Total number of bones in the skeletal system

A

206

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cube shaped bones that contain mostly spongy bone

A

Short bones - carpals, tarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Shaft of the bone

A

Diaphysis - compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ends of the bone

A

Epiphysis - spongy bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Decreases friction at joint surfaces

A

Articular cartilage - made of hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gives rise to the bone, cartilages and muscle

A

Mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Classification of joints based on mobility

A

Synarthroses - immoveable. Amphiarthroses - slightly moveable. Diarthroses - freely moveable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Example of pivot joints

A

C1 and C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Examples of fibrous joints

A

Sutures, syndesmoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Example of cartilaginous joints

A

Pubic symphysis, intervertebral joinys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gomphosis is what kind of joint?

A

Tooth and socket of mandible and maxilla - synarthrosis/immoveable fibrous joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Kind of synovial joint: wrist

A

Ellipsoidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Synovial joint: carpometacarpal of thumb

A

Saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Synovial joint: shoulder, hip

A

Ball and socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Synovial joint: atlantoaxial, radioulnar

A

Pivot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Structures covered by axillary fascia

A

Axillary vein, axillary artery, brachial plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Weakest area of rotator cuff muscles

A

Inferior, prone to dislocation - axillary nerve affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Muscles innervated by suprascapular nerve

A

Supraspinatus (adbuctor), Infraspinatus (lateral rotator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Muscles innervated by the axillary nerve

A

Teres minor (lateral rotator), Deltoid (abductor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most commonly inflamed rotator cuffuscle

A

Supraspinatus - pain during abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Medial rotator of the shoulder

A

Subscapularis - upper subscapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Borders of Quadrangular space that contains the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral vessels

A

Above - teres minor, below - teres major, medial - long head of triceps brachii, lateral - surgical neck of humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Injury to musculocutaneous nerve

A

Difficulty flexing arm and supinating forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Triceps brachii innervated bu?

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

All flexor muscles of the forearm are innervated by the median nerve except?

A

FCU (superficial) and FDP (deep) - Ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2 innervations of FDP in the arm

A

Lateral side - median nerve, Medial side - ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Medial epicondyle of humerus: origin of?

A

FLEXOR tendon - pronator teres, FCR, palmaris longis, FCU, FDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Lateral Epicondyle of Humerus: origin of?

A

EXTENSOR tendon - ECRB, ED, EDM, ECU, Anconeus, Supinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Innervation of extensor muscles of forearm

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Roots of the Brachial Plexus

A

C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Innervation of serratus anterior muscle

A

Long thoracic nerve - C5 to C7 roots of brachial plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Origin of musculocutaneous nerve

A

Lateral cord of brachial plexus (C5-C7) - anterior flexors of arm and supination of forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Origin of axillary nerve

A

Posterior cord (C5 and C6) - supplies deltoid and teres minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Origin of Radial Nerve

A

Posterior cord (C5,C6,C7,C8,T1) - supplies extensor muscles of arm and forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Origin of thoracodorsal nerve

A

Posterior cord (C6,C7,C8) - innervates latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Lesion of C5 and C6 in superior trunk of brachial plexus

A

Erb Duchenne’s syndrome - “waiter’s tip”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Lesion in the C8 and T1 ventral rami in the inferior trunk of the brachial plexus

A

Klumpke’s Paralysis - ape hand and a claw hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Area where long thoracic nerve is commonly injured

A

Courses superficial to the serratus anterior - lateral wall of thorax (radical mastecty, stab wounds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Long thoracic nerve injury

A

Winging of scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lesion results to difficulty elevating the trunk or using a crutch

A

Thoracodorsal nerve lesions - latissimus dorsi muscle affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Nerve lesion due to spiral fracture of the midshaft of the humerus

A

Radial nerve - wrist drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Proximal median nerve lesion

A

Hand of Benediction - supracondylar fracture of the humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Distal median nerve lesion

A

Ape hand or weakness in opposition of fingers - carpal tunnel syndrome/lunate dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ulnar nerve distal lesion

A

Claw hand or weakness in the ability to abduct and adduct fingers (hold a piece of paper in between fingers) - fracture in hook of hamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Divides the axillary artery into 3 parts

A

Tendon of pectoralis minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Branch of 3rd part of axillary artery that supplies the anterior serratus muscle

A

Thoracodorsal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Most commonly fractured bone in the body

A

Clavicle - first to begin ossification, last to complete ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Colles vs Smith Radial Fractures

A

Colles - silver fork deformity, distal segment posteriorly displaced. Smith’s - distal segment anteriorly displaced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Total number of carpals per hand

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pain and tenderness over anatomical snuffbox

A

Scaphoid fracture - most commonly fractured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Anterior dislocation may cause carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Lunate - most commonly dislocated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Fracture at the base of the first metacarpal bone

A

Bennett’s fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Fracture at the necks of the 2nd and 3rd metacarpals

A

Boxer’s fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Nerve compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Muscle that flexes distal IP joints

A

Flexor digitorum profundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Innervation of thenar and hypothenar muscles

A

Thenar - median nerve. Hypothenar - ulnar nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Lymphatic drainage of R head and neck/R thorax/ R upper limb

A

Right lymphatic duct that drains to R brachiocephalic. The rest is drained by thoracic duct that drains to L brachiocephalic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Anterior thigh muscles innervation

A

Femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Posterior thigh muscles innervation

A

Sciatic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Medial thigh muscles innervation

A

Obturator nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Strongest flexor of thigh and hip joint

A

Iliopsoas or Psoas major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Tensor fascia lata innervation

A

Superior gluteal nerve - muscle is part of anterior thigh muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Quadriceps femoris muscle that crosses above the hip joint

A

Rectus femoris - flexes hip joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Origin of Sartorius

A

ASIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Origin of rectus femoris

A

AIIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Insertion of iliacus and psoas

A

Lesser trochanter of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Insertion of quadriceps femoris

A

Patellar tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Dual nerve innervation of Adductor magnus (medial thigh muscle)

A

Medial or adductor part - obturator nerve. Posterior or hamstring part - sciatic nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Insertion of adductor muscles

A

Linea aspera of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Insertion of hamstring part of adductor magnus

A

Adductor tubercle of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Innervation of semitendinosus and semimembranosus (hamstring muscles)

A

Tibial division of sciatic nerve

79
Q

Common origin of hamstring muscles

A

Ischial tuberosity

80
Q

Contents of Adductor canal (Subsartorial canal/Hunter’s canal)

A

Femoral artery and vein, saphenous nerve, nerve to vastus medialis

81
Q

Innervates gluteus medius, minimus and tensor fascia lata

A

Superior gluteal nerve

82
Q

Innervates gluteal maximus

A

Inferior gluteal nerve

83
Q

Abductor and medial rotator of thigh

A

Gluteus medius and minimus

84
Q

Extensor of thigh

A

Gluteus maximus

85
Q

Common origin of gluteal muscles

A

Outer surface of ilium

86
Q

Insertion of gluteus maximus

A

Gluteal tuberosity, along iliotibial tract

87
Q

Insertion of quadratus femoris

A

Quadrate tubercle

88
Q

Lateral rotators of thigh

A

Piriformis, obturator internus, superior and inferior gemelli, quadratus femoris

89
Q

Formed within the Psoas major muscle by the ventral rami of L1-L4

A

Lumbar Plexus

90
Q

From L1, supplies skin on the lower part of anterior abdominal wall

A

Iliohypogastric nerve - from lateral border of Psoas

91
Q

From L1, supply skin of the groin and scrotum/labia majora

A

Ilioinguinal nerve - lateral border of psoas muscle

92
Q

From L1 and L2, genital branch (cremaster muscle) and femoral branch (skin on thigh)

A

Genitofemoral - anterior surface of psoas muscle

93
Q

From L2 and L3, skin over lateral surface of the thigh

A

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve - lateral border of psoas

94
Q

Nerves in lumbar plexus that emerge from the lateral border of the psoas muscle

A

Iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal, lateral femoral cutaneous, femoral nerves

95
Q

Largest branch of the lumbar plexus

A

Femoral nerve

96
Q

Formed by anterior rami of L4 and L5 and S1-S4. Located in front of the piriformis muscle

A

Sacral plexus

97
Q

Branches of the sacral plexus to the lower limb leave the pelvis through the?

A

Greater sciatic foramen

98
Q

Largest nerve in the body. From L4-S3.

A

Sciatic nerve

99
Q

Lesion: difficulty climbing stairs or rising from a sitting position

A

Inferior gluteal nerve - gluteus maximus

100
Q

Nerve that can be damaged with an abscess in the psoas major

A

Femoral nerve - dimished patellar tendon reflex

101
Q

Nerve lesion: pain and paresthesia in the medial aspect of the leg and foot, no weakness

A

Saphenous nerve

102
Q

Femoral neck shaft angle changes

A

Coxa vara - decreased. Coxa valga - increased.

103
Q

Major supply of femoral head that prevents avascular necrosis

A

Medial femoral circumflex artery

104
Q

Thigh is shortened and externally rotates

A

Fracture of the neck of the femur

105
Q

Thigh is shortened and internally rotated

A

Posterior dislocation of the femoral head - sciatic nerve may be compressed

106
Q

Innervation of anterior leg muscles

A

Deer peroneal nerve - dorsiflexion and extension

107
Q

Innervation of lateral leg muscles

A

Superficial peroneal nerve - plantar flexion and eversion

108
Q

Innervation of posterior leg muscles

A

Tibial nerve - plantar flexion and flexion

109
Q

Muscles that invert the foot

A

Tibialis anterior (deep peroneal nerve), Tibialis posterior (tibial nerve)

110
Q

Innervated by tibial nerve that unlocks the knee

A

Popliteus

111
Q

Innervation of muscles of the sole

A

Lateral plantar nerve

112
Q

Muscles of the sole innervates by medial plantar nerve

A

Abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, flexor hallucis brevis, 1st lumbrical

113
Q

External iliac artery crosses the inguinal ligament to become the?

A

Femoral artery

114
Q

Landmark for dorsalis pedis pulse

A

Between malleoli or 1st intermetatarsal space

115
Q

Nerve lesion: foot drop

A

Common peroneal nerve or common fibular nerve - cannot dorsiflex foot while walking

116
Q

Leg muscle that everts the foot

A

Peroneus - superficial peroneal nerve

117
Q

Most frequently injured nerve in the lower limb

A

Common peroneal / Fibular nerve

118
Q

Nerve lesion: cab’t stand on tip toes

A

Tibial nerve

119
Q

Knee joint: synovial gliding joint

A

Between patella and femur

120
Q

Knee joint: synovial hinge joint

A

Between femur and tibia

121
Q

Prevents posterior displacement of the femur on the tibia

A

ACL - lax during flexion, from anterior aspect of tibia to lateral condyle of femur

122
Q

Prevents anterior displacement of the femur on tibia

A

PCL - lax during extension, from posterior aspect of the tibia to the medial condyle of femur

123
Q

Injury to ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus

A

Unhappy triad of O Donoghue - violent blow on lateral side of knee, leg is abducted and laterally rotated

124
Q

Rupture of the medial/tibial collateral ligament

A

Knock knee or genu valgum

125
Q

Rupture of the lateral or fibular collateral ligament

A

Bowleg or genu varum

126
Q

Injured ankle ligament in inversion injury

A

Anterior talofibular ligament

127
Q

Avulsion of the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal

A

Jones Fracture

128
Q

Eversion injury or Pott Fracture

A

Avulsion of medial malleolus, fracture of the fibula due to the lateral movement of the talus

129
Q

Total number of bones in the skull

A

22

130
Q

Skull fracture at pterion

A

May lacerate middle meningeal artery (epidural hematoma), medial part of temporal lobe herniation (compress brainstem)

131
Q

Fracture on petrous portion of temporal bone

A

Blood or CSF escapes from ear

132
Q

Fracture on anterior cranial fossa

A

Fracture of cribriform plate (CN 1) - anosmia, raccoon eyes, CSF leakage from nose

133
Q

General term for premature closure of suturs

A

Craniosynostosis

134
Q

Premature closure of sagittal suture

A

Scaphocephaly - long and narrow skull

135
Q

Premature closure of coronal suture

A

Oxycephaly or Acrocephaly - short, high skull “tower skull”

136
Q

Premature closure of coronal and lambdoid sutures on 1 side of the skull

A

Plagiocephaly

137
Q

Primary brain vesicles

A

Forebrain - Prosencephalon. Midbrain - Mesencephalon. Hindbrain - Rhombencephalon.

138
Q

Division of prosencephalon and rhombencephalon

A

Happens on 5th week

139
Q

Derivatives of brain vesicles: Telencephalon

A

Cerebrum

140
Q

Derivatives of brain vesicles: diencephalon

A

Thalamus

141
Q

Derivatives of brain vesicles: mesencephalon

A

Midbrain

142
Q

Derivatives of brain vesicles: metencephalon

A

Pons, cerebellum

143
Q

Derivatives of brain vesicles: myelencephalon

A

Medulla

144
Q

Closure of neural tube happens on the?

A

4th week

145
Q

Neural crest derivatives

A

Pigment cells of retina, cells of adrenal medulla

146
Q

Meninges of brain and spinal cord

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

147
Q

Arterial supply of dura mater

A

Middle meningeal artery

148
Q

Danger area of the scalp

A

Loose connective tissue - contains emissary veins where infection can spread

149
Q

Sickle shaped fold of dura mater that lies in the midline between 2 cerebral hemispheres

A

Falx cerebri

150
Q

Crescent shaped fold of dura mater that roofs over the posterior cranial fossa

A

Tentorium cerebelli - supports the occipital lobes

151
Q

Inmervation of dura mater

A

Above the tentorium - trigeminal nerve. Below the tentorium - first 3 cervical nerves.

152
Q

Vascular membrane that closely invests the brain covering the gyri and descending into the deepest sulci

A

Pia mater

153
Q

Lobes of the cerebrum

A

Frontal - motor. Parietal - somesthetic. Occipital - visual. Temporal - hearing.

154
Q

Pyramidal System: voluntary control of skeletal muscles

A

Corticobulbar, Lateral corticospinal, Anterior corticospinal

155
Q

Signs of UMN lesions

A

Spastic paralysis, (-) atrophy, (-) fasciculations, (+) clonus, (+) pathologic reflexes, increased muscle tone

156
Q

Signs of LMN lesion

A

Flaccid paralysis, (+) atrophy, (+) fasciculations, (-) clonus, (-) pathologic reflexes, decreased muscle tone

157
Q

Cerebellar lobe: coordination of limb movements and regulation of muscle tone

A

Anterior lobe - Paleocerebellum or Spinocerebellum

158
Q

Cerebellar lobe: coordination of voluntary movements

A

Posterior lobe - Neocerebellum or Cerebrocerebellum

159
Q

Cerebellar lobe: coordination of para-axial muscles associated with equilibrium

A

Floculonodular lobe - Archicerebellum

160
Q

Signs of lesions in posterior lobe

A

Ataxia, Dysmetria, Dysdiadochokinesia

161
Q

Failure to recognize stimuli perceived by senses

A

Agnosia - visual, tactile or auditory

162
Q

Motor disability, inability to carry out learned or purposive movements

A

Apraxia

163
Q

Production of CSF found in subarachnoid space

A

Choroid plexuses

164
Q

Dopamine is secreted by the?

A

Substantia nigra in the basal ganglia

165
Q

Movement disorders: negative vs positive signs

A

Negative - actions that the patient wants to perform but cannot. Positive - actions the patient does not want to perform but cannot prevent.

166
Q

Abnormalities here will result to movement disorders

A

Basal ganglia

167
Q

Another name for Parkinson’s disease

A

Paralysis agitans - degeneration of substantia nigra

168
Q

Degeneration of striatal neurons and depletion of Acetyl CoA

A

Chorea - involuntary, irregular, jerking movements

169
Q

Results from damage to the contralateral subthalamic nucleus

A

Hemiballismus

170
Q

Kissing muscle

A

Orbicularis oris - CN VII

171
Q

Loss of taste and common sensation of tongue posteriorly

A

CN IX - glossopharyngeal

172
Q

Hemiparalysis of the tongue, deviation towards the weak side

A

CN XII - hypoglossal nerve

173
Q

Muscle that divides the subclavian artery into 3 parts

A

Scalenous anterior

174
Q

Most common locations of berry aneurysms

A

Circle of Willis - ACA, PCA, MCA

175
Q

Development of facial muscles

A

Mesoderm in the 2nd pharyngeal arches

176
Q

Smiling muscle

A

Zygomaticus - CN VII

177
Q

Grinning muscle

A

Risorius - CN VII

178
Q

Blowing or “trumpeteer’s muscle”

A

Buccinator - CN VII

179
Q

Formed by the union of the superficial temporal and maxillary veins

A

Retromandibular vein

180
Q

Anterior branch of retromandibular vein

A

Joins the facial vein to form the common facial vein

181
Q

Posterior branch of retromandibular vein

A

Joins the posterior auricular vein to form the external jugular vein

182
Q

Innervation of muscles of mastication

A

CN V - Trigeminal nerve

183
Q

Muscle of mastication that opens the jaw

A

Lateral Pterygoid

184
Q

Muscle that closes the eyelids

A

Orbicularis oculi - CN VII facial nerve

185
Q

Nerve lesion: jaw deviates to the weak side

A

CN V - trigeminal nerve

186
Q

Divides the tongue into R and L halves

A

Median groove or median sulcus

187
Q

Divides the tongue into anterior and posterior parts

A

V shaped sulcus terminalis

188
Q

Remnant of thyroglossal duct thats marks the apex of the tongue

A

Foramen cecum

189
Q

Only muscle of the tongue innervated by Vagus nerve

A

Palatoglossus

190
Q

Innervation of extraocular muscles

A

CN III, except LR 6 and SO 4

191
Q

Lesion in oculomotor nucleus and nerve

A

Eyeball down and out

192
Q

Lesion in abducent nucleus and nerve

A

Medial deviation or esotropia and paralysis of abduction of the ipsilateral eye

193
Q

Lesion in trochlear nucleus and nerve

A

Outward rotation of the superior part of eye, compensated by tilting of the head